1
Q
This entity shall set and enforce mandatory occupational
safety and health standards to eliminate or reduce occupational
safety and health hazards in all workplaces.
A. DOLE Department Order no. 198, s. 2018B
B. DOLE Department Order no. 13, s. 1998C
C. Republic Act no. 11058
D. Republic Act no. 11508
A
A. DOLE Department Order no. 198, s. 2018B
2
Q
Which agency is responsible for enforcing occupational safety and health standards in the Philippines?
A. Department of Health (DOH)
B. Department of Public Works and Highways (DPWH)
C. Department of Labor and Employment (DOLE)
D. Bureau of Fire Protection (BFP)
A
C. Department of Labor and Employment (DOLE)
3
Q
Any person trained and duly certified to administer first aid by the Philippine Red Cross or any organization authorized by DOLE Secretary.
A. OSH consultant
B. OSH practitioner
C. OSH personnel
D. First-Aider
A
D. First-Aider
4
Q
A qualified first-aider, nurse, dentist, or physician engaged by the employer to provide occupational health services in the establishment, project, site, or workplace.
A. OSH consultant
B. OSH practitioner
C. OSH personnel
D. First-Aider
A
C. OSH personnel
5
Q
A qualified Safety Officer 4 or its equivalent, duly certified by DOLE to perform and/or render consultative services on Occupational Safety and health in at least two (2) fields of specialization ask determined by DOLE.
A. OSH consultant
B. OSH practitioner
C. OSH personnel
D. First-Aider
A
A. OSH consultant
6
Q
A set of rules issued by DOLE which mandates the adoption and use of appropriate practices, means, methods operations or processes, and working conditions reasonably necessary to ensure safe and healthful employment.
A. Safety and health program
B. Safety and health committee
C. Safety and health audit
D. OSH standards
A
D. OSH standards
7
Q
A regular and critical examination of project sites, safety programs, records, and management performance on program standards on safety and health conducted by the safety officer.
A. Safety and health program
B. Safety and health committee
C. Safety and health audit
D. OSH standards
A
C. Safety and health audit
8
Q
A construction project requires 140 workers. Determine the minimum number and designation of safety officer required.
A. Safety Officer 1
B. Safety Officer 1 and 2
C. Safety Officer 2 and 3
D. Safety Officer 3 and 4
A
C. Safety Officer 2 and 3
9
Q
What color should be used to direct traffic in the workplace?
A. Red
B. Green
C. White
D. Orange
A
C. White
10
Q
What color should be used for safety signs relating to fire protection and combustion warning?
A. Red
B. Green
C. White
D. Orange
A
A. Red
11
Q
What color should be used for alert to designate dangerous parts of machines or energized equipment which may cause injury/hazard?
A. Red
B. Green
C. White
D. Orange
A
D. Orange
12
Q
What do the 5S of good housekeeping mean?
A. Seiri, Seiton, Seiso, Seiketsu, Shitsuke
B. Seiri, Seiton, Seiso, Sensei, Senpai
C. Siri, Seiton, Sanyo, Saiko, Shinsuke
D. Seiri, Seiton, Seiso, Sasadango, Shitsuke
A
A. Seiri, Seiton, Seiso, Seiketsu, Shitsuke
13
Q
What phase of 5S involves identifying unnecessary items with a red tag system and organizing the remaining necessary items, possibly through color-coding, for efficient use and access?
A. Sort
B. Set-In-Order
C. Shine
D. Standardize
A
A. Sort
14
Q
Labeling storage areas and arranging tools for easy access improves:
A. Worker morale only
B. Productivity, efficiency, and reduced search time
C. Compliance with environmental regulations only
D. Employee discipline exclusively
A
B. Productivity, efficiency, and reduced search time
15
Q
Which one is NOT a benefit of Shine?
A. Less production downtime
B. Happier employees
C. Improved quality
D. Inventory reduction
A
D. Inventory reduction
16
Q
Creating standard checklists for cleaning and tool placement supports:
A. Faster hiring processes
B. Maintaining a consistent and organized workplace
C. Reducing payroll costs
D. Eliminating all workplace hazards permanently
A
B. Maintaining a consistent and organized workplace
17
Q
Training employees to follow 5S rules daily ensures:
A. Immediate increase in profit
B. Continuous improvement and workplace discipline
C. Elimination of the need for supervisors
D. Reduced need for tools
A
B. Continuous improvement and workplace discipline
18
Q
An incident can be called hazardous only when?
A. Stressor has the potential to cause harm to humans and ecological systems
B. Poses threat to surroundings
C. Monitoring is failed
D. Outburst of chemicals
A
A. Stressor has the potential to cause harm to humans and ecological systems
19
Q
PHA stands for
A. Process Hazard Analysis
B. Public Housing Authority
C. Public Health Association
D. Personal Health Assessment
A
A. Process Hazard Analysis
20
Q
Who is responsible for ensuring the workers are provided with safe working environment?
A. HAZAN
B. HAZOP
C. AICHE
D. OSHA
A
D. OSHA
21
Q
What is the correct order of the risk management process?
A. Evaluate, Control, Identify
B. Identify, Control, Evaluate
C. Identify, Evaluate, Control
D. Control, Evaluate, Identify
A
C. Identify, Evaluate, Control
22
Q
What is the primary objective of the Identification phase in risk assessment?
A. To eliminate all risks and create a safer working environment
B. To characterize the adverse effects of toxins and quantify their toxic effects
C. To identify sources, concentrations, and movement of hazards in the environment.
D. To calculate the financial impact of an accident.
A
C. To identify sources, concentrations, and movement of hazards in the environment.
23
Q
Why does site history have to be considered for hazard identification?
A. To estimate the risk
B. To calculate carcinogenic exposure
C. To know the probable source and causes of contamination on site
D. For determination of remedial actions
A
C. To know the probable source and causes of contamination on site
24
Q
During the _________ phase, the various types of existing control measures and their effectiveness are also studied.
A. Identification
B. Evaluation
C. Control
D. Hygiene
A
B. Evaluation
25
What is the "Hierarchy of Controls" primarily used for?
A. Identifying new hazards.
B. Determining the most effective way to eliminate or reduce risk.
C. Evaluating the cost of insurance.
D. Measuring employee performance.
B. Determining the most effective way to eliminate or reduce risk.
26
Hazard evaluation consist of the elements:
A. Safety Review/Audit/Inspection
B. HAZAN
C. HAZOP
D. All of the above
D. All of the above
27
HAZAN study includes
A. Estimate how often an incident will occur.
B. Steps can be taken to either eliminate risks or reduce risk to an acceptable level.
C. It is centered around the hazard analysis and functional based safety
D. All of the above
D. All of the above
28
Which of the following is not a guide word of HAZOP?
A. NO
B. LESS
C. MORE
D. NAND
D. NAND
29
How is sensitivity analysed in risk estimation?
A. By critical assumptions
B. Chemical assessment
C. Character assessment
D. Personal measurement
A. By critical assumptions
30
Which of the following is an example of a lagging indicator in safety management?
A. Number of completed safety audits
B. Frequency of hazard reporting
C. Number of workplace injuries in the past year
D. Percentage of employees trained
C. Number of workplace injuries in the past year
31
Which of the following is not a measure of effectiveness safety program?
A. OSHA incident rate
B. Fatal Accident Rate (FAR)
C. Fatality Rate
D. HAZOP
D. HAZOP
32
The _____ reports the number of fatalities based on 1000 employees working their entire lifetime. The employees are assumed to work a total of 50 years.
A. FAR
B. Fatality Rate
C. OSHA incident rate
D. None of above
A. FAR
33
What violations are most commonly cited by OSHA?
A. Hazard communications
B. Scaffolding
C. Fall protection
D. Respiratory protection
C. Fall protection
34
What is the leading cause of death on construction sites?
A. Struck by object
B. Falls
C. Caught-in or -between
D. Electrocutions
B. Falls
35
The last step of accident process
A. Initiation
B. Propagation
C. Termination
D. Damage
C. Termination
36
Elements of safe chemical storage program consist of
A. Inventory of Chemicals
B. Labeling of Chemicals
C. Segregating Incompatibles
D. All of the above
D. All of the above
37
If you transfer chemicals from a labeled container to a portable container, you don’t need to comply with standard hazardous material labeling requirements when:
A. You hand the container off to someone else
B. You leave the work area before using the materials
C. You don’t use the materials before the end of your work shift
D. None of the above
D. None of the above
38
Rubber insulating gloves need to be tested:
A. Before first use and then every 6 months
B. Before first use and then once/week
C. Before first use and then once/month
D. Before first use only
A. Before first use and then every 6 months
39
Fire is rapid ________ of ignited fuel.
A. Exothermic oxidation
B. Exothermic reduction
C. Endothermic Reduction
D. Endothermic oxidation
A. Exothermic oxidation
40
The essential elements for _______ are fuel, an oxidizer, and an ignition source
A. Fire triangle
B. explosion
C. Flammability limits
D. toxicity
A. Fire triangle
41
_____________ is the lowest temperature that the vapors of a material will ignite when exposed to an ignition source.
A. Flash point
B. Fire point
C. Autoignition temperature
D. Inerting
A. Flash point
42
Process of adding inert gas to combustible mixture to reduce concentration of oxygen below limiting oxygen concentration
A. Fire Point
B. Flash point
C. Inerting
D. Toxicity
C. Inerting
43
Vessels can be pressure-purged by adding inert gas ____
A. Under pressure
B. At exactly atmospheric pressure
C. Below atmospheric pressure
D. At atmospheric pressure and at high temperatures
A. Under pressure
44
The MIE depends on
A. the specific chemical or mixture
B. the concentration
C. pressure and temperature
D. all of above
D. all of above
45
Static electricity is generated when
A. mists or sprays pass through process
B. mists or sprays pass through orifices
C. air pass through pipe
D. water pass through pipe
B. mists or sprays pass through orifices
46
_____________________ is a rapid increase in volume and release of energy in an extreme manner, usually with the generation of high temperatures and the release of gases
A. Fire
B. Flammability
C. Explosion
D. Toxicity
C. Explosion
47
An explosion occurring within a vessel or building, known as
A. Confined Explosion
B. Unconfined Explosion
C. BLEVE
D. None of above
B. Unconfined Explosion
48
An explosion resulting from the sudden failure of a vessel containing high-pressure nonreactive gas
A. Deflagration
B. Mechanical explosion
C. Flammability limits
D. Firepoint
B. Mechanical explosion
49
________ occurs when a tank containing a liquid held above its atmospheric pressure boiling point ruptures, resulting in the explosive vaporization of a large fraction of the tank contents.
A. Boiling-Liquid Expanding-Vapor Explosion
B. Vapor Cloud Explosions
C. Missile Damage
D. Blast Damage to People
A. Boiling-Liquid Expanding-Vapor Explosion
50
Which of the following are causes of overpressure
A. Ambient heat
B. Valve failures
C. Both 1 & 2
D. None of above
C. Both 1 & 2
51
The gauge pressure during normal service, usually 10% below the MAWP known as
A. Operating pressure
B. Set pressure
C. Overpressure
D. Accumulation
A. Operating pressure
52
Pressure relief systems are required for which of the following reasons
A. to protect personnel from the dangers of overpressurizing
equipment
B. to minimize chemical losses during pressure upsets
C. both A & B
D. None
C. both A & B
53
Which of the following valve is known as a safety valve?
A. Scour valve
B. Pressure relief valve
C. Reflux valve
D. Altitude valve
B. Pressure relief valve
54
The pressure difference between the relief set pressure and the relief reseating pressure. It is expressed as a percentage of the set pressure.
A. Backpressure
B. Blowdown
C. Maximum allowable accumulated pressure
D. Relief system
B. Blowdown
55
For material handling, which is the wrong statement:
A. Indoor storage facilities for flammable liquids should have
ventilation.
B. Flammable liquids should be stored in retaining
embankments so they cannot spread uncontrollably.
C. Corrosive substances should not be stored above eye level.
D. Environmental risk assessments should not be available.
D. Environmental risk assessments should not be available.
56
The unit-specific technical requirements are designed to _____
A. Prevent the release of HW
B. Good housekeeping
C. Analysis
D. Export activities
A. Prevent the release of HW
57
Which of the following is not characteristics of hazardous waste?
A. Toxicity
B. Corrosivity
C. Ignitibility
D. Leakage
D. Leakage
58
In hazardous waste labeling, what is the primary purpose of a "Waste Manifest"?
A. To provide instructions on how to acquire, use, and dispose
of the chemical.
B. To track the waste’s movement and ensure it reaches a
permitted treatment facility.
C. To list the market price of the waste for recycling and assign
who will take the burden of recycling cost
D. To identify the most suitable disposal company who can
handle the given hazardous waste
B. To track the waste’s movement and ensure it reaches a
permitted treatment facility.
59
What is the first priority in the hierarchy of hazardous waste management?
A. Secure Landfill disposal
B. Source Reduction
C. Chemical Neutralization
D. Long-term Storage
B. Source Reduction
60
Substituting a non-toxic aqueous cleaner for a flammable solvent in a degreasing process is an example of:
A. Recovery
B. Waste Minimization/Substitution
C. Treatment
D. Disposal
B. Waste Minimization/Substitution
61
A facility uses a distillation unit to purify spent solvents so they can be reused in the same process. This is categorized as:
A. Source Reduction
B. On-site Recycling
C. Thermal Treatment
D. Disposal
B. On-site Recycling
62
Toxicants enter organisms through
A. Ingestion
B. Injection
C. Dermal absorption
D. All of above
D. All of above
63
What is toxicity equivalence factor?
A. Ratio of the toxicity of a chemical to that of another
structurally related chemical (or index compound) chosen as a
reference
B. Ratio of the toxicity of a contaminant to that of another
structurally related chemical (or index compound) chosen as a
reference
C. Ratio of the toxicity of a chemical to that of another
chemical pollutant chosen as a reference
D. Ratio of the toxicity of a chemical to that of source
A. Ratio of the toxicity of a chemical to that of another
structurally related chemical (or index compound) chosen as a
reference
64
Results from long-term exposure to lower doses of a chemical is known as ________
A. Acute toxicity
B. Chronic toxicity
C. Moderate toxicity
D. None
B. Chronic toxicity
65
Which of the following chemical is responsible for acute lung disease from Bhopal gas tragedy?
A. Methylisocyanate
B. Methylisocyanade
C. Methyl
D. Methylcyanate
A. Methylisocyanate
66
Heavy metals like Arsenic, Cadmium and Cyanide affects _________
A. Immune system
B. Nervous system
C. Skin
D. Respiratory system
B. Nervous system
67
Doses are expressed on a _________ basis.
A. Accuracy
B. Precision
C. Body-weight
D. End point
C. Body-weight
68
What are the steps involved in evaluation of toxicity?
A. Hazard identification and dose-response evaluation
B. Chemical analysis
C. Pathway analysis
D. Evaluation of long-term impact
A. Hazard identification and dose-response evaluation
69
The _________ process determines whether exposure to a chemical can increase the incidence of adverse health effect.
A. Hazard identification
B. Exposure assessment
C. Toxicity assessment
D. Risk characterization
A. Hazard identification
70
___________ establishes the relationship between the contaminant/s of concern and the receptor.
A. Hazard identification
B. Toxicity assessment
C. Risk characterization
D. Exposure assessment
B. Toxicity assessment
71
Which of the following risk assessment tool is used for the determination of spatial distribution of contaminants at the site?
A. Hazard identification
B. Exposure assessment
C. Toxicity assessment
D. Risk characterisation
B. Exposure assessment
72
For existing chemicals, we should always consider ________ exposure assessment based on modeling, to derive an environmental concentration.
A. Better case
B. Reasonable worst case
C. Moderate case
D. High case
B. Reasonable worst case
73
What is the final stage of risk assessment?
A. Hazard identification
B. Risk characterisation
C. Exposure assessment
D. Toxicity assessment
B. Risk characterisation
74
LD50 in a toxicity test stands for ______
A. a dose that will kill 50% of an exposed population
B. a dose that would not affect or harm 50% of an exposed
population
C. a dose that will kill 25% of an exposed population
D. a dose that would not kill 25% of an exposed population
A. a dose that will kill 50% of an exposed population
75
What is the most common approach used to assess skin exposure to a contaminant?
A. Biological monitoring is commonly used to assess total body
burden or chemical contaminants
B. critical flux is the does resulting from inhalation exposure
combined with dermal exposure
C. using pad or dosimeters to determine the amount of
contaminant deposited on the skin
D. there is no recognized approach to assess skin exposure to
a contaminant
C. using pad or dosimeters to determine the amount of
contaminant deposited on the skin
76
The definition of the ACGIH TLV STELs refer to certain health effects that must be avoided. These do not include
A. irritation
B. chronic or irreversible tissue damage
C. serious narcosis
D. carcinogenicity
D. carcinogenicity
77
Chemicals cause two main kinds of health effects
A. dermatoses and cancer
B. external and internal
C. local effects and poisoning
D. systematic and tissue
C. local effects and poisoning
78
How do toxicants enter into organisms?
A. Ingestion
B. Injection
C. Inhalation
D. All of the above
D. All of the above
79
Which is not one of the main forms in which chemicals are present in the workplace
A. mists
B. fibers
C. vapours
D. gases
B. fibers
80
The most common type of LD 50 test involves
A. chimpanzees
B. poison gas delivered to a plexiglass cage
C. an oral dose
D. skin application
C. an oral dose
81
Which statement about ingestion as a route of entry into the workers body by workplace chemicals is incorrect
A. ingestion is usually a significant way in which chemicals gain
entry into the body
B. food contamination with workplace chemicals can be a way
chemicals can enter the body by ingestion
C. hand washing is a method of entry of chemicals by ingestion
can be reduced
D. eating areas should be located in a part of the workplace
removed from chemical contamination
A. ingestion is usually a significant way in which chemicals gain
entry into the body
82
The two main categories of skin irritation caused by chemicals are
A. inflammation and corrosion
B. dermatitis and siderosis
C. cirrhosis and allergenic response
D. melanoma and skin cracking
A. inflammation and corrosion
83
The toxicological end point for dose response relationship should be _________
A. Definitive
B. Vague
C. Irrational
D. Less
A. Definitive
84
Lowest value on response vs dose curve is called….
A. Threshold Limit Value
B. Average response
C. Highest response
D. Relative toxicity
A. Threshold Limit Value
85
A dose response curve illustrating acute toxicity usually has
A. a s-shaped or sigmoidal curve
B. a straight line at about a 45 degree angle
C. and elliptical curve
D. a bell-shaped curve
A. a s-shaped or sigmoidal curve
86
If the dose response curves of three chemicals are shown on the same graph, the one which intersects the x-axis (dose) at the lowest dose is
A. innocuous
B. lethal
C. the most poisonous
D. without a threshold level
C. the most poisonous
87
An example of a workplace chemical that can damage the kidneys specifically is
A. lead salts
B. silica
C. propanol
D. vinyl chloride
A. lead salts
88
ED stands for
A. Effective dose
B. Toxic dose
C. Erectile dysfunction
D. Lethal dose
A. Effective dose
89
Which organization is widely recognized around the world as setting exposure limits for ionizing radiation
A. ACGIH
B. National Institute for Occupational Safety and health
C. American National standards Institute
D. International commission on Radiological Protection (ICRP)
D. International commission on Radiological Protection (ICRP)
90
What is the primary purpose of a Safety Management System (SMS)?
A. To reduce workplace costs
B. To enhance productivity
C. To identify, assess, and manage workplace hazards and
risks
D. To eliminate the need for employee training
C. To identify, assess, and manage workplace hazards and
risks
91
What does the “Plan-Do-Check-Act” (PDCA) cycle represent in an SMS?
A. A method for implementing safety protocols
B. A continuous improvement process for safety management
C. A training module for employees
D. A one-time evaluation of safety performance
B. A continuous improvement process for safety management
92
What is the first step in implementing a Safety Management System?
A. Conducting a risk assessment
B. Developing a safety policy
C. Providing safety training
D. Auditing existing safety measures
B. Developing a safety policy
93
At the middle- and upper- management level we usually concentrate on: (Petersen, TSM, 130)
A. outcomes evaluations
B. results measures
C. performance measures
D. behavioral measures
B. results measures
94
Which of the following failures would Petersen MOST likely attribute to upper management?
A. A worker bypasses a machine guard during a task
B. A supervisor fails to enforce a lockout procedure
C. Safety is treated as a priority only when incidents occur
D. A hazard is not corrected during a routine inspection
C. Safety is treated as a priority only when incidents occur
95
According to Petersen, the primary focus of lower management levels in a safety management system is to:
A. Develop safety policies
B. Allocate safety budgets
C. Control hazards at the job level
D. Review safety legislation
C. Control hazards at the job level
96
Which activity would NOT typically be the responsibility of lower management according to Petersen?
A. Correcting unsafe acts
B. Supervising workers
C. Enforcing safety rules
D. Establishing safety policy
D. Establishing safety policy
97
Petersen’s assignment of safety responsibilities suggests that failures at the lower management level are MOST likely to result in:
A. Poorly written safety policies
B. Inadequate safety budgets
C. Unsafe acts and uncontrolled hazards during operations
D. Non-compliance with national legislation
C. Unsafe acts and uncontrolled hazards during operations
98
According to Brauer, the purpose of an audit is to:
A. look at leadership and how well it achieves results
B. challenge underlying concepts and principles
C. challenge existing policies, procedures, and practices
D. all of the above
D. all of the above
99
The findings of a safety audit should include:
A. names of those responsible and recommended disciplinary
action
B. what things need improvement and ways to improve them
C. identified hazards and maintenance requests
D. an evaluation of performance results
B. what things need improvement and ways to improve them
100
What is a major weakness in the walk-around safety inspection process?
A. Takes too much time
B. Does not adequately identify unsafe behaviors
C. Does not adequately identify hazardous conditions
D. Requires both employee and management participation
B. Does not adequately identify unsafe behaviors
101
Which safety audit technique is MOST effective for identifying gaps between documented procedures and actual work practices?
A. Document review
B. Workplace inspection
C. Observational (task-based) audit
D. Performance data review
C. Observational (task-based) audit
102
A safety auditor wants to assess whether a safety management system is formally established and compliant with legal requirements. Which technique should be the PRIMARY focus?
A. Interviews
B. Document review
C. Sampling
D. Workplace inspections
B. Document review
103
During an audit, workers state they are trained but are unable to explain safe work procedures when questioned. Which audit technique BEST revealed this weakness?
A. Sampling
B. Observational audit
C. Interviews
D. Document review
C. Interviews
104
An organization uses injury statistics and near-miss trends to determine which departments require targeted audits. Which technique is being applied?
A. Sampling
B. Performance data review
C. Workplace inspection
D. Checklist auditing
B. Performance data review
105
This procedure, developed by Thiokol Chemical Corporation, effectively measures results as well as performance: (Petersen, TSM, 125)
A. Lost Work Day Case Indicator (LWDCI)
B. Safety Audit Factor Evaluation Report (SAFER)
C. Safety Performance Indicator (SPI)
D. Safety Performance Report Card (SPRC)
D. Safety Performance Report Card (SPRC)
106
What is the purpose of safety performance indicators in an SMS?
A. To track employee productivity
B. To evaluate the effectiveness of safety programs
C. To reduce the number of employees in high-risk roles
D. To eliminate the need for training
B. To evaluate the effectiveness of safety programs
107
Traditionally, there have been two figures or variables used to measure company-wide safety performance. Which of the following describe these two measures? (Petersen, TSM, 123)
A. duration, frequency
B. probability, duration
C. frequency, severity
D. frequency, duration
C. frequency, severity
108
Which of the following best describes “leading indicators” in safety management?
A. Metrics that measure the outcomes of incidents
B. Proactive measures that predict and prevent safety
incidents
C. Metrics that evaluate financial performance
D. Indicators used only after accidents occur
B. Proactive measures that predict and prevent safety
incidents
109
Which of the following is a reactive safety measure in an SMS?
A. Conducting safety training
B. Investigating incidents after they occur
C. Performing regular safety inspections
D. Identifying potential hazards
B. Investigating incidents after they occur
110
How often should an SMS be reviewed and updated?
A. Once every five years
B. Only when incidents occur
C. Periodically or when significant changes occur in the
workplace
D. When an external audit is scheduled
C. Periodically or when significant changes occur in the
workplace
111
Conduct this type of analysis any time you bring something new into your worksite, whether it be a piece of equipment, different materials, a new process, or an entirely new building:
A. Phase Analysis
B. Process Hazard Analysis
C. Job Hazard Analysis
D. Change Analysis
D. Change Analysis
112
What should be included in an SMS emergency preparedness plan?
A. Detailed instructions for evacuation and emergency
response
B. A list of employees’ phone numbers
C. Financial records of the company
D. A daily work schedule
A. Detailed instructions for evacuation and emergency
response
113
What is the main purpose of Good Manufacturing Practices (GMP)?
A. To reduce production costs and increase profitability
B. To ensure products are consistently safe, effective, and of
high quality
C. To speed up manufacturing processes and reduce waste
D. To comply with local tax regulations and accounting
practices
B. To ensure products are consistently safe, effective, and of
high quality
114
Which GMP practice ensures that errors or deviations during production can be identified and traced?
A. Continuous operation without record-keeping
B. Comprehensive record-keeping and batch documentation
C. Allowing operators to make decisions without
documentation
D. Random production without oversight
B. Comprehensive record-keeping and batch documentation
115
Which of the following is considered a GMP requirement for equipment?
A. Equipment must be fast and automated
B. Equipment must be regularly cleaned, maintained, and
calibrated
C. Equipment can be used without inspection
D. Equipment must be replaced every month regardless of
condition
B. Equipment must be regularly cleaned, maintained, and
calibrated
116
A GMP audit finds that cleaning procedures are written and plastered across the factory floor, but supervisors do not call out deviations from procedure. Which principle of GMP is MOST directly violated?
A. Documentation and records
B. Production and process controls
C. Equipment calibration
D. Quality testing
B. Production and process controls
117
What is the full form of HACCP?
A. Health Analysis and Critical Control Points
B. Health Analysis and Critical Criteria for Production
C. Hazard Analysis and Critical Control Points
D. Hazard Analysis and Critical Criteria for Production
C. Hazard Analysis and Critical Control Points
118
What engineering system is HACCP based on?
A. Failure Modes Analysis Scheme
B. Success Modes Analysis Scheme
C. Safe Modes Analysis Scheme
D. Unsafe Modes Analysis Scheme
A. Failure Modes Analysis Scheme
119
HACCP is preferred over GMP.
A. True
B. False
A. True
120
The first step in HACCP involves analyzing food production to identify potential hazards. Which HACCP principle does this represent?
A. Establish Critical Limits
B. Conduct a Hazard Analysis
C. Establish Monitoring Procedures
D. Establish Corrective Actions
B. Conduct a Hazard Analysis
121
A ______ is a step at which a hazard can be controlled or eliminated.
A. HAC
B. CCP
C. ACC
D. FCC
B. CCP
122
A processing plant identifies a cooking step where insufficient heating could leave pathogens alive. Deciding the temperature and time required to eliminate the risk corresponds to which HACCP principle?
A. Determine Critical Control Points
B. Establish Critical Limits
C. Establish Corrective Actions
D. Verification
B. Establish Critical Limits
123
During monitoring, a food safety team records time, temperature, and pH at CCPs. Which HACCP principle does this reflect?
A. Hazard Analysis
B. CCP Identification
C. Establish Monitoring Procedures
D. Verification
C. Establish Monitoring Procedures
124
In a scenario where a batch of milk fails pasteurization, which HACCP principle is applied to decide the action to take (e.g., reprocess or discard)?
A. Establish Monitoring Procedures
B. Establish Corrective Actions
C. Record-Keeping and Documentation
D. Critical Limits
B. Establish Corrective Actions
125
During verification, an auditor finds that monitoring logs were falsified. Which principles are being compromised?
A. Documentation and Verification
B. Critical Limits and Monitoring
C. Hazard Analysis and CCPs
D. Corrective Actions and Verification
A. Documentation and Verification
126
_______________ is the CCP for the processing of milk.
A. Removal of fat
B. Milking
C. Evaporation
D. Pasteurization
D. Pasteurization
127
An example of sensory information for CCP criteria is _________
A. pH
B. Temperature
C. Texture
D. Water Activity
C. Texture
128
What is the type of hazard when the process does not contain a step to destroy harmful microbes.
A. Hazard A
B. Hazard B
C. Hazard C
D. Hazard D
C. Hazard C
129
What is the full form of ICMSF?
A. International Commission on Microbial Specifications for Food
B. International Committee on Microbial Specifications for Food
C. International Commission on Microbial Safety for Food
D. International Committee on Microbial Safety for Food
A. International Commission on Microbial Specifications for Food
130
A category 0 food has ______
A. The maximum number of hazards
B. No hazard
C. 5 hazards
D. 4 hazards
B. No hazard
131
Which of the following CCPs are used to minimize a hazard?
A. CCP4
B. CCP3
C. CCP2
D. CCP1
C. CCP2
132
Which of these statements is true? A workplace emergency does not _______________.
A. Always happen during business hours
B. Cause physical or environmental damage
C. Disrupt or shut down operations
D. Threaten workers, customers, or the public
A. Always happen during business hours
133
To be prepared for emergencies that occur in the workplace, each employer should have a(n) ______________.
A. Employee Assistance Plan
B. Employee Safety and Health Plan
C. Emergency Action Plan
D. Standard Operating Procedure
C. Emergency Action Plan
134
The most common reason for needing to evacuate a workplace is a ____________.
A. Chemical spill
B. Fire
C. Earthquake
D. Flood
B. Fire
135
Which of the following does not need to be included in an Emergency Action Plan?
A. Evacuation procedures and identification of all exit routes
B. Methods of reporting emergencies by any employee
C. Procedures for accounting of all employees after
evacuation, or upon a shelter-in-place emergency
D. Procedures for electrical safety
D. Procedures for electrical safety
136
For which of these emergencies may shelter-in-place be the best course of action?
A. Chemical release outside the facility
B. Fire in the facility
C. Severe hailstorm
D. Flash flood in the facility
A. Chemical release outside the facility
137
An emergency kit should include all of the following except:
A. Non-perishable foods
B. Water
C. Electric can opener (for food)
D. Flashlight
C. Electric can opener (for food)
138
A home emergency kit should contain enough supplies to last how many days?
A. One
B. Three
C. Five
D. Seven
B. Three
139
What must you decide before using a fire extinguisher to put out a fire?
A. if the fire is small enough to be extinguished with one fire
extinguisher
B. if there is a safe exit should the fire get out of control,
C. both answers a and b
D. if the fire extinguisher has already passed its most recent
inspection
C. both answers a and b
140
How far should you position yourself from a fire should you decide to fight it?
A. 2 feet
B. 4 feet
C. 8 feet
D. 10 feet
C. 8 feet
141
Typically, the best course of action to take during a medical emergency is to _________________.
A. begin first aid immediately
B. activate the emergency plan for reporting injuries
C. notify the person's family about the situation
D. report the emergency to the CEO
B. activate the emergency plan for reporting injuries
142
What should you do if a chemical spill poses an immediate risk to you and your co-workers?
A. mark it with a sign or barricade
B. clean it up immediately
C. leave the area immediately
D. wipe the area with tissues, being careful to not touch the
chemical
A. mark it with a sign or barricade
