Prova C4

Question 1

1. What is the maximum take-off and landing altitude?

Answer 1

A. 8,400 feet pressure altitude

Question 2

2. What is the maximum allowable runway slope during take-off and landing?

Answer 2

B. + -2%

Question 3

3. What happens to temperature control if you operate the aircraft with the TRIM AIR switch off or there-
   loss of the Trim Air System?

Answer 3

D. During operation with the trim air system off, the packs attempt to maintain all compartments at an ave
temperature

Question 4

4. What is the function of the On position of the Light Override switch?

Answer 4

B. Overrides the normal controls and illuminates the :
-forward panel flood lights, -glareshield flood lights,
-dome lights,
-aisle stand flood lights and -illuminated indicator lights at full brightness.

Question 5

5. In flight, the RAT deploys automatically when
   power to the flight controls portion of the
   power at speeds above
   knots:

Answer 5

A. both engines fail, center, 130

Question 6

6. With LNAV in use, executing “direct to with ABEAM” selected when approaching an active waypoint

Answer 6

D. May induce an uncommanded turn and should be avoided

Question 7

7. Antiskid protection is provided in the normal and________ brake hydraulic systems.

Answer 7

A. Alternate

Question 8

8. With the EICAS Computer selection in Auto, which computer is operating the system under normal
   operations?

Answer 8

B. Left

Question 9

9. It is permissible for Pilots to attempt to clear Status messages whilst on the ground. True of False?

Answer 9

A. TRUE

Question 10

10. What is the meaning of a Pack Off light?

Answer 10

D. The pack valve is closed

Question 11

11. After experiencing a pack outlet overheat, an attempt to restore pack operation may be made
    pack has cooled by pushing which switch?

Answer 11

D. PACK RESET switch

Question 12

12. What is the function of the index mark setting on the Cabin Altitude AUTO RATE Control?

Answer 12

A. Establishes approximately 500fpm climb and 300fpm descent
B. Sets limit for cabin altitude rate of climb or descent during auto control

D. A & B is correct

Question 13

13. What happens to the Pressurisation System when the selected AUTO mode fails?

Answer 13

B. Automatically switches to the other auto mode

Question 14

14. What is the meaning of an ICE DET OFF light and EICAS message?

Answer 14

D. Ice is no longer detected

Question 15

15. What modes will the Autopilot engage in when CMD is selected with both Flight Directors off?

Answer 15

D. V/S-HDG HOLD

Question 16

16. Which of the following in flight conditions can generally be defined as an Upset?

Answer 16

C. Pitch attitude greater than 25 degrees nose up;
-pitch attitude greater than 10 degrees nose down;
-bank greater than 45 degrees;
-within these parameters but flying at airspeeds inappropriate for the condition.

Question 17

17. What is the recommended procedure for dealing with an engine fire on the ground?

Answer 17

A. Captain to carryout QRH memory items for NNC.8.2

B. Wait for 30 seconds (as per QRH) and if the fire warning light remains illuminated, fire the second by
after a further 20 seconds the fire warning light still remains illuminated, evacuate the aircraft;

CORRECT ANSWER IS D:

D. A and B are correct

(OM 3.4.3. Engine Fire on the Ground)

Question 18

18. Normal checklists are used after doing all respective procedural items_________________must
    visually each item is in the needed configuration OR that the step is done.

Answer 18

A. Both pilots

Question 19

19. The maximum crosswind component on takeoff with reported braking action Good is?

Answer 19

B. 25 Knots

(OM 1.3.5. Non-AFM Operational Information)

Question 20

20. Payloads LMC are restricted to _________
    and for fuel ___________
    If these figures are exceeded:

Answer 20

C. A+ 1100 lbs, ± 4400 lbs, a new loadsheet must be generated.

(OM 1.3.6.5 Last Minute Change)

Question 21

21. The maximum FDP without the use of extensions for acclimatised crew on a three sectors for
    reporting time 1215 UTC is:

Answer 21

B. 12:30

Question 22

22. During a circling approach, wings should be level on final when the aircraft reaches:

Answer 22

C. 300 feet above airport elevation
(OMB 2.30.7 - Circling Approach)

Question 23

23. On which runway(s) at EDDP can the crew plan for a Cat III (A or B) approach?

Answer 23

C. All Runways

Question 24

24. What is the Oxygen requirement for Flight Crew on aircraft certified to fly above 25,000 feet?

Answer 24

D. 2 hours

(OM 1.14 - The minimum pressure for recharging by Engineering is 1200 psi. This will provide at least 30 mins of O2 supply for all occupants at 100% O2 with all seats occupied.

The other oxygen requirement is for operating flight crew to have sufficient O2 for 2 hrs flight at 25,000 ft in the event of a smoke or fumes event. Again the chosen min pressure of 1200 psi will provide for this.

Question 25

25. When dispatching on a __________________runway, with both thrust reversers operative, an operative anti-skid system and all brakes operating, regulations allow deceleration credit for_____________ thrust reverser in the failure case and____________ thrust reversers in the all engine stop case.

Answer 25

B. WET, one, two (OM 4.2.12 - Credit for Thrust Reversers)

Question 26

26. What must be considered when starting an engine during Cold Weather operations?

Answer 26

A. Oil pressure may be slow to rise. B. Initial oil pressure rise may be higher than normal. C. Additional warm-up time may be needed to allow oil temperature to reach the normal range. D. ALL THE ABOVE. (OM 2a.16.2.2 Engine Start Procedure)

Question 27

27. The authority to order de-icing and anti-icing services is delegated to the necessary due to current conditions.

Answer 27

B. Pilot in Command (OM 2a.16.2.6 De-icing /Anti-icing )

Question 28

28. Which of the following statement is correct with regard to an exterior inspection in cold weather operations?

Answer 28

B. Take-off with light coatings of frost, up to 3mm in thickness on lower wing surfaces due to cold lowable; however, all leading edge devices, all control surfaces, and upper wing surfaces must be free of ice and frost. C. Thin hoarfrost is acceptable on the upper surface of the fuselage provided all vents and ports are clear. D IS CORRECT- B and C. are correct (OM 2a.16.2.1 Exterior Inspection)

Question 29

29. When calculating performance in adverse weather, is it allowed to use reduced thrust (assumed temperature method) for take-offs on wet runways and contaminated runways?

Answer 29

A. Wet - yes, Contaminated - No (OM 2a.16.1. Takeoff – Wet or Contaminated Runway Conditions)

Question 30

30. The following factors contribute to cold soaking:

Answer 30

A. Temperature of re-fuelled fuel, Time since re-fuelling. C. Temperature and quantity of fuel in fuel cells, Type and location of fuel cells, Length of time at high altitudes D. A and C

Question 31

31. You are flying in RVSM airspace and climbing to your cleared Flight Level. What rate of climb should be reduce your vertical speed to and when?

Answer 31

A. 1000 fpm maximum, within 1500 feet of the cleared flight level.

Question 32

32. In the event that a deviation of greater than _________feet has occurred from the assigned flight level airspace, what must you do?

Answer 32

A. 300 feet, Report it to ATC and to the Authority via the Mandatory Occurrence Reporting Scheme.

Question 33

33. The phrase "____________" should be included when an RNP degradation or failure subsequently whenever initial contact has been established on a new ATC frequency.

Answer 33

C. UNABLE RNP DUE EQUIPMENT

Question 34

34. The following conditions take precedence over TCAS:

Answer 34

D. Stall warning, windshear and GPWS warnings (OM 2a.11.8.5.7) Alert Priorities

Question 35

35. The initial PF actions for a "Climb" RA in landing configuration are:

Answer 35

A. Disengage the autopilot and autothrottle. Advance thrust levers forward to ensure maximum thrust and call for FLAPS 20. Smoothly adjust pitch to satisfy the RA command

Question 36

36. Two destination alternates must be selected when:

Answer 36

D. A & B are correct A. The appropriate meteorological reports or forecasts for the destination aerodrome, or any combination thereof, indicate that during a period commencing one hour before and ending one hour after the estimated ti of arrival, the weather conditions will be below the applicable planning minima B. When no meteorological information is available

Question 37

37. What does the acronym RETS mean in the following METAR report: VTBS 081000Z 30003KT 230V360 95 RA FEW020CB SCT040 BKN070 27/21 Q1006 RETS NOSIG

Answer 37

C. Recent Thunderstorm observed since the previous observation, but which was not current at the time of present observation.

Question 38

38. What would you consider if during a layover in Kuwait, with the airplane parked at the stand, an unexpected sandstorm hits the region.

Answer 38

D. Follow the supplementary procedure - Operation in a Sandy or Dusty Environment

Question 39

39. When flying in an area in which mountain wave conditions are suspected, which of the following you consider?

Answer 39

D. All of the above are correct. A. Do not attempt to penetrate or approach rotor clouds or rotor zones in the lee mountains. B. Allow at least 5000 ft flight clearance over mountains which are up to 5000 ft higher than the surrounding terrain. C. Allow a flight clearance at least equal to the height of a mountain, which is more than the surrounding terrain

Question 40

40. What is the Turbulent Penetration Speed?

Answer 40

B. 290 Kias/M.78 whichever is lower

Question 41

41. In the event of an emergency evacuation what is the primary mean for exiting the aircraft?

Answer 41

C. Main Entry Door L1

Question 42

42. You are an operating crew member on B767 with 2 passengers on-board. They must receive a safety and evacuation briefing based on the briefing card which is kept on the aircraft for reference. Where else can you find this card?

Answer 42

C. OMB - B767 Emergency Evacuation Procedures (OM chapter 11)

Question 43

43. How many Classes of Fire are there and what is Class D?

Answer 43

C. 5, Combustible metals (OM 10.2.2 Classes of Fire)

Question 44

44. In a fire fighting situation the action of removing the oxygen, is known as:

Answer 44

D. Smothering (OM 10.2.1 Chemistry of Fire)

Question 45

45. In the event of an emergency evacuation what is the primary mean for exiting the aircraft?

Answer 45

C. Main Entry Door L1

Question 46

46. When completing the memory items for Airspeed Unreliable, the following should be considered: The extended pitch and thrust settings will result in a climb. The flaps up pitch and thrust settings will result in slight climb at light weights and low altitudes, and a slight descent at heavy weights and high altitudes.

Answer 46

A. TRUE FCTM

Question 47

47. Select the correct statement on preparation for a circling approach:

Answer 47

D. A and C are correct A. If visual reference is lost while circling to land from an instrument approach, the missed approach specific that particular approach procedure must be followed. C. Minimum Descent Altitude for the procedure will be the published circling minima, with 50 feet addition

Question 48

48. Select the correct crew Actions for a Bird Strike During Approach or Landing

Answer 48

D. Only A and B A. If the landing is assured, continuing the approach to landing is the preferred option. If more birds are encountered, fly through the bird flock and land. Maintain as low a thrust setting as possible. B. If engine ingestion is suspected, limit reverse thrust on landing to the amount needed to stop on the Reverse thrust may increase engine damage, especially when engine vibration or high EGT is indicated.

Question 49

49. Which statement is correct with regard to Overweight Landings and use of Autoland?

Answer 49

C. Overweight autolands are not recommended. Autopliots on Boeing airplanes are not certified for auto landings above maximum landing weight. An automatic approach may be attempted, however a manual landing must be accomplished with autopilot disconnected prior to flare height.

Question 50

50. What is the ICAO PANS-OPS Circling Area Radius from Threshold for a speed of 175 Kias?

Answer 50

C. 5.28 NM (OM 2.30.7 Circling Approach)