1
Q
- ______ is an oderless, tasteless, colorless gas produced from incomplete combustion?
A
CO
2
Q
- Where do most CO Poisonings occur?
A
Fire Grounds
3
Q
- Once carbon monoxide binds to the hemoglobin molecule, it can no longer do what?
A
Bind Oxygen
4
Q
- What are the general indicators of carbon monoxide exposure?
A
- Victems rescued from or whom had prolonged exposure to smoke
- Victems exposed to other forms of incomplete combustion
- Exposure/overexposure to comerical paint remover (Methylene Chloride)
5
Q
- Whom should you contact if you need assistance in managing specific overdoses?
A
Poision Control (H11)
6
Q
- Cyanide is a cellular toxin - it halts respiration at the ______.
A
Cellular level
7
Q
- What are some early signs and symptoms of cyanide exposure?
A
Anxiety, vertigo, weakness, headache, tachpnea, nausea, dyspnea, vomiting, tachycardia.
8
Q
- If you have a patient that has been bitten/stung by an insect, reptile, or animal that has caused injury to your patient should you bring it to the hospital with you?
A
Do not bring live animals to the hospital.
9
Q
- if an anaphylactic reaction occurs as a result of a bite or sting you should?
A
Refer to the anaphylactic protocal - Epi
10
Q
- With an OB patient that is in labor, with delivery of a newborn being imminent, what is the most important decision to make with this patient?
A
To attempt delivery or transport the patient.
11
Q
- What is the first step in the birthing process once the head presents itself?
A
Suction the mouth then nose.
12
Q
- Once deleivery is accomplished, clamp the cord at ____ and ____ from the navel and cut between the clamps.
A
6 and 8 Inches
13
Q
- When should you score the APGAR score?
A
At 1 and 5 min.
14
Q
- What is a prolapsed cord?
A
When the cord presents itself before the fetus.
15
Q
- What position should you place the mother in that has a prolapsed cord?
A
Knee - Chest position
16
Q
- In the event that the patient has experienced a miscarriage and if there is any question as to the approximate gestation of the fetus you should?
A
Provide rescuration measures
17
Q
- If there is a question as to twhether the fetus is viable or not you should?
A
Contact Medical Control
18
Q
- When does the protocol Trauma in Pregnancy apply to the pregnant patient?
A
20 weeks or greater in gestation.
19
Q
- According to the protocol Trauma in Pregnancy, what are the 2 instances where you would not resuscitate the patient?
A
Dependent vivdity and rigor mortis
20
Q
- Hperthermic reactions gennerally relate to _____, _____, or in severe cases, _____.
A
- Heat Cramps
- Heat exhustion
- Heat Stroke
21
Q
- What should you do if heat exhaustion or cramps are suspected?
A
Move patient to cool area and take tempature.
22
Q
- If heat stroke is suspected where should you place cold packs on the patient?
A
Groin, axilla (under arm pits,) neck.
23
Q
- What is hypothermia defined as?
A
A core tempature below 95 degrees.
24
Q
- A patient with moderate to severe hypothermia may often present wit hsigns and symptoms of ?
A
Altered mental status,
Decressed HR
Decressed RR
Decressed BP
25
25. Patients in cardiac arrest with suspected severe hypothermia shall not be considered dead untill?
The recieve rewarming at a medical factility.
26
26. What protocol applies to patients suffereing from an accidental or intentional submersion in any liquid?
Drowning / Near Drowning
27
27. When transporting a patient that has been restrained you must transport the patient in what position?
Supine on a longboard.
28
28. You should always make sure that the MPD is summoned to all responses involving potentially combative patients?
FALSE
29
29. When you have a violent psychiatric patient 15 years old or less, should they go to Children's Hospital?
No
30
30. Criteria for determining a patient presumed dead on arrival shall include those that are pulseless and apneic with one or more of the following?
Rigior Mortis,
Dependant Lavidity,
Decomposion
31
When you havea PDOA patient whom should you request to investigate the scene and assume responsibilit for the deceased person?
MPD
32
Does the Distric of Columbia honor the reciproity DNR Order?
Yes
33
33. What are the following intervention that may be provided to a patient who is wearing a DNR-CCO that is intact and has not been defaced to provide comfort of our alleviate pain?
Palitive (comfort) care
34
34, Who can revoke the comfort care order at anytime?
The paient or power of attourny
35
35. When ventilation a child whit hspecial needs if the child's condition improves there may have been a problem with the ventilator.
TRUE
36
36 A child with special healthcare needs will alway present wit hage appropriate mentalities?
False
37
37. What is the most common emergency with central lines in children?
Blockage/obstruction, removal, or laceration of the line
38
38. A good source of gettign a medical history of the child's condition is to...
ask their caretaker
39
39. If an in-dwelling catheter becomes completely removed you shouldattempt to reinsert the catheter and transport to the nearest hospital?
False
40
40. You should always bring the line with you to the hospital?
True
41
41. Children with gastrostomy tubes will not have complication due to destruction or dislodgement of the tube?
False
42
42. Are FEMS personnel required to report cases of suspected child/elder abuse or neglect to the police agency responsible for the area which the call occurred?
Yes
43
43. Should you confront or become hostile to the parent or caregiver that you think ma be an abuser?
No
44
44. If you suspect that a patient is being neglected should you report the situation?
Yes
45
45. What is the purpose of having Mass Casualty Incident start and jumpstart triage protocol?
Provide structure to the triage/treatment of an MCI
46
46. What is the definition of a multiple or mass casualty incident?
A tempory scene that creates a number of PT's sufficient enough to segnificantly overwhelm available resources.
47
47. What is considered a Multiple Casuality Incident?
Less then 9 PTs
48
48. How many patients do you have to have to declare a MCI?
9 or more
49
49. What is the deffinition of Triage?
The process of sorting and organizing patients based on the severity of their symptoms.
50
50. Patients will be catergorized into the four following groups; each group has a color designation to assist in the rapid sorting or triaged patients. What are the colors and the title of them?
RED- Immediate
YELLOW- Delayed
GREEN- Minor
BLACK- Dieceased
51
51. During a primary triage, providers should spend no more than _________ with each patient.
30 Seconds
52
52. After the intial evaluation of incident rehab, members will be reassessed after a _________ rest period.
20 minuntes
53
53. Can members return to incident operations if their vital signs return to normal?
Yes
54
54. What is the acronym that can be used for determining symptoms of a nerve agent poisoning?
SLUDGEM
55
55. What are two chemicals most widley used in pesticides today?
Organicphosphate
| Carbanatt
56
56. What is the two-part antidote for emergent treatment for a nerve agent exposure?
Atropine and 2-PAM Chloride
57
57. What are the serious forms of human anthrax?
Inhalation, cutaneous, intestinal
58
58. What poisoning symptoms may mimic pneumonia or food poisoning depending on the rate of transmission?
Ricin
59
59. With Acute Radiation Syndrome, can you use available radiation detection equipment ot determine the presence of significant amounts of contamination on an individual?
Yes
60
60. If soapy water is readily available or easy to make, can you use it to decontaminate a victim?
The IC shall make the decision
DCFD
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