PTA I

Question 1

1. The organizational plan of a PT department usually has the following objectives, EXCEPT:
   a. reflects the operation of the services
   b. provides supervising functions within the program/services
   c. provides the direction of services
   d. describes the interrelationship within the overall organization

Answer 1

a. reflects the operation of the services

Question 2

2. In most Code of Ethics of a profession, the first principle usually refers to:
   a. provision of accurate information to the consumer
   b. exercising sound judgment
   c. receiving remuneration of services
   d. respecting rights and dignity of individuals

Answer 2

d. respecting rights and dignity of individuals

Question 3

3. The functional outcome reporting method of writing notes must be:
   a. sustainable, simple, quantifiable
   b. meaningful, utilitarian, sustainable
   c. meaningful, quantifiable, sustainable
   d. utilitarian, meaningful, quantifiable

Answer 3

b. meaningful, utilitarian, sustainable

Question 4

4. A patient with a long-standing rheumatoid arthritis of the MP and IP joints is referred to PT. Upon evaluation, therapist observed that patient can flex IP when MCP is in neutral position but cannot flex IP when MCP is hyperextended. The MOST LIKELY cause of this is:
   a. lateral band slippage on volar aspect
   b. MCP joint subluxation
   c. finger muscle tenosynovitis
   d. intrinsic muscle tightness

Answer 4

d. intrinsic muscle tightness

Question 5

5. Which is NOT a test for rotatory instability of the knee?
   a. Ballottement
   b. jerk test of Hughston
   c. active pivot shift
   d. Dial

Answer 5

a. Ballottement

Question 6

6. This is a test for posterior shoulder instability. The patient lies supine with the shoulder abducted to 100 degrees and laterally rotated 90 degrees and with the elbow flexed to 90 degrees so that the arm is horizontal. The examiner stabilizes the scapula with one hand palpating the posterior humeral head with the fingers and stabilizes the upper limb by holding the forearm and elbow at the elbow. The examiner then brings the arm into forward flexion. The test is also known as:
   a. push - pull
   b. load and shift
   c. Norwood stress
   d. posterior apprehension or stress

Answer 6

c. Norwood stress

Question 7

7. When planning to establish a PT clinic, it is BEST to first:
   a. plan a marketing strategy
   b. research on the needs of the community
   c. plan a budget to determine how much business loan is required
   d. look for a location where to set up

Answer 7

b. research on the needs of the community

Question 8

9. A PT is instructing a stroke patient with gait training, PT noted that learning is going well because errors are decreasing and overall endurance is improving.
   The BEST strategy to promote continued motor learning at this time in the patient’s rehabilitation is to:
   a. intervene early whenever errors appear before bad habits become firmly entrenched
   b. have the patient practice walking in different environments
   c. provide continuous feedback after every walking trial
   d. have the patient continue to practice in the parallel bars until all errors are gone

Answer 8

b. have the patient practice walking in different environments

Question 9

10. A PT is evaluating the gait of a 5-year-old girl. PT notices that the child is unsteady and has a wide base support. She appears to lurch at times with minimal truncal bobbing in an anterior and posterior position. The child cannot maintain standing position with the feet placed together for more than 5 seconds. The area of the brain MOST LIKELY affected is the:
    a. cerebellar atmosphere
    b. substantia nigra
    c. corticospinal tracts
    d. basal ganglia

Answer 9

a. cerebellar atmosphere

Question 9

8. A PT is increasing a patient’s functional mobility in a seated position. To manage the patient MOST effectively and efficiently, the following should be performed in what order?
   1 - weight shifting of the pelvis
   2 - isometric contractions of the lower extremity
   3 - trunk range of motion exercises
   4 - isotonic resistance of the quadriceps

a. 1, 2, 3, 4
b. 3, 2, 1, 4
c. 2, 3, 1, 4
d. 4, 3, 2, 1

Answer 9

b. 3, 2, 1, 4

Question 10

11. A TBI injured patient is sometimes disoriented to time and place, has poor memory for recent events and almost no carry over for new learning. The MOST important goal in this case is:
    a. different daily tasks to increase ease of cognitive retrieval
    b. daily structure to reduce distraction
    c. independence to tasks with varying environments
    d. increase arousal and attention through sensory stimulation

Answer 10

b. daily structure to reduce distraction

Question 11

12. An injury of the median nerve at the level of the wrist and hand can cause the following functional loss, EXCEPT:
    a. thumb opposition
    b. weak or no pinch
    c. flexion of the little finger
    d. thumb flexion

Answer 11

c. flexion of the little finger

Question 12

13. A patient with vascular problem develops an infected skin ulcer on the left heel. The modality that would NOT be applied for this patient is:
    a. low intensity direct current - can be used for wound healing
    b. ultraviolet radiation - can be used for wound healing
    c. high voltage galvanic stimulation - still a galvanic type of current that can be used for wound healing
    d. hot moist pack

Answer 12

d. hot moist pack

Question 13

14. Which ultrasound treatment parameter is recommended for a stage 2 chronic dermal wound?
    a. 1 MHz at 1.5 watt/cm2
    b. 3 MHz at .2–1 watt/cm2
    c. 3 MHz at 1.5 watt/cm2
    d. 1 MHz at 2–1 watt/cm2

Answer 13

b. 3 MHz at .2–1 watt/cm2

Question 14

15. Electrical stimulation of spastic muscles has been proven to effectively reduce spasticity. The following are parameters to apply, EXCEPT:
    a. waveform: symmetrical or asymmetrical biphasic pulses with 200–500 microseconds duration
    b. stimulus: amplitude adjusted to maximum tolerable contraction
    c. duty cycle: 1:2
    d. pulse rate: greater than 60 pps biphasic pulses to produce tetanic muscle contraction

Answer 14

c. duty cycle: 1:2

Question 15

16. Ohm’s Law describes the relationship among:
    a. voltage, resistance and amperage
    b. amperage, conductance and resistance
    c. conductance, voltage and resistance
    d. voltage, conductance and amperage

Answer 15

a. voltage, resistance and amperage

Question 16

17. A PT will apply electrical stimulation to a patient with venous stasis ulcer on the right lower extremity. The correct type of electrical stimulation to promote wound healing is:
    a. direct
    b. biphasic pulsed
    c. interferential
    d. TENS

Answer 16

a. direct

Question 17

18. In electrotherapy, the frequencies generated by high voltage units are usually no greater than 100 to 140 Hz while that produced by low voltage units are ______ Hz.
    a. 500–1,000
    b. 2,000–3,000
    c. 3,000–4,000
    d. 1,000–2,000

Answer 17

d. 1,000–2,000

Question 18

19. Patient is a 16-year-old female student with idiopathic scoliosis. PT plans to apply bipolar or quadripolar electrodes over the overstretched and weakened muscles. He can select the following parameters, EXCEPT:
    a. duration: gradually increased until patient tolerates 8 hours of stimulation
    b. pulse rate: 50 pps
    c. waveform: rectangular monophasic waveform with 220 microseconds output
    d. stimulus amplitude: 50 to 70 mA

Answer 18

b. pulse rate: 50 pps

Question 19

20. PT was referred a patient with a pulmonary condition. She was to evaluate chest expansion using a tape measure. The 3 sites involved in the assessment are:
    I. 3rd intercostal space
    II. under the axilla
    III. nipple line or xiphisternal junction
    IV. 5th intercostal space
    V. T10 rib area

a. If I, III, V are correct
b. If II, III, V are correct
c. If I, II, III are correct
d. If III, IV, V are correct

Answer 19

b. If II, III, V are correct

Question 20

21. The following prosthetic causes may result in vaulting during gait of an amputee, EXCEPT:
    a. prosthesis may be too long
    b. excessive alignment stability
    c. inadequate socket suspension
    d. foot in inadequate plantarflexion

Answer 20

d. foot in inadequate plantarflexion

Question 20

22. A PT is carrying out mobilization techniques to regain normal mid-thoracic extension. After 4 sessions, the patient complained of localized pain that lasts more than 24 hours. The PT’s strategy should be:
    a. stop PT for one week
    b. change to self-stretching activities because the patient does not tolerate mobilization
    c. stay with current mobilization techniques and follow with a cold pack to the thoracic spine
    d. change mobilization technique to gentle, low amplitude oscillations to reduce the joint and soft tissue irritation

Answer 20

d. change mobilization technique to gentle, low amplitude oscillations to reduce the joint and soft tissue irritation

Question 21

23. A 16-year-old high school student was being evaluated for scoliosis. On standing, a right thoracolumbar curve was present but when seated it disappeared. This is MOST LIKELY due to:
    a. leg length discrepancy
    b. unilateral weak gluteus medius
    c. short iliopsoas muscle
    d. lumbar facet dysfunction

Answer 21

a. leg length discrepancy

Question 22

24. The following prosthetic causes may result in rotation of forefoot at heel strike of an amputee, EXCEPT:
    a. excessive toe-out built in
    b. rigid SACH heel cushion
    c. excessive suspension
    d. loose fitting socket

Answer 22

c. excessive suspension

Question 23

25. The PRIMARY absolute cardiac contraindication to exercise testing is: a. untreated life-threatening cardiac arrhythmias b. unstable angina with recent chest pain c. advanced atrioventricular block d. uncompensated congestive heart failure

Answer 23

b. unstable angina with recent chest pain

Question 24

26. The treatment of lower extremity edema with intermittent pneumatic compression is MOST appropriate in this condition: a. acute thrombophlebitis b. cor pulmonale c. post operative inguinal node dissection d. portal hypertension

Answer 24

c. post operative inguinal node dissection

Question 25

27. You are evaluating a 63-year-old housewife with peripheral vascular disease. She complains of intermittent claudication and frequently complains of getting tired. The MOST important treatment goal is to increase: a. mobility b. lower extremity strength c. collateral circulation d. range of motion

Answer 25

c. collateral circulation

Question 26

28. Bluish discoloration of the skin and nailbeds of fingers and toes along with palms is MOST LIKELY: a. liver disease b. hypothyroidism c. cyanosis d. carotenemia

Answer 26

c. cyanosis

Question 27

29. A PT discusses the importance of a proper diet with a patient diagnosed with congestive heart failure. Which of the following substances would MOST likely be restricted in the patient’s diet? a. sodium b. low-density lipoprotein c. high-density lipoprotein d. triglycerides

Answer 27

a. sodium

Question 28

30. In research, it is a concept in statistical tests referring to which data have the capacity to vary once certain limits have been imposed: a. coefficient of concordance b. degree of freedom c. t value d. p value

Answer 28

b. degree of freedom

Question 29

31. In normal cadence, the knee flexes after heel strike to approximately degrees. a. 5 b. 10 c. 15 d. 25

Answer 29

c. 15

Question 30

32. A patient is performing concentric strengthening exercises of the triceps. In this type of technique, maximum force is generated at: a full exteńsion b. mid-range c.. full flexion d. all throughout the range

Answer 30

b. mid-range 70-90

Question 31

33. Which of these statements on water temperature during aquatic exercise is TRUE? a. heat transfer increases with velocity b. water retains heat 1000 times more than air c. differences in temperature between an immersed object and water will equilibrate with minimal change in temperature of the water d. water conducts temperature 5 times faster than air

Answer 31

d. water conducts temperature 5 times faster than air the question should be in EXCEPT

Question 32

34. A newborn is 5 weeks premature and evaluated at birth using the APGAR test. The APGAR score that may result in a possible neurological complication is: a. 3 at 10 minutes b. 9 at 1 minute c. 8 at 5 minutes d. 8 at 1 minute

Answer 32

a. 3 at 10 minutes

Question 33

35. A 16-year-old female dancer complains of subpatellar pain after 2 weeks of vigorous rehearsal for a hip-hop competition. PT's evaluation shows a large Q angle, pain on palpation at the inferior pole of the patella and mild swelling at both knees. The BEST strategy for this condition is: a. Vastus medialis (VM) muscle strengthening b. taping to increase lateral patellar tracking c. hamstring strengthening d. vastus lateralis strengthening

Answer 33

a. Vastus medialis (VM) muscle strengthening

Question 34

36. These statements on the comparison of plantar fasciitis and tarsal tunnel syndrome are TRUE, EXCEPT: a. Pain is worse in walking, running and in the morning (sometimes improves with activity) in plantar fasciitis but worst with standing, walking and at night for tarsal tunnel syndrome b. Pain in plantar fasciitis is usually on the plantar aspect of the foot, at the anterior calcaneus while in tarsal tunnel syndrome it is in the medial heel and medial longitudinal arch c. When resisted isometric movements are done, both exhibit normal strength d. Plantar fasciitis is due to overuse while tarsal tunnel syndrome is usually brought about by trauma, a space occupying lesion or inflammation

Answer 34

c. When resisted isometric movements are done, both exhibit normal strength

Question 35

37. The following are symptoms of a rotator cuff tear, EXCEPT: a. reduction of ROM b. drop arm test is positive C. poor scapula thoracic and glenohumeral rhythm d. significant reduction of AROM into abduction

Answer 35

C. poor scapula thoracic and glenohumeral rhythm

Question 36

38. A PT designs a research work that will examine body composition as a function of aerobic exercise and diet. Which method of data collection would provide the MOST Valid measurement of body composition? ahydrostatic weighing b. bioelectrical impedance c. skinfold measurements d. anthropometric measurements

Answer 36

a. hydrostatic weighing

Question 36

39. PT wants to begin behavior modification techniques as part of a plan of care to help shape the behavioral response of a patient recovering from traumatic brain injury. The BEST form of intervention is to: a. scold patient every time a wrong behavior happens b. encourage the staff to tell patient which behaviors are correct and which are not c. allow patient enough time for self-correction of the behavior d. use frequent reinforcements for all desired behaviors

Answer 36

d. use frequent reinforcements for all desired behaviors

Question 37

40. A 43-year-old male worker suffered carbon monoxide poisoning in a chemical plant. He sustained permanent damage to the nervous system affecting the basal ganglia. The exercise program should be feared to neutralize expected impairment of: a. motor planning with use of guided and cued movement b. motor paralysis with the use of full weights to increase strength c. musculår spasms and hyperreflexia with ice wrap application d. impaired sensory organization of balance using standing balance training

Answer 37

a. motor planning with use of guided and cued movement

Question 38

41. The maximum strength of a tetanic contraction of a muscle operating at a normal length is approximately of a muscle. a. 3.5 kg/sq cm (3-4) b. 5.5 kg/sq cm c. 1.5 kg/sq cm d. 2.5 kg/sq.cm

Answer 38

a. 3.5 kg/sq cm (3-4)

Question 39

42. In the modified Ashworth Scale for Grading Spasticity a grade 2 is described as: a. slight increase in muscle tone, manifested by a catch, followed by minimal resistance throughout the remainder (less than half of the ROM) b. considerable increase in muscle tone, passive movement difficult c. slight increase in muscle tone, manifested by a catch and release or by minimal resistance at the end of the range of motion when the affected part(s) is moved in flexion or extension d. more marked increase in muscle tone through most of the ROM, but affected part(s) easily moves

Answer 39

d. more marked increase in muscle tone through most of the ROM, but affected part(s) easily moves

Question 39

43. In the functional balance grades, what rate will you give a patient who is able to maintain balance while weight shifting? a. Fair b. Poor c. normal d. good

Answer 39

d. good

Question 40

44. A patient with multiple sclerosis is a subject in a research study testing the efficacy of a new medication. The patient reports that the medication she is taking makes her feel much better and allowś her to move more easily. At the end of the study, it is revealed that she was part of the control groups. Her responses are MOST LIKELY due to: a. sampling bias b. pretest - treatment interference c. placebo effect d. Hawthorne effect

Answer 40

c. placebo effect

Question 41

45. Patient comes to therapy because of poor motor control of the Lower extremities PT determines that to work efficiently toward bringing the patient back to prior level of ambulation, he must follow this sequence of control: a. stability, controlled stability, mobility skill b. mobility, stability, controlled mobility, skill c. mobility, controlled mobility, stability, skill d. skill, controlled stability, controlled mobility

Answer 41

b. mobility, stability, controlled mobility, skill

Question 42

46. This is a test for thoracic outlet syndrome where patient is positioned in sitting or supine. The therapist moves the patient's arm overhead in the frontal plane while monitoring the patient's radial pulse. A positive test is indicated by an absent or diminished radial pulse and may be indicative of compression in the costoclavicular space. a. Roos b. Allen c. Adson maneuver d Wright t

Answer 42

d. Wright

Question 43

47. While performing ROM, your patient with dermatomyositis complains daily about pain. For BEST long term positive result, the PT's strategy should be: a. discontinue exercise and use only positioning splint b. do ROM to the maximum limits possible c. continue to stretch slightly past the point of pain d. stop exercise as soon as patient complains of pain

Answer 43

d. stop exercise as soon as patient complains of pain

Question 44

48. Joint stiffness, a common complain of RA and OA patients has these physical components a. inertia, viscocity, friction, plasticity, elasticity b. elongation, viscocity, friction, plasticity, inertia c. texture, inertią, viscocity, plasticity, elasticity d. friction, elongation, texture, viscocity, elasticity

Answer 44

a. inertia, viscocity, friction, plasticity, elasticity

Question 45

49. Of the following ligaments situated around the ankle joint, the one that is MOST susceptible to strain is the: a. calcaneofibular b talofibular c. tibiofibular d. talotibial

Answer 45

b talofibular

Question 46

A patient is evaluated after a stroke. When tested for two-point discrimination on the right hand, the patient cannot tell whether the PT is touching with one or two points PT suspects that there is impaired function in the: a. spinotectal tract and somatosensory cortex b. dorsal column/lemniscal pathways and somatosensory cortex c. anterior spinothalamic tract and thalamus d. lateral spinothalamic tract and somatosensory

Answer 46

b. dorsal column/lemniscal pathways and somatosensory cortex

Question 47

A 52-year-old male weighing 175 lbs. complained of left neck pain radiating to his left thumb. His Spurling's sign was positive in the left with depressed left biceps jerk. His X-rays showed a spondylosis with narrowing of his C5-C6 interspace. The program would MOST LIKELY include a. Continuous traction, sitting, with neck at neutral with 20 lbs weight b. Intermittent cervical traction, supine with neck in 20 degrees of flexion and poundage gradually increasing to 30 lbs c. Continuous traction lying down with a single pulley in the headboard holding a weight of 10 lbs which may be increased to 30 d. Intermittent cervical traction while sitting with neck flexed at 45 degrees and poundage gradually increasing to 10 newtons

Answer 47

b. Intermittent cervical traction, supine with neck in 20 degrees of flexion and poundage gradually increasing to 30 lbs

Question 48

52. A grade of Fair of lumbar extensors means that the patient is able to do this: a. Clear the upper chest off the table b. Clear the umbilicus off the table c. Clear the costal rib off the table d. Clear the xiphoid process off the table

Answer 48

b. Clear the umbilicus off the table

Question 49

53. In measuring wrist flexion with aa goniometer, the bony landmark used to align the instrument are: a. Lateral condyle of the humerus and the ulna b. Styloid process of the ulna and the fifth proximal IP joint c. Lateral midline of the ulna and the fifth metacarpal d. Lateral midline of the radius and first metacarpal

Answer 49

c. Lateral midline of the ulna and the fifth metacarpal

Question 50

54. A 50-year-old paraplegic was referred for evaluation and management after one week of bed inactivity. The MMT yielded: upper extremity muscles were grossly graded 3+/5, both hip flexors and extensor graded 3/5, both quadriceps is 2+/5 and both ankle dorsiflexors are 2-/5. Initial goals of treatment should be a Inc muscle strength b. All of these c. Inc postural tolerance d. Independence in ADL

Answer 50

a Inc muscle strength

Question 51

55. Which of these statements on water temperature should NOT be considered when preparing an aquatic exercise program? a. Cardiovascular training and aerobic exercise should be performed in water temperature between 22 degrees C and 25 degrees C b. Therapeutic exercise performed at 33 degrees C may be beneficial for patients with acute, painful musculoskeletal injuries because of the effects of relaxation, elevated pain threshold and decreased muscle spasm. c. Flexibility and strengthening exercises; gait training and relaxation may be performed in temperatures between 26 degrees C and 33 degrees C d. Intense aerobic training performed above 80 percent of a patient's maximum heart rate should take place in temperature between 22 degrees C and 26 degrees C to maximize risk of heart illness.

Answer 51

a. Cardiovascular training and aerobic exercise should be performed in water temperature

Question 52

56. Which of these statements on water temperature during aquatic exercise is TRUE? a. Differences in temperature between an immersed object and water will equilibrate with minimal change in temperature of the water. b. Water retains heat 1000 times more than air. c. Heat transfer increases in velocity. d. Water conducts temperature 5 times faster than air.

Answer 52

d. Water conducts temperature 5 times faster than air.

Question 53

57. The middle score of a distribution which divides a group of scores into equal parts with half of the scores falling above and half of the scores falling below is the a. Quota b. Median c. Mode d. Mean

Answer 53

b. Median

Question 54

A patient standing in a corner wall with arm bilaterally abducted and externally rotated-against the wall is MOST LIKELY stretching the a. Clavicular portion of pectoralis major b. Clavicular portion of pectoralis minor c. Sternal portion of pectoralis major d. Sternal portion of pectoralis minor

Answer 54

a. Clavicular portion of pectoralis major

Question 55

59. Patients with peripheral nerve injury demonstrate optimal peripheral nerve integrity and muscle performance over the course of a. 18-24 months b. 2-3 months c. 9-12 months d. 4-8 months

Answer 55

d. 4-8 months

Question 56

60. A 54-year-old female bank executive was referred to the clinic after right breast lumpectomy with axillary lymph node dissection. PT noted that scapular control is poor when upper extremity flexion or abduction is begun. Given the limitation, the PТ intervention at this time should focus on a. Active assistive pulley exercises to strengthen the rotator cuff muscles after damage to the suprascapular nerve. b. Strengthening the right deltoids to stabilize the shoulder, compensating for damage to the dorsal scapular nerve. c. Strengthening the right rhomboid to promote normal scapular function due to damage to the dorsal scapular nerve. d. Gravity-assistive right upper extremity exercises to improve scapular control after damage to the long thoracic nerve.

Answer 56

d. Gravity-assistive right upper extremity exercises to promote scapular control following damage to the long thoracic nerve

Question 57

61. A child stimulated for negative support reaction will respond positive through increased a. Extensor tone in lower extremities b. Flexor tone in upper extremities c. Flexor tone in lower extremities d. Extensor tone in upper extremities

Answer 57

c. Flexor tone in lower extremities

Question 58

62. Ultrasound vibrations propagated through the housing of the applicator into the hand of the PT are called: a. Parasitic vibrations b. Oscillating conversion c. Ultrasonic conversion d. Bactericidal vibration

Answer 58

a. Parasitic vibrations

Question 59

63. A patient with stage Il primary lymphedema of the left lower extremity is referred to PT for increased limb girth with evident skin folds. An essential component of lymphedema management is manual lymphatic drainage which includes: a. decongesting the proximal portion of the limb first and working distally b. decongesting the distal portions of the limb first and working proximally c. deep tissue friction massage for several minutes on fibrotic areas d. decongesting the trunk after the limb segments

Answer 59

a. decongesting the proximal portion of the limb first and working distally

Question 60

64. A 66-year-old female patient complains of difficulty of walking. During the rest period, the skin in the lower leg appears discolored. After walking for about 2 minutes, patient complains of pain in the leg. A marked pallor is also evident in the skin over the lower third of the extremity. These symptoms are synonymous with ______ a. peripheral neuropathy b. restless leg syndrome c. neurogenic claudication d. vascular claudication

Answer 60

d. vascular claudication

Question 61

65. A patient has a 13-year-old history of peripheral vascular disease (PVD) affecting the left lower extremity. During auscultation of the popliteal artery, the PT would expect to find a/an _____. a. Bruit b. + Homan's sign c. + pulses d. intense pain and cramping

Answer 61

a. Bruit

Question 62

66. Which statement is NOT TRUE about blood pressure? a. Blood pressure response is higher during weight training than incorporate concentric and eccentric phase compared to isokinetic b. Blood pressure is directly related to cardiac output and peripheral vascular resistance and therefore is an effective non-invasive performance measure of the pumping mechanism of the heart c. Blood pressure tends to be lower when the Valsalva maneuver is applied d. Blood pressure increases during dynamic resistance exercise, such as free weights, machines or isokinetics and continues to increase as an exercise set progresses

Answer 62

c. Blood pressure tends to be tower when the Valsalva maneuver is applied

Question 63

67. Which statement is NOT TRUE about systolic blood pressure? a. If systolic pressure does not rise with increasing workload, it may indicate that the functional reserve capacity of the heart has been exceeded b. Systolic pressure increases with exertion in a linear progression, often at a rate of 10-14 mm Hg per metabolic equivalent c. Normally, systolic blood pressure in the legs is 10-20 percent higher than the pressure in the arms (brachial artery) d. Systolic pressure measures the force exerted against the arteries during the ejection cycle while diastolic pressure measures the force exerted against the arteries during rest

Answer 63

b. Systolic pressure increases with exertion in a linear progression, often at a rate of 10-14 mm Hg per metabolic equivalent

Question 64

68. A patient with asthma is on medication (albuterol) ventolin from the sympathomimetic group. The MOST important effect of this drug is a. lowers airway resistance by reducing bronchospasm b. lower bronchial construction and high blood pressure (BP) that accompanies exercise c. increases heart rate (HR) and BP to enhance a training effect during aerobic activity d. raises airway resistance and reduces secretion production

Answer 64

a. lowers airway resistance by reducing bronchospasm

Question 65

69. A patient with multiple sclerosis demonstrates a significant instability and hypertonicity in the hips. To regain stability, the most appropriate strategy is a. slow-reversal-hold to lock hip in prone position b. slow-reversal-hold to lower trunk in sitting position c. rhythmic stabilization at the hips with the patient on elbows and knees d. rhythmic stabilization to trunk in sidelying position

Answer 65

c. rhythmic stabilization at the hips with the patient on elbows and knees

Question 66

70. Patient was on bed rest for several months. Which of these does NOT occur in a patient after an extended bed rest? a. Increase in the heart rate response to activity b. A negative nitrogen and calcium balance c. Increase in lung volume d. Decrease in physical work capacity

Answer 66

c. Increase in lung volume

Question 67

71. If a patient presents with the following symptoms: hoarse wheezes and altered breath sounds and may be clubbing at the fingers, may be short of breath and fatigue and a large quantity of puss-filled sputum that may also contain blood, you will entertain the presence of a. chronic bronchitis b. emphysema c. bronchiectasis d. asthma

Answer 67

c. bronchiectasis

Question 68

72. A PT is inspecting the work station of patient with cumulative trauma. When seated before a video display terminal, the screen should be positioned _____ inches from the patient. a. 30 b. 10 c. 20 d. 40

Question 69

73. A 76-year-old male patient demonstrates significant proprioceptive losses in both lower extremities, distal greater than proximal useful compensatory strategies in is ambulation training would include_ a. Shorten ambulation and focus on wheelchair mobility b. Constant verbal cueing about his foot position c. Practice walking on a smooth surface floor d. Letting patient watch position of his feet while practicing standing and stepping

Answer 69

d. Letting patient watch position of his feet while practicing standing and stepping

Question 70

74. A plumb line is a tool that consists of a weight suspended at the end of a string to determine vertical. Ideal positioning of selected body parts in relation to the plumb line is described below, EXCEPT: a. Slightly anterior to the axis of the knee joint b. Slightly anterior to the hip joint c. Slightly anterior to the lateral malleolus d. Through the calcaneocuboid joint

Answer 70

b. Slightly anterior to the hip joint

Question 71

75. The Rule of Nines assigns percentage of burn to an adult's anterior leg as - a. 12.0 b. 4.5 c. 6.0 d. 9.0

Answer 71

d. 9.0

Question 72

76. A PT examines a patient seated in a wheelchair and notices that it has inadequate seat width. The MOST LIKELY consequence to this is excessive pressure a. on the greater trochanters b. in the popliteal fossa c. under the distal high d. under the ischial tuberosities

Answer 72

a. on the greater trochanters

Question 73

77. A PT notices a bluish discoloration of the skin and nail beds of a 57-year-old male referred to PT for pulmonary rehabilitation. This finding indicates a. Hypokalemia b. Hyperoxemia c. Hyperoxia d. Hypoxemia

Answer 73

d. Hypoxemia

Question 74

78. Which of the following statements about developmental motor control is FALSE? a. Trunk control develops prior to distal extremity control. b. Isotonic control develops before isometric control. c. Gross motor control develops prior to fine motor control. d. Eccentric movement develops prior to concentric movement.

Answer 74

b. Isotonic control develops before isometric control.

Question 75

79. A PT is evaluating a 50-year-old housewife with vestibular problems. Patient is asked to assume a long sitting position with the head turned to the left side. PT then moves the patient backward so that the head is extended over the end of table about 30 degrees below horizontal. This maneuver causes severe dizziness and vertigo. A special test with the head turned to the right produces no symptoms. PT document the results as a positive a. sharpened Romberg's test b. positional test c. left Dix-Hallpike test d. right Dix-Hallpike tests

Answer 75

c. left Dix-Hallpike test

Question 76

80. A PT is evaluating a patient diagnosed with an acute posterior cruciate sprain. The mechanism of injury for the posterior cruciate is a. a forceful larding on the anterior tibia with the knee hyperflexed b. hyperextension medial rotation of the leg with lateral rotation of the body c. a valgus force applied to the knee when the foot is fixed d. an anteriorly directed force applied to the tibia when the foot is fixed

Answer 76

a. a forceful larding on the anterior tibia with the knee hyperflexed

Question 77

81. A positive crossover sign is indicative of a. possible disc lesion causing traction on the ipsilateral nerve roots b. tightness of illotibial band c. malingering patient d. possible disc lesion causing traction on the contralateral nerve roots

Answer 77

d. possible disc lesion causing traction on the contralateral nerve roots

Question 78

82. A basic facility standard that should be included in the construction of PT department is the a. parking facilities b. basic space and staffing requirements c. geography and population to be served d. type and size of hospital to be served

Answer 78

b. basic space and staffing requirements

Question 79

83. The following are tests to assess manual dexterity and coordination, EXCEPT: a. Jebson-Taylor Hand Function b. Minnesota Rate of Manipulation c. Grind d. Purdue Pegboard

Answer 79

c. Grind

Question 80

84. Professional negligence is commonly identified as. a. An unnecessary risk taken by a practitioner b. The unintended injury to person or property c. “Res ipsaloquitor" d. The intended injury to person or property

Answer 80

a. An unnecessary risk taken by a practitioner

Question 81

85. Patellar tracking dysfunction is a common problem especially those with active lifestyles. Dynamic factors for patellar tracking dysfunction include- a. a lateral femoral condyle that is not sufficiency prominent anteriorly b. shallow trochlear groove c. vastus medialis obliquus muscle insufficiency d. increase in the angulation between the quadriceps muscle and the patellar tendon

Answer 81

c. vastus medialis obliquus muscle insufficiency

Question 82

86. A 57-year-old male patient with sciatica complains of severe lumbar pain and paresthesia extending to the Left ankle. Straight leg raising is positive in the left lower extremity. The MOST LIKELY source of pain is a. a lumbar disc with a posterior herniation or protrusion b. piriformis syndrome c. sacroiliac joint dysfunction d. a lumbar disc is with a right posterior herniation or protrusion

Answer 82

a. a lumbar disc with a posterior herniation or protrusion

Question 83

87. A basketball player of a major professional league was prescribed a knee derotation brace for all his games. The condition that would BEST benefit the use of derotation brace is a. posterior cruciate ligament reconstruction b. anterior cruciate ligament reconstruction c. medial meniscus tear d. anterior cruciate ligament insufficiency

Answer 83

d. anterior cruciate ligament insufficiency

Question 84

88. A PT is applying electrical stimulation to treat a patient with shoulder subluxation due to a stroke. The electrode placement should be over the a. posterior deltoid and teres minor b. middle deltoid and supraspinatus c. posterior deltoid and Supraspinatus d. serratus anterior and pectoralis major

Answer 84

c. posterior deltoid and Supraspinatus

Question 85

89. Which of the following factors is likely to cause subluxation and shoulder pain in hemiplegia? a. spastic retraction with elevation of scapula b. traction acting on a depressed, downwardly rotated scapula c. PROM with normal scapulohumeral rhythm d. spastic paralysis of the biceps

Answer 85

b. traction acting on a depressed, downwardly rotated scapula

Question 86

90. A PT assigned in the oncology department of a large medical center is going over the medical chart of a male patient before initiating airway clearance techniques. The patient's cell counts are as follows: hematocrit - 44 percent, white blood cells - 8,500 mm, platelets - 30,000/ul, hemoglobin level -15 gm/dl. Which blood test value suggests that chest percussion for airway clearance is contraindicated? a.Platelets b. Hemoglobin c. White blood cells d. Hematocrit

Answer 86

a.Platelets

Question 87

146. The following impairments may result in patients with a lesion in the frontal lobe of the brain, EXCEPT: a. perseveration, in attention b. homonymous hemianopsia c. contralateral weakness d. personality changes, antisocial behavior

Answer 87

b. homonymous hemianopsia

Question 88

147.In designing a ramp for patients with wheelchair, for every inch of threshold height, there should be a corresponding inches of ramp length a. 12 c. 15 b. 10 d. 8

Answer 88

a. 12

Question 89

148. At what level may a spinal cord injury patient begin to be a functional ambulator? a. T1-T8 b. T9-T12 c. L4-L5 d. L1-L3

Answer 89

d. L1-L3

Question 90

149. The following conditions can cause pressure ulcers to develop in SCI patients, EXCEPT: a. voluntary motor paralysis b. sensory impairment c. autonomic dysfunction d. bladder incontinence

Answer 90

c. autonomic dysfunction

Question 91

91. A patient exhibits quadriceps weakness 4/5 and difficulty descending stairs. The BEST intervention to restore functional strength in the quadriceps is a. progressive resistance exercises, 70 percent 1 repetition maximum, three sets of 10 b. partial squats, progressing to lunges c. maximum isometric exercise at 45 degrees and 90 degrees of knee extension d. isokinetic exercise at 36 degrees per second

Answer 91

b. partial squats, progressing to lunges

Question 92

92. Consider the following clinical picture of the knee joint: there is marked swelling, tibia can be displaced forward in the femur, pain and marked instability of the knee joint. The structure LIKELY involved is the ligament. a. posterior cruciate b. anterior cruciate c. tibial collateral d. fibular collateral

Answer 92

b. anterior cruciate

Question 93

93. The body weight transmitted to a unilateral cane opposite the affected side is about a. 20-25 b. 80 c. 40-45 d. 10-15

Answer 93

a. 20-25

Question 94

94. A PT prepares to complete a sensory examination on a patient recovering from a lower extremity burn. Which of the following would serve as the BEST predictor of altered sensation? a. presence of skin graft b. percentage of body surface affected c. depth of burn injury d. extent of hypertrophic scarring

Answer 94

c. depth of burn injury

Question 95

95. A 66-year-old female is recovering from stroke and at 4 -months is ambulating with a straight cane inside the house. During therapy, PT asks patient to practice walking without assistive device. Recurvatum is observed that worsens with continued walking. The BEST strategy for the PT is_ a. Put the patient on an exercise machine and work on increasing quadriceps torque outpatient at higher loads and increasing speeds b. Practice isolated small-range quadriceps eccentric control work in standing and continue with the straight cane c. Give the patient a small-based quad cane to improve stability, and have him/her practice active ROM in supine d. Give the patient a KAFO to control the hyperextension and a hemi walker

Answer 95

b. Practice isolated small-range quadriceps eccentric control work in standing and continue with the straight cane

Question 96

96. A PT chooses the Six-Minute Walk Test as a means of quantifying endurance for a patient rehabilitating from a lengthy illness. Which variable would be most appropriate to measure when determining the patient's endurance level with this objective test? a. Heart rate response b. Perceived exertion c. Elapsed time d. Distance walked

Answer 96

d. Distance walked

Question 97

97. A 48-year-old female was referred to PT with a C6 nerve root injury. Which of the clinical findings would NOT be expected with this type of injury? a. Diminished brachioradialis reflex b. Paresthesias of the long and ring fingers c. Diminished sensation on the anterior arm and index finger d. Weakness in the biceps and supinator

Answer 97

b. Paresthesias of the long and ring fingers

Question 98

98. The following are characteristics of the left hemisphere of the brain, EXCEPT: a. Understand language b. Express negative emotions c. Mathematical calculations d. Analytical

Answer 98

b. Express negative emotions

Question 99

99. A PT is getting a gross measurement of hamstrings length by passively extending the lower extremity of a patient in short sitting. The MOST common substitution to exaggerate hamstring length is a. Anterior rotation of the pelvis b. Hiking of the contralateral hip c. Posterior rotation of the pelvis d. Weight shift to the contralateral side

Answer 99

c. Posterior rotation of the pelvis

Question 100

100.A 43-year-old patient is recovering from a complete SCI at L2 level. The expected outcome would MOST LIKELY include a. Loss of motor function and pain and temperature sensation below the level of the lesion with light touch, proprioception and position sense preserved b. Loss of arm function is greater than leg function with early loss of pain and temperature sensation c. A spastic or reflex bladder d. Some recovery of function since damage is to peripheral nerve roots

Answer 100

d. Some recovery of function since damage is to peripheral nerve roots

Question 101

101. A 64-year-old patient will undergo total hip replacement in a week. Which of these is NOT included among pre-operative instructions? a. gait training with an appropriate device that will be used post operatively b. deep breathing and coughing exercise c. basic precautions for early bed mobility d. proper use of an abduction pillow for 1-2 weeks post operatively

Answer 101

d. proper use of an abduction pillow for 1-2 weeks post operatively

Question 102

102.A patient 4 months post total knee replacement is referred for ROM and strengthening exercises. Which strategy would NOT be appropriate for the patient? a. active strengthening using the contract-relax technique b. exercise on a stationary bicycle against mild resistance c. joint mobility to increase joint play d. performing straight leg raising, short arc extension and knee flexion exercise using light weights

Answer 102

c. joint mobility to increase joint play

Question 103

103.A football player suffered a grade II inversion ankle sprain 2 weeks ago. The Best intervention in the early subacute phase of rehabilitation would most likely include: a. functional football related drills b. mobilization at the talocrural and subtalar joints c. plyometric based exercise d. closed chain strengthening and proprioceptive exercises

Answer 103

d. closed chain strengthening and proprioceptive exercises

Question 104

104. While talking to a patient about a previous exercise program, the patient mentioned that his PT from another clinic said that he performed negative work. Negative work or a negative muscular contraction is BEST defined as a. the muscle develops tension and increases in length b. purposeful voluntary motion c. the muscle develops tension and decreases in length conamie d. muscle length remains constant as tension is developed

Answer 104

a. the muscle develops tension and increases in length

Question 105

105.A PT is conducting a pre-operative training for a patient scheduled for repair of a large rotator cuff tear. Patient is a 56-year-old bank executive and he wants to know how long before he can resume his former recreational activities such as golf and badminton. The MOST appropriate time frame is weeks. a. 24-28 b. 6-8 c. 12-14 d. 36-40

Answer 105

a. 24-28

Question 106

106. This is to test brachial plexus injury, brachial plexus neuritis or Meningitis. a. Westphal b. Keri c. Lhermittes d. Bikele

Answer 106

c. Lhermittes

Question 107

107. The silver fork deformity results from an unreduced or inadequately reduced a. fracture of the lower ulna b. fracture of one or more carpals c. fracture of the first metacarpal d. Colle's fracture

Answer 107

d. Colle's fracture

Question 108

108.A golfer, while swinging to drive the ball, felt an immediate sharp pain in the right lower back. The day after patient reported stiffness with easing of pain after a shower. With these information, the source of pain is MOST LIKELY: a. Nerve root compression b. Facet joint impingement c. A stress fracture d. Diminished blood supply to the spinal cord

Answer 108

b. Facet joint impingement

Question 109

109.A patient immersed in the pool up to the umbilicus effectively off-loads percent of his body weight. a. 30 b. 40 C. 60 d. 50

Answer 109

d. 50

Question 109

110.A patient with pain in the left lateral face and head is found to have limited active and passive mouth opening range of motion. However, passive lateral deviation is full to both sides. The probable cause for the limitation in mouth opening range of motion is a. An anteriorly displaced disc without reduction in the left temporomandibular joint b. Decreased flexibility in the muscles of mastication on the left c. Capsular restriction of the left temporomandibular joint d. Decreased flexibility in the muscles of mastication on the left

Answer 109

b. Decreased flexibility in the muscles of mastication on the left

Question 110

111. In order to determine if an exercise session should be terminated, the patient assesses the level of exertion using the BORG Rating of Perceived Exertion Scale. The patient rates the level of exertion as 11 on the 6-19 scale, A rating of 11 corresponds to which of the following a. Very, very light b. Very light c. Somewhat hard d. Fairly light

Answer 110

d. Fairly light

Question 110

112. The principle that states that there will only be an increase in muscle strength if adequate resistance is given is a. Overload b. McGill c. Davies d. Action-reaction

Answer 110

a. Overload

Question 110

113. This statement is TRUE of the peak torque of a concentric contraction of the plantarflexors. a. It occurs at the end of the range where the plantarflexors are the most shortened. b. It does not change with different velocities of isokinetic testing c. It is measured in joules d. It decreases as the muscles fatigue

Answer 110

d. It decreases as the muscles fatigue

Question 111

114.A 34-year-old motorcycle delivery crew who figured in a vehicular accident was referred to you. Evaluation revealed that he had no function of the biceps and the brachialis but has functions of the triceps and deltoid muscles. You can suspect: a. Nerve root lesion is at C5-C6 b. Lesion is at the lateral cord of the brachial plexus c. None of these d. Lesion is at the posterior cord of the brachial plexus

Answer 111

b. Lesion is at the lateral cord of the brachial plexus

Question 112

115.A PT is implementing closed kinetic chain exercises for a patient diagnosed with anterior cruciate ligament insufficiency. Which INAPPROPRIATE to include in the program? a. Walking backwards on a treadmill b. Exercise in a stair climber c. Isokinetic knee extension and flexion d. Limited squats to 45 degrees

Answer 112

c. Isokinetic knee extension and flexion

Question 113

116. Your patient with Parkinson's disease was prescribed levodopa The side effects of the drug are the following, EXCEPT: a. arrhythmias b. gastrointestinal distress c. orthostatic hypotension d. impaired visual accommodation

Answer 113

d. impaired visual accommodation

Question 114

117.In behavior therapy, this is a process where learning occurs when an individual engages in specific behaviors in order to receive certain consequences. Examples of this include, positive reinforcement, extinction and punishment. a. Operant conditioning b. Role playing c. Flooding d. Modeling

Answer 114

a. Operant conditioning

Question 115

118.A sports PT was invited to deliver a talk on plyometrics before athletes of a university-based athletic association. Which of the following does NOT refer to plyometric? a. A criteria to begin plyometric training usually includes 60-70 percent level of strength and 75 percent range of motion b. It is appropriate only in the later stages of rehabilitation of active individuals who must achieve a high level of physical performance in specific high demand activities c. It is characterized by a rapid eccentric contraction during which muscle elongates, followed immediately by a rapid reversal of movement with a resisted shortening contraction of the same muscle d. It is a system of high velocity resistance training

Answer 115

a. A criteria to begin plyometric training usually includes 60-70 percent level of strength and 75 percent range of motion

Question 116

119.A 29-year-old male with a history of schizophrenia, disorganized type, is referred for ambulation after a femoral fracture. Patient recently had an exacerbation of the condition. PT will expect this behavior from patient a. Feelings of low self-esteem b. Poor ability to perform tasks that need abstract problem solving c. Sleep disturbance and flashbacks d. Increased fear of crowd

Answer 116

b. Poor ability to perform tasks that need abstract problem solving

Question 117

120. A PT observes an electrocardiogram of a patient on beta blockers. Which of the following electrocardiogram changes could be facilitated by beta-blockers? a. premature ventricular contractions b. sinus bradycardia c. ST segment sagging d. sinus tachycardia

Answer 117

b. sinus bradycardia

Question 118

121.A patient with left sided CHF class II, is referred for physical therapy. During exercises, the patient can be expected to exhibit a. Anorexia, nausea with abdominal pain and distension b. Dyspnea with fatigue and muscular weakness c. Severe, uncomfortable chest pain with shortness of breath d. Weight gain with dependent edema

Answer 118

b. Dyspnea with fatigue and muscular weakness

Question 119

122.In comparing the clinical features of cerebral artery thrombosis with cerebral embolism, the former: a. presents an abrupt onset with rapidly developing symptoms b. has the most common site of occlusion in the internal carotid artery c. usually includes a sudden loss of consciousness d. includes more generalized disturbance of cerebral function

Answer 119

b. has the most common site of occlusion in the internal carotid artery

Question 120

123.A patient is on immune suppressants following renal transplantation was referred to the clinic for mobility training using crutches. Initial evaluation revealed paresthesia in both lower extremities with peripheral weakness in both hands and feet. PT suspects that patient is MOST LIKELY experiencing: a. leukopenia b. peripheral neuropathy c. myopathy d. quadriparesis

Answer 120

b. peripheral neuropathy

Question 121

124. The correct sequence in the hierarchy of the criteria of a profession is: a. lifetime commitment, representative organization, specialized education, service to clients, autonomy of judgment b. representative organization, lifetime commitment, service to clients, specialized education, autonomy of judgment c. autonomy of judgment, lifetime commitment, specialized education, representative organization, service to clients d. service to clients, autonomy of judgment, specialized education, representative organization, lifetime commitment

Answer 121

a. lifetime commitment, representative organization, specialized education, service to clients, autonomy of judgment

Question 122

125.A PT working in the provincial hospital was asked to cover an interscholastic football league competition. During a game, a player is knocked down on the field. The PT rushed to the scene and determines that the player is unconscious. What should be the NEXT action of the PT? a. Proceed to give mouth to mouth resuscitation check for shock b. Start with the head and determine first if there is any bleeding or fluid coming from the nose, ears, eyes, or mouth c. Check the carotid pulse for a heart beat d. Check breathing and if it is impaired, clear the airway, and if necessary

Answer 122

d. Check breathing and if it is impaired, clear the airway, and if necessary

Question 123

126. Which of the following is widely considered the MOST accurate body composition assessment? a. hydrostatic weighing b. eyeballing method c. electrical impedance d. anthropometric measurements

Answer 123

a. hydrostatic weighing

Question 124

127.A 28-year-old fast food delivery man figured in a bad vehicular accident that landed him in the intensive care unit. Patient is confused. His laboratory findings include: hematocrit -28 percent, hemoglobin - 10 g/100 mL and serum white blood cell count of 12,000/mm3. With these, the PT can say that: a. all values are abnormal b. only hematocrit value is abnormal c. hematocrit and hemoglobin values are abnormal; WBC is normal d. only serum and WBC is abnormal

Answer 124

a. all values are abnormal

Question 125

128.A patient exhibiting symptoms of thalamic pain syndrome, cortical blindness and memory impairment. PT will suspect occlusion in the artery. a. vertebral basilar b. middle cerebral c. posterior cerebral d. anterior cerebral

Answer 125

c. posterior cerebral

Question 126

129. While evaluating a patient with cerebral palsy, the spastic diplegia type, PT will observe the following abnormalities, EXCEPT: a Ankle dorsiflexion equinus b. scissoring gait pattern c. hips flexed and adducted d. knees flexed with valgus

Answer 126

a Ankle dorsiflexion equinus

Question 127

130. The MOST important consideration among the factors below in the clinical assessment for wheelchair and seating system is a. Abnormal reflexes b. Sensory deficits c. Contracture d. Muscle tone

Answer 127

c. Contracture

Question 128

131. The patient is now able to pronate and supinate his affected forearm with the elbow extended. This means he is in the stage_ development. of Brunnstrom's stages of development a. 3 b. 2 c. 4 d. 5

Answer 128

d. 5

Question 129

132. After complete healing, wound will have only how many percent strength of intact skin? a 80 b. 70 c. 50 d. 60

Answer 129

a 80

Question 130

133. The treatment plan for a patient with hemiplegia is based on the theory of reinforcing normal movement through key points of control and avoiding all reflex movement patterns and associated reactions, the approach MOST closely illustrates a. Kabat c. Brunnstrom b. Rood d. Bobath

Answer 130

d. Bobath

Question 131

134. Postural drainage is prescribed to a patient with cystic fibrosis. If the superior segment of the lower lobes are the target areas, how will PT proceed? a. patient lies prone, head down, 20 inches foot elevation with pillows under the hips b. patient lies supine, head down 20 inches with pillows under the knees c. patient lies supine with 2 pillows under hips, bed flat d. patient lies supine with pillows under the knees, bed flat

Answer 131

a. patient lies prone, head down, 20 inches foot elevation with pillows under the hips

Question 132

135.A PT is part of a health team that will examine applicants for flight attendants of an airline company. His task was to examine the posture of applicants. Which of these descriptions would NOT match a good posture? a. chest is slightly up and forward front of pelvis and thighs are in a straight line c. shoulder blades pulled back and separated about 2 inches from each other d. arms hang relaxed at the sides with palms of hand facing toward the body

Answer 132

c. shoulder blades pulled back and separated about 2 inches from each other

Question 133

136.PT is evaluating a 40-year-old male patient referred by a pulmonary specialist. Pt observes a pattern of breathing with periods of alternate deep breathing and apnea. Patient reports the same occurs at bedtime. This type of breathing or disorder in rate and rhythm is consistent with: a. diaphragmatic b. Biot's c. ataxic d. Cheyne-Stokes

Answer 133

d. Cheyne-Stokes

Question 134

137. The plumb line is a tool that consists of a weight suspended at the end of a string to determine vertically. Ideal positioning of selected body parts in relation to the plumb line is described below, EXCEPT: a. midway through the tip of the shoulder b. through the external auditory meatus c. through the axis of the odontoid process d. slightly anterior to the coronal suture

Answer 134

d. slightly anterior to the coronal suture

Question 135

138. A patient with a deep partial thickness burns over 30 degrees of the body is referred to PT from the Burn Unit. The expected healing process in this type of burn includes: a. moderate edema with spontaneous healing and minimal grafting b. depressed skin area that heals with grafting and scarring c. marked edema with slow healing and extensive hypertrophic scarring d. blisters and minimal edema with spontaneous healing

Answer 135

c. marked edema with slow healing and extensive hypertrophic scarring

Question 136

139. A patient using a wheelchair is about to be discharged from the hospital. He asks his family to build a ramp that will allow entry into the house. What is the MAXIMUM recommended grade for the ramp? a. 10.4 percent b. 8.3 percent c. 9.3 percent d. 6.5 percent

Answer 136

b. 8.3 percent

Question 137

140.A PT should have sustainable understanding of the normal development of the human body to treat effectively and efficiently. Which of the following principles is NOT TRUE? a. Early motor activity is influenced by spontaneous activity b. Increasing motor ability is independent of motor learning c. Early motor activity is influenced primarily by reflexes d. Motor control develops from proximal to distal and from head to toe

Answer 137

b. Increasing motor ability is independent of motor learning

Question 138

141.A medial or lateral whip during gait of an amputee can occur because of the following reasons, EXCEPT: a. inadequate rotation of the knee b. tight socket fit c. improper alignment of toe break d. valgus in the prosthetic knee

Answer 138

a. inadequate rotation of the knee

Question 139

142.A patient who sustained burns on 25 percent of his body was admitted! If patient has hypovolemia, the laboratory value MOST affected is: a. oxygen saturation ratio b. hemoglobin c. prothrombin time d. hematocrit

Answer 139

d. hematocrit

Question 140

143. The range of motion requirements for normal gait include the following, EXCEPT: a. knee flexion: 060 degrees b. ankle dorsiflexion: 0-10 degrees c. hip extension: 0-30 degrees d. hip flexion: 0-30 degrees

Answer 140

c. hip extension: 0-30 degrees

Question 141

144.A patient with right lateral epicondylitis reports that symptoms are the same after 2 weeks of treatment. PT evaluated the patient and found out that the left biceps reflex is 1+. The PT's next strategy is to conduct a complete examination of the region. a. midcervical b. cervico thoracic c. upper cervical d. cervicocranial

Answer 141

a. midcervical

Question 142

145.A patient with a spinal cord injury finds it difficult to transfer from mat to wheelchair. The patient can't seem to process the idea of how to coordinate this movement. In this situation the MOST effective use of feedback during the early motor learning is to: a. focus on guided movement and proprioceptive inputs b. concentrate on knowledge of results and visual inputs c. give feedback only after a short (5 sec) delay d. concentrate on knowledge of performance and proprioceptive inputs

Answer 142

b. concentrate on knowledge of results and visual inputs

Question 143

151.A post stroke patient can maintain standing without any external support and has some sway: If he can remain standing while turning his head or trunks, the functional grade is a. Normal static and dynamic standing balance b. Good static and fair dynamic standing balance c. Good static and normal dynamic standing balance d. Fair static and good dynamic standing balance

Answer 143

b. Good static and fair dynamic standing balance

Question 144

152. A major reason cervical traction is done intermittently a. machine will not overheat b. to increase blood flow to that area c. greater poundage can be folerated d. all of these

Answer 144

c. greater poundage can be folerated

Question 145

153. In a wellness center, a PT was assigned to do a study that examines body composition as a function of aerobic exercise and diet. The method of data collection that would provide the MOST accurate of body composition is ____. a. Skin fold measurements b. Hydrostatic weighing c. Bioelectrical impedance d. Anthropometric measurement

Answer 145

b. Hydrostatic weighing

Question 146

154. Body composition is defined as the relative percentage of body weight that is comprised of fat and fat free tissue. Aside from skin fold measurement and hydrostatic weighing, the other methods are the following, EXCEPT: a. Bioelectrical impedance analysis b. Body mass index c. Plethysmography d. Fat content analysis

Answer 146

d. Fat content analysis

Question 147

155.A 32-year-old male diagnosed with ankylosing spondylitis reports progressive stiffening of the spine and associated pain for more than five years. The patient's MOST typical standing posture demonstrates: a. Lateral curvature of the spine with fixed rotation of the vertebrae b. Posterior thoracic rib hump c. Excessive lumbar curve, flattened thoracic curve d. Flattened lumbar curve, exaggerated thoracic curve

Answer 147

d. Flattened lumbar curve, exaggerated thoracic curve

Question 148

156. Pain in the calf aggravate by walking and elevation of the lower extremity is MOST LIKELY caused by: a. Arterial insufficiency b. Sciatica c. Venous insufficiency d. Lymphedema

Answer 148

a. Arterial insufficiency

Question 149

157. Sudden muscle cramps brought on by exertion and relived by rest describes this condition. a . Emboloic occlusion b. Thrombophlebitis c. Lymphedema d. Claudication

Answer 149

d. Claudication

Question 150

158. Your patient is a 65-year-old female diagnosed with venous problem. The following therapeutic procedures are usually indicated to prevent progression of condition EXCEPT: a. Patient with problems in the lower extremities should be encouraged to walk, run, rise on toes b. Electric stimulation is not recommended c. Gentle massage can be given to move the stagnant blood and relieve the pressure d. Intermittent pneumatic compression treatments are commonly given, often followed by exercises

Answer 150

b. Electric stimulation is not recommended

Question 151

159. A PT is treating a 39-year-old female diagnosed with thoracic outlet syndrome. During exercise, the patient begins to complain of light headedness and dizziness. PT immediately takes patient to a chair and monitors her vital signs. Her respiration rate is 11 breaths per minute, pulse rate 50 beats per minute, and BP 120/85 mmHg. Which of the following statements is MOST accurate? a. Pulse rate and respiration rate are below normal levels b. The patient's vital signs are within normal levels c. Pulse rate and BP are above normal levels d. BP and respiration rate are above normal levels

Answer 151

a. Pulse rate and respiration rate are below normal levels

Question 152

160.A 70-year-old patient with a history of hypertension and hyperlipidemia comes to therapy confused and has shortness of breath and generalized weakness. You will suspect that the patient _____. a. Is experiencing unstable angina b. Is showing signs of early Alzheimers disease c. Failed to take prescribed hypertension medication d. Is showing early signs of myocardial infarction

Answer 152

d. Is showing early signs of myocardial infarction

Question 153

161. The correct sequence for a positive Landau reflex response is: a. First the back extends, then the neck flexes with leg in extension b. First the head, then the back and legs extend c. Simultaneous neck and back in flexion with legs in extension d. First the legs will extend, then neck extension with back flexion

Answer 153

b. First the head, then the back and legs extend

Question 154

162. A PT is completing a development assessment of a 7-month-old infant with normal development. The reflex that would NOT be integrated is: a. ATNR b. Moro c. Landau d. STNR

Answer 154

c. Landau =integrates at 2 yo

Question 155

163. Which of these is NOT TRUE about the pre-operation stage of cognitive development? a. Children develop tools for representative scheme symbolically through language imitation, imaginary play and drawing b. Preceded by the sensorimotor stage c. Ends at 5 years d. Starts when child begins to learn language

Answer 155

c. Ends at 5 years =occurs during 2-7 years old

Question 156

164. The condition that may result from persistent wearing of high heels is: a. Diabetic peripheral neuropathy b. Bilateral bunion c. Metatarsalgia d. Pes Planus

Answer 156

c. Metatarsalgia

Question 157

165. Which of the following is MOST important goal in treating pediatric patients with postural reaction deficits? a. automatic response b. age-appropriate responses c. lower extremity control before upper extremity control d. conscious responses

Answer 157

a. automatic response

Question 158

166.A child with cerebral palsy has difficulty releasing food from the hand to the mouth. To assist the hand opening when the food is in the mouth, the caregiver should: a. passively extend the fingers b. slowly stroke the finger flexors in a distal to proximal directions c. slowly stroke the finger extensors in a proximal to distal direction

Answer 158

c. slowly stroke the finger extensors in a proximal to distal direction

Question 159

167.A female PT is treating a 1-year-old child with Down Syndrome at home. She notices decreasing strength in the extremities with neck pain and limited neck motion. Deep tendon reflexes are 1+. PT suspects _______. a. Atlanto-axial subluxation with lemniscal impingement b. Lower motor neuron signs consistent with Down Syndrome c. Upper motor neuron signs consistent with Down Syndrome d. Atlanto-axial subluxation with spinal cord impingement

Answer 159

d. Atlanto-axial subluxation with spinal cord impingement

Question 160

168.A 50-year-old golfer complains of pain on getting up that eases with ambulation. There's also pain when running and upon palpation of the distal end of calcaneus, Evaluation also, reveals pes planus. PT suspects plantar fasciitis. Initial strategy would include: a. Use of night resting splint b. Strengthening of ankle dorsiflexors c. Modalities to reduce pain d. Use of customized orthosis

Answer 160

a. Use of night resting splint

Question 161

169. An infant is independent in sitting, including all protective extension reactions and can pull-to-stand through kneeling, cruise sideways and stand alone. The infant still exhibits plantar grasp in standing. These infant's chronological age is close to _____ months. a. 5 b. 8-9 c. 10-15 d. 6

Answer 161

b. 8-9

Question 162

170. Prematurity is associated with neonatal morbidity and mortality. It is defined as the birth before the: a. 32nd week of gestation b. by 35th week of gestation c. 37th week from the first day of the last menstruation d. 30th week of intrauterine development

Answer 162

c. 37th week from the first day of the last menstruation

Question 163

171.A PT reviews laboratory result of an inpatient who sustained burns over 25 percent of her body in a fire. Granting the patient exhibits hypovolemia, which of the following laboratory values would be MOST significantly affected? a. hematocrit b. prothrombin time c. erythrocyte sedimentation rate d. oxygen saturation rate

Answer 163

a. hematocrit

Question 164

172. Because of a traumatic brain injury, a patient is unable to bring foot up into the next step during stair climbing. The PT's BEST strategy: to promote learning the task is to have patient do: a. step-ups into a low step while in parallel bars b. standing up from halt kneeling c. balancing of stairs while PT brings the foot up d. marching in place between parallel bars

Answer 164

a. step-ups into a low step while in parallel bars

Question 165

173.A patient with a left CVA demonstrates right hemiparesis and strong and dominant hemiplegia synergies in the lower extremity. The BEST strategy to break up these strategies is: a. supine, PNF D2F with knee flexing and D2F with knee extending b. foot tapping in a sitting position c. bridging, pelvic elevation d. supine-lying hip extension with adduction

Answer 165

c. bridging, pelvic elevation

Question 166

174. A 2-year-old child with Down Syndrome and moderate developmental delay is treated in as early intervention program. Daily training activities that can be considered include: a. rolling activities, initiating movement with stretch and tracking resistance b. stimulation to postural extensors in sitting using rhythmic stabilization c. locomotor training using body weight supports d. holding and weight shifting in sitting and standing using tactile and verbal cueing

Answer 166

d. holding and weight shifting in sitting and standing using tactile and verbal cueing

Question 167

175.A 3-year-old child with spastic cerebral palsy and at a 6-month-old gross developmental level is referred to the clinic. The plan of care would include: a. visually tracking a black and white object held 9 inches, from his/her face b. reaching for a black and white object while in the supine position c. reaching for a multi colored object while in an unsupported standing position d. reaching for a multi-colored object while in an unsupported, guarded sitting position

Answer 167

d. reaching for a multi-colored object while in an unsupported, guarded sitting position

Question 168

176. A PT has been invited to be resource speaker during a workshop for budding athletes on plyometrics. Among the exercises below, what can be included? a. Running downhill b. Skip and hop in all directions c. Walking backwards d. Lateral movement to stabilize knee

Answer 168

b. Skip and hop in all directions

Question 169

177.A PT is performing a cognitive function test on a patient status post stroke. As part of the test: PT examines the patient's abstract ability. Which of these tasks is MOST appropriate? a. discuss how two objecta are similar. b. identify letters or numbers traced on the skin c. copy drawn figures of varying size and shape d. orientation to time, person and place

Answer 169

a. discuss how two objecta are similar.

Question 170

178. The following are characteristics of the right hemisphere of the brain EXCEPT: a. process information in a holistic manner b. hand-eye coordination c. produce written and spoken language d. artistic abilities

Answer 170

c. produce written and spoken language

Question 171

179.A sports PT is tasked to prescreen athletes to identify who are susceptible to heat illness. Which of these elements would be MOST useful to the project? a. flexibility b. height c. percent body fat d. weight

Answer 171

c. percent body fat

Question 172

180.A 36-year-old fast food delivery crew got involved in a motorcycle accident. He sustained an injury to the posterior cord of the brachial plexus. Which muscle would NOT be affected by the injury? a. latissimus dorsi b. infraspinatus c. teres major d. subscapularis

Answer 172

b. infraspinatus

Question 173

181. The use of hyperbaric oxygen in treating chronic dermal wounds is more useful in: a. wounds from insect bites b. arterial insufficiency ulcers c. venous insufficiency ulcers d. burn wounds

Answer 173

b. arterial insufficiency ulcers

Question 174

150.Patient figured in a traction injury to the anterior division of the brachial plexus. PT expected to see weakness of the elbow flexors, wrist flexors and forearm proration. The PT would also expect to find more weakness in: a. wrist extension b. forearm supination c. thumb abduction d. lateral rotation or the shoulder

Answer 174

c. thumb abduction

Question 175

182. The following are Bobath's concepts of muscular weakness, EXCEPT: a. Sensory deficit cannot result in weakness b. Weakness is due to being relatively overcome by spastic antagonistic muscles c. A muscle may be weak only as a prime mover but “strong” whenever an abnormal mass movement pattern occurs d. Soft tissue periarticular contraction can enhance or stimulate weakness

Answer 175

a. Sensory deficit cannot result in weakness

Question 176

183. A short-term goal for a patient with a neurological deficit is as follows: The patient will transfer from tall kneeling to half-kneeling with supervision. This activity is an example of: a. Controlled mobility b. Skill c. Mobility d. Stability

Answer 176

a. Controlled mobility

Question 177

184. Which PNF pattern has the patient “hold” in that part of the range where weakness exists? a. Contract-relax b. Slow reversal c. Rhythmic stabilization d. Approximation

Answer 177

c. Rhythmic stabilization

Question 178

185. A PT measures a patient for a wheelchair. Which measurement technique is used to determine armrest height in a wheelchair? a. Femur-to-radial head distance b. Seat-to-anterior superior iliac spine c. Seat-to-olecranon distance d. Elbow-to-acromion distance

Answer 178

c. Seat-to-olecranon distance

Question 179

186. Crutches for an elderly hip fracture patient might differ from those for a young paraplegic patient of the same height in that: a. They would have suction tips for greater safety b. There would be more padding at the axillary piece c. They would be shorter d. The handpiece would be lower

Answer 179

a. They would have suction tips for greater safety

Question 180

187. A PT is performing a respiratory evaluation including the following tests: respiratory rate, blood pressure, pulse, and measurement of chest expansion. A normal measurement of the difference between the rest period and full expansion over the xiphoid process is: a. 1½ inches b. 1 inch c. 2 inches d. ½ inch

Answer 180

a. 1½ inches

Question 181

188. A PT is performing segmental breathing exercises with a patient following atelectasis. When implementing manual control, the MOST appropriate hand placement to emphasize lingular expansion is: a. Below the clavicle on the anterior chest wall b. On the right side of the chest below the axilla c. Over the posterior aspect of the lower ribs d. On the left side of the chest below the axilla

Answer 181

d. On the left side of the chest below the axilla

Question 182

189. A patient who sustained a CVA a month ago is beginning to demonstrate the ability to produce movement patterns outside the limb synergies. According to Brunnstrom, this is which stage of recovery? a. Fourth b. Fifth c. Third d. Second

Answer 182

a. Fourth

Question 183

190. Criteria that can be used to assess motor learning include all of the following, EXCEPT: a. Ability to remember response-produced augmented feedback b. Resistance to contextual change c. Performance acquisition of a motor task d. Retention/recall of a motor task after a period of no practice

Answer 183

a. Ability to remember response-produced augmented feedback

Question 184

191. A PT teaches a patient in supine to posteriorly tilt the pelvis. The patient has full active and passive range of motion in the upper extremity but cannot do full shoulder flexion while in a posterior pelvic tilt position. What is the BEST explanation for this? a. Latissimus dorsi tightness b. Capsular tightness c. Quadratus lumborum tightness d. Pectoralis minor tightness

Answer 184

a. Latissimus dorsi tightness

Question 185

192. A PT is working on a male inpatient on therapeutic positioning. Due to financial problems, he was referred to PT only recently. The patient has developed significant weakness of the diaphragm and is hypertensive. The MOST appropriate position to initiate treatment is: a. Prone b. Trendelenburg c. Reverse Trendelenburg d. Supine

Answer 185

c. Reverse Trendelenburg

Question 186

193. A PT should have adequate understanding of normal human development to treat effectively and efficiently. Which of the following principles is INCORRECT? a. Early motor activity is influenced primarily by reflexes b. Motor control develops from proximal to distal and from head to toe c. Early motor activity is influenced by spontaneous activity d. Increasing motor ability is independent of motor learning

Answer 186

d. Increasing motor ability is independent of motor learning

Question 187

194. When comparing the gait cycle of young adults with the gait cycle of older adults, the TRUE statement is: a. The younger population has a shorter period of double support b. The younger population has a shorter stride length c. The younger population has a decrease in speed of ambulation

Answer 187

a. The younger population has a shorter period of double support

Question 188

195. ______ is issued to a PT who passes the board examination, after approval of ratings and payment of required fees. a. Diploma from the Board Examiners b. Certificate of Recognition for Passing the Board Examinations c. Certificate of Completion d. Certificate of Registration

Answer 188

d. Certificate of Registration

Question 189

196. For a research study to be ethical, which of the following should take place FIRST? a. The patient should be informed that he has the right to terminate the experiment at any time b. End results of the experiment should be explained to the patient c. Have the patient sign the informed consent document d. The patient should be debriefed following the experiment

Answer 189

c. Have the patient sign the informed consent document

Question 190

197. The CORRECT technique for stretching the iliotibial band is: a. Patient is positioned in sidelying on the uninvolved side. The uppermost thigh is adducted with the hip in 90° flexion b. Patient is positioned in sidelying on the uninvolved side close to the edge of the table. Externally rotate and extend the involved thigh and allow a gravity-assisted stretch c. All of these d. Patient is positioned in hook-lying with the uninvolved leg crossed over the leg to be stretched. The involved leg is adducted with gentle isometric abduction contraction

Answer 190

b. Patient is positioned in sidelying on the uninvolved side close to the edge of the table. Externally rotate and extend the involved thigh and allow a gravity-assisted stretch

Question 191

198. A patient status post medial meniscus repair is referred to PT. The responsibility of the physician post-operatively is to: a. Determine weight-bearing status b. Select an appropriate resistive exercise program c. Specify the frequency and duration of ROM exercises d. Specify the parameters for superficial modality application

Answer 191

a. Determine weight-bearing status

Question 192

199. When doing range of motion exercises with a patient who suffered a head injury, a PT notes that the patient lacks full elbow extension and classifies the end-feel as hard. The MOST LIKELY cause is: a. Anterior capsular tightness b. Triceps weakness c. Heterotopic ossification d. Spasticity of the biceps

Answer 192

c. Heterotopic ossification

Question 193

200. A licensed physical therapist may append the following initials after his/her name: a. RPT b. LPT c. PTRP

Answer 193

c. PTRP

Question 194

201. A 65-year-old former banker with mild dementia is included in a national study testing the efficacy of a new drug to increase memory. The patient’s family reports that he is perky while taking the medication and memory seems to be better. At the conclusion of the study, it is revealed that the patient was part of the control group. These responses are MOST LIKELY due to: a. Hawthorne effect b. Sampling bias c. Placebo effect d. Pretest treatment influence

Answer 194

c. Placebo effect

Question 195

202. At what phase of the gait cycle would a PT expect to notice an everted posture of the calcaneus? a. Terminal stance (heel-off) to pre-swing (toe-off) b. From mid-stance through heel-off c. From initial contact (heel strike) through loading response (foot-flat) d. Initial swing (acceleration) through mid-swing

Answer 195

c. From initial contact (heel strike) through loading response (foot-flat)

Question 196

203. A patient is suffering from complete paralysis of the gluteus maximus. To compensate during the stance phase of gait, the patient will exhibit: a. External tibial torsion at heel strike b. Increased plantarflexion c. A hyperextension of the spine (posterior trunk lean) d. Maintenance of knee flexion

Answer 196

c. A hyperextension of the spine (posterior trunk lean)

Question 197

204. A patient fatigues easily while performing progressive resistive exercises. Which of the following techniques will produce LESS fatigue? a. Oxford b. De Lorme c. Brunnstrom d. Borg

Answer 197

a. Oxford

Question 198

205. Which is NOT a characteristic of isometric exercise? a. Contractions should be held for at least 12 seconds to obtain adaptive changes in the muscle b. Occurs when a muscle contracts without a length change c. Resistance is variable and accommodating d. Strengthening is developed at a point in the range, not over the entire length of the muscle

Answer 198

a. Contractions should be held for at 12 seconds to obtain adaptive changes in the muscle (6-10)

Question 199

206. Which statement about the center of buoyancy should NOT be considered when designing a pool program for a patient who underwent a below-knee amputation? a. In the vertical position, posteriorly placed buoyancy devices will cause the patient to lean backward; anterior buoyancy will cause the patient to lean forward b. A patient with a unilateral lower extremity amputation will lean toward the residual limb side in the vertical position c. During unilateral manual resistance exercises, the patient revolves around the therapist in a circular motion d. In the vertical position, the human center of buoyancy is located at the sternum

Answer 199

a. In the vertical position, posteriorly placed buoyancy devices will cause the patient to lean backward; anterior buoyancy will cause the patient to lean forward

Question 200

207. The major advantage of using a red-glass heat lamp is: a. There is less light glare b. It filters out long infrared rays c. It increases the physiological effects of radiation d. It filters out harmful ultraviolet rays

Answer 200

a. There is less light glare

Question 201

208. A patient has difficulty going down ramps. His knees wobble and are unsteady. The MOST appropriate action is: a. Prolonged icing to reduce hamstring pain b. Progressive resistance training for the quadriceps c. Stretching through a posterior resting splint for tight plantarflexors d. Use of a continuous passive motion machine to maintain range

Answer 201

b. Progressive resistance training for the quadriceps

Question 202

209. The MOST effective energy utilization takes place during which contraction? a. Eccentric b. Isometric c. Concentric d. Isokinetic

Answer 202

a. Eccentric

Question 203

211. A patient recently admitted to a n acute care hospitalis referred to physical therapy. The PT documents the following clinical signs: pallor, cyanosis, and cool skin. These clinical signs are MOST consistent with a . H y p e r t e n s i o n b . Anemia C . Diaphoresis d. Cor pulmonale

Answer 203

b . Anemia

Question 203

212. In electrotherapy, if the peak pulse duration in high voltage generators ranges from 50-100 usec, for low voltage generators it is_______msec A. 6 0 0 - 8 0 0 b . 01-02 с. 900-950 D. 0 3 - 5 0 0

Answer 203

D. 0 3 - 5 0 0

Question 204

213. A PT applies ultraviolet treatment to a female patient who, the day after, complained of peeling and itching. These disappeared after 3 days. The dosage received was a _________ dose. a. Minimal erythemal dose b. First-degree erythemal dose c. Suberythemal dose d. Third-degree erythemal dose

Answer 204

b. First-degree erythemal dose

Question 205

214. A PT applies 3.0 MHz ultrasound at 1.5 w/cm2 to treat a patient with Carpal Tunnel Syndrome. Majority of the ultrasound energy will be absorbed within a depth of c e n t i m e t e r s . A. 4-5 B.1-2 C.5-6 D.2-3

Answer 205

B.1-2

Question 206

215. According to the temperature law of Vant Hoff, for every rise of 10 degrees C the rate of oxidation is increased how many times? a . O n c e b . 2.5 c. 3 d. Twice

Answer 206

b . 2.5

Question 207

216. These statements on reflex heating are TRUE, except: a. It is also termed consensual heating and Landis-Gibbons reflex b. The effect is felt after several hours c. It is useful for patients with circulatory problems such as diabetes or peripheral vascular disease d. The technique involves the application of heat to one area of the body that results in an increase in cutaneous circulation and other reactions in another area

Answer 207

b. The effect is felt after several hours

Question 208

217. A patient who was in cast for 3 weeks after a grade IlI left ankle sprain was referred to PT for mobility exercises. Evaluation shows a loss of 10 degrees of dorsiflexion. The MOST difficult activity for this patient is A. Ambulating barefoot b. Ambulating over rough surfaces С.descending a ramp d. descending stairs

Answer 208

d. descending stairs

Question 209

218. An 82-year-old female i s referred to PT for pain in the left sacroiliac joint. Initial evaluation reveals the following: higher left ASIS than right ASIS, shorter leg length on the left side (measured in supine position) and the left PSIS lower than the right PSIS. In what position should you place patient to perform the correct sacroiliac mobilization of the left innominate? A. Supine B. P r o n e C. N o n e of these. D. Right sidelying.

Answer 209

C. N o n e of these.

Question 210

219. A PT treats a 40-year-old male status post knee surgery. The PT performs goniometric measurements to quantify the extent of the patient's extension lag. Which of the following would not provide a plausible, rationale for t h e extension lag? a . Muscle weakness b. Inhibition by pain C. Patient apprehension D. Bony obstruction

Answer 210

D. Bony obstruction

Question 211

220. A sports PT was conducting evaluation o f female varsity volleyball players. One of them complained of a chronic right knee pain and recurrent effusion. The P T performed an apprehension test and patient immediately grimaced and contracted her quadriceps maximally. The PT would suspect the presence of: a. Condromalacia patella b. internal knee derangement c . recurrent patellar dislocation d. rheumatoid arthritis

Answer 211

c . recurrent patellar dislocation

Question 212

221. During 180 degrees of abduction in the scapulohumeral rhythm, there is roughly a ratio of Movement of the humerus to the scapula a . 2:1 b . 1 : 1 C. 1 : 3 d . 1 : 3

Answer 212

a . 2:1

Question 213

222. When utilizing the Skinfold measurement procedure to check body composition, the following guidelines are followed, EXCEPT: A. Wait one to two seconds before reading the caliper. B. Skinfold calipers should be positioned one centimeter away from the examiner’s fingers when pinching the side. The caliper should be positioned perpendicular to the skinfold and centered between the base and top of the fold. C. Take only one measurement at each site. D. Maintain pinching of the site during the reading of the caliper.

Answer 213

C. Take only one measurement at each site.

Question 214

223. Which test of aerobic capacity is a reliable and valid functional capacity m e a s u r e with r e p o r t e d minimal detectable change scores in patients with heart failure? a . Canadian Aerobic Fitness Step test B. 6 Minute Walk Te s t C . Bruce protocol treadmill test d . Lower extremity e rg o m e t e r test.

Answer 214

B. 6 Minute Walk Te s t

Question 215

224. When reduction of weight transmission through the lower limb is desired, the ideal weight-bearing device is: a. Ischial ring b. Quadrilateral socket c. Patellar tendon bearing d. Any of these

Answer 215

d. Any of these

Question 215

In a normal gait, the stance phase typically occupies approximately __________ percent of the entire gait pattern. a. 40% b. 20% c. 80% d. 60%

Answer 215

d . 60

Question 216

226. Herzberg's Two. Factor Motivation Theory includes which of the following a . responsibility and growth b. advancement and promotion c . longer work hours and increased work load d. satisfies and dissatisfies

Answer 216

d. satisfies and dissatisfies

Question 217

227. If a patient presents with the following symptoms: hoarse wheezes and altered breath sounds and may be clubbing at the fingers, may be short of breath and fatigue and a large quantity if pus-filled sputum that may also contain blood, you will entertain the p r e s e n c e o f a. chronic bronchitis b. emphysema C. asthma D. bronchiectasis

Answer 217

D. bronchiectasis

Question 218

228. The parents of a child with cerebral palsy offers the PT a cash gift. He refuses but family insists saying it is their way of saying thank you for the services he has rendered. The PT'S BEST response is to a. accept money and use it to buy small needs for the PT department b. accept money and use it to set up a feeding p r o g r a m c . decline the gift D .accept money and donate to charity

Answer 218

c . decline the gift

Question 219

229. While doing postural screening for a patient referred for low back pain, PT notices that the knees are in genu recurvatum. The possible contributory postures include A.Forefoot varus and posterior pelvic tilt b . Ankle dorsiflexion and hip abduction C.Lateral tibial torsion and anterior pelvic tilt d. Ankle plantarflexion and anterior pelvic tilt

Answer 219

d. Ankle plantarflexion and anterior pelvic tilt

Question 220

230. A study of a local community population was necessary to determine the need for a Senior's Day care center in the area. The PT performing the study divided the population by sex and selected a random sample from each group. This is an example of what type of sampling? a. stratified random sample b . random cluster sample c . systematic random sample d. two stage cluster sample

Answer 220

a. stratified random sample

Question 221

231. The following are contraindications of traction, EXCEPT: A. Vascular condition B. patients with subacute state of degenerative joint disease C . hypermobility D. local and systemic disease affecting joints, ligaments, bones and muscles such as tumors grand infections

Answer 221

B. patients with subacute state of degenerative joint disease

Question 222

232. World Health-Organization defines this term as abnormalities of anatomical , physiology or psychologic origin within specific organs, or systems of the body. a. functional limitation b. Handicap c. functional disability d . impairment

Answer 222

d . impairment

Question 223

233. A 75-year-old female was referred to PT for a fall risk assessment. Patient fell twice a t home. If patient's timed up and g o (TG4) score is 33 seconds, her fall risk is: a . moderate, based on a mildly abnormal score b . low, based on a mildly abnormal abnormal score c. high, based on an abnormal score d. moderate, based on poor sensory adaptation

Answer 223

c. high, based on an abnormal score

Question 223

A physical therapist (PT) is treating a one-year-old child with Down syndrome at home and has noticed a decrease in strength in the child’s extremities, along with neck pain and limited neck motion. The PT also observed that the upper extremity deep tendon reflexes are 3+. Based on these observations, the PT is considering the following possibilities: a. Lower motor neuron signs consistent with Down Syndrome b. Upper motor neuron signs consistent with Down Syndrome c. Atlanto-axilla subluxation with lemniscal impingement d. Atlanto-axilla subluxation with spinal cord impingement.

Answer 223

d. Atlanto-axilla subluxation with spinal cord impingement

Question 224

235. A PT received a referral for a patient behaving like an autistic child: During evaluation, what is the MOST pertinent factor that can be observed in the patient? A . Defensive when touched B. responsive to most but not all commands C. quiet and did not want to separate from the mother D. delayed in gross motor skills.

Answer 224

A . Defensive when touched

Question 225

236. A 15-year-old grade 10 female was being evaluated for scoliosis. On standing, a right thoracolumbar curve waa present but when seated, the curve disappears. The MOST LIKELY cause of this is a . Short iliopsoas/muscle b. Lumbar facet dysfunction. C. Leg length discrepancy d. Unilaterally weak gluteus medius

Answer 225

C. Leg length discrepancy

Question 226

237. A P T conducts an uPper quarter screening evaluation o f a patient with rotator cuff tendonitis. With the patient sitting, the MOST appropriate technique to facilitate palpation of the rotator cuff is_______ A. Passive abductuon of the humerus b. Passive extension of the humerus c. Active medial and lateral rotation of the humerus d. Active extension and flexion of the elbow

Answer 226

b. Passive extension of the humerus

Question 227

238: The P T manager of a big, rehabilitation center is insistent about conducting a bimonthly meeting to solve the problem of declining productivity. In the meantime, he turns his back on the increased load placed on the already overworked staff. Based on the managerial grid, the BEST classification of this manager is ______ a 9.1 b . 9.9 C. 1.9 d. 5.5

Answer 227

a 9.1

Question 228

239. During an exercise session, the mother of a 15-year- old patient was making inappropriate comments that upset the patient a n d m a d e her lose her cool. The MOST appropriate action for the PT to take is________ A. Ask mother to wait at the reception area B . Give patient a 15-minute break C. Askanother PT to treat the patient D. Discontinue treatment

Answer 228

A. Ask mother to wait at the reception area

Question 229

240. A patient presents with a vague hip pain that radiates to the lateral knee, a negative FABERES test, negative Grind test and a positive Noble's compression test. A possible cause can be: a. irritation of the L5 spinal nerve root b. DJD of the hip C. an iliotibial band friction disorder D. SI joint dysfunction

Answer 229

C. an iliotibial band friction disorder

Question 230

While performing a finger to nose test a patient demonstrates hesitancy in getting started and is then unable to control the movement. The moving finger hits the side of the face and misses the nose completely. These findings are consistent with moderate impairment in a. Response orientation b Dysmetria c. Dyssynergia d. Dysdiadochokinesia

Answer 230

b Dysmetria

Question 231

242. A study was made to determine the need for a new wellness center in the community. The population was divided by sex and random sampling was selected from each group. This is an example of _________ sample. a. random cluster b. stratified random c. two stage cluster d. systematic random

Answer 231

b. stratified random

Question 232

243. The test for the presence peripheral arterial involvement in patient with calf musculature pain is: a. Percussion test b. Homan's sign c. Claudication time d. Blood pressure

Answer 232

c. Claudication time

Question 233

244. A 22-month-old child with Down syndrome and moderate developmental delay is being treated at an early intervention program. Daily training activities that should be considered include ______________. a. Locomotor training using motorized treatment b. Holding and weight shifting in sitting and standing using tactile and verbal cueing C. Rolling activities d. Stimulation to postural extensors in sitting using rhythmic stabilization

Answer 233

b. Holding and weight shifting in sitting and standing using tactile and verbal cueing

Question 234

245. While performing a postural screening for chronic pain, the PT notices excessive internal rotation of the shoulders and winging of the scapula during overhead motion. Treatment should concentrate on strengthening of the: a. Upper trapezius and stretching of pectoral muscles b. Middle and lower trapezius and stretching of pectoral muscles c. Rhomboids and stretching of upper trapezius d. Pectoral muscles and stretching of upper trapezius

Answer 234

b. Middle and lower trapezius and stretching of pectoral muscles

Question 235

246. A patient has chronic pulmonary disease. A contraindication to starting extremity joint mobilization is: a. Reflex muscle guarding b. Long term corticosteroid therapy c. Concurrent inhalation therapy d. Function chest wall immobility

Answer 235

b. Long term corticosteroid therapy

Question 236

247. A 68-year-old male patieńt with a 10-year history of diabetes complains of cramping, pain, fatigue of the left buttock after walking 500 feet or climbing stairs. Pain is relieved during rest. The skin of the involved leg is pale and slightly cold. These symptoms point tỏ: a.Raynaud's phenomenon b. Spinal root impingement c. Peripheral arterial disease d. Peripheral nerve injury

Answer 236

c. Peripheral arterial disease

Question 237

248. A 68-year-old male patient has an irregular dark pigmented ulcer over the medial malleolus. Patient has an irregular dark pigmented ulcer over the medial malleolus. Patient did not complain of pain. These symptoms are cónsistent with an/a ___________. a. Arterial ulcer b. Diabetic ulcer c. venous ulcer d. arterial insufficiency

Answer 237

c. venous ulcer

Question 238

249. A PT attempts to assess the integrity of cranial nerve XI. The test that would provide the PT with desired information is a. Patient reads selected items from a chart b. Patient is asked to identify familiar odors with eyes closed c. Patient performs a shoulder shrug against resistance d. Patient protrudes tongue while PT checks for lateral deviation

Answer 238

c. Patient performs a shoulder shrug against resistance

Question 239

250. Because of the complex vascularity of this artery system, severe impairment can cause locked in syndrome, coma or vegetative state and Wallenberg Syndrome which presents with ipsilateral facial pain, ipsilateral ataxia and vertigo. a. anterior cerebral b. posterior cerebral c. middle cerebral d. vertebral basilar

Answer 239

d. vertebral basilar

Question 240

251. Which of the statements about developmental motor control is NOT TRUE? a. isotonic control develops before isometric control b. gross motor control develops prior to fine motor control c. eccentric movement develops prior to concentric movement d. trunk control develops prior to distal extremity control

Answer 240

a. isotonic control develops before isometric control

Question 241

252. A PT is evaluating a 76-year-old female with chronic forward head posturing in standing and sitting, To decrease the forward beading, the PT should stretch the a. longus capitis and longus colli muscles b. rectus capitis posterior minor and rectus capitis posterior major muscles c. rectus capitis anterior muscles d. middle trapezius and rhomboid muscles

Answer 241

b. rectus capitis posterior minor and rectus capitis posterior major muscles

Question 242

253. A PT is evaluating a 50-year-old male patient who underwent a total knee arthroplasty 2 weeks ago. PT noticed that the entire leg has started swelling. There is pitting edema throughout the lower leg and foot with tenderness in the midcalf. Girth measurement showed a 3.7 increase in the size of the midcalf. What is the NEXT step that the PT should take? a. Call physician after treatment to report result of evaluation b. Send patient to the emergency room right away c. Elevate the affected extremity d. Send patient home with instruction to monitor the affected extremity

Answer 242

b. Send patient to the emergency room right away

Question 243

254. A 60-year-old male patient was referred to PT for an exercise testing after experiencing shortness of breath twice 2 weeks prior to consultation. After monitoring the vital signs, the data collected are interpreted. The BEST indicator that patient had exerted maximal effort is a. Decrease in diastolic BP of mmHg when compared to the resting value b. Rating of 12 on a perceived exertion scale c Failure of the heart rate to increase with further increase in intensity d. Rise in systolic diastolic BP of 50 mmHg when compared to the resting value

Answer 243

c. Failure of the heart rate to increase with further increase in intensity

Question 243

255. A PT checks the water temperature of the hot pack machine after several patients report the heat being very strong. Which of the following temperatures would be acceptable? a. 83 degrees Celsius (181 degrees F) b. 64 degrees Celsius (147 degrees F) c. 94 degrees Celsius (201 degrees F) d. 71 degrees Celsius (160 degrees F)

Answer 243

d. 71 degrees Celsius (160 degrees F)

Question 244

256. Erb's Law states that ________________________ a. All of these b. opening currents are more effective than closing currents in causing normal depolarization c. Cathode currents are more effective than anodal in causing normal depolarization d. Less current is necessary to produce minimum contract

Answer 244

c. Cathode currents are more effective than anodal in causing normal depolarization

Question 245

257. In the reeducation and facilitation of muscles, electrical stimulation is used as a guide to improve proprioceptive and visual sense of the motions and activities being facilitated. When bipolar electrodes are placed over the large muscles or muscle groups, you select the following parameters, EХСЕРТ: a. waveform: symmetrical or asymmetrical biphasic pulses with a duration of 200-500 microseconds b. stimulus amplitude: amplitude adjusted to maximum tolerable contraction c. duty cycle: 1:1 cycle to produce rhythmical muscle contractions d. pulse rate: lesser than 60 pps biphasic pulses to produce tetanic muscle contractions

Answer 245

d. pulse rate: lesser than 60 pps biphasic pulses to produce tetanic muscle contractions

Question 246

258. A 65-year-old with breast cancer underwent a surgical removal of the mass followed by 12 weeks of chemotherapy and 8 weeks of radiation. PT program is directed towards mobilization of her upper extremity. An important guideline to the PT when treating a patient after radiation is a. avoid stretching exercises that pull on the radiated site b. observe infection control procedures c. avoid all aerobic exercises for at least 2 months d. observe skin care precautions

Answer 246

d. observe skin care precautions

Question 247

259. Pulsed ultrasound is applied to a patient diagnosed with rotator cuff tendonitis. The statement about pulsed ultrasound that is MOST consistent when compared with continuous ultrasound is: a. The peak intensity of output for pulsed ultrasound is reduced b. The average intensity of output over time for pulsed ultrasound is reduced c. The peak intensity of output for pulsed ultrasound is increased d. The average intensity of output over time for pulsed ultrasound is increased

Answer 247

b. The average intensity of output over time for pulsed ultrasound is reduced

Question 247

260. A PT employee of a rehabilitation center of a hospital evaluates. a patient showing several signs and symptoms of anemia. Which of these questions would be the MOST useful to gather additional information in relation to anemia? a. Does it hurt to take a deep breath? b. Are you susceptible to bruising? c. Do you frequently experience dizziness, headaches, or blurred vision? d. Do you experience heart palpitations or shortness of breath at rest or with mild exertion?

Answer 247

d. Do you experience heart palpitations or shortness of breath at rest or with mild exertion?

Question 248

261. A patient was referred to PT with fingertips that are rounded and bulbous: The nail plate is more convex than normal. These changes were considered by the PT as indicating a. Trauma to the nail bed b. Inflammation of the proximal and lateral nail folds c. Psoriasis d. Chronic hypoxia from heart disease

Answer 248

d. Chronic hypoxia from heart disease

Question 248

262. Many of the patients seen in physical therapy are susceptible to excessive heat exposure. Heat exhaustion occurs when a person is exposed to more heat than the thermoregulatory mechanisms are capable of controlling. Although it rarely occurs in pure forms, it can be categorized as any of the following EXCEPT ______________ heat exhaustion. a. Exercise-induced (heat syncope) b. Salt exhaustion c. Protein depletion d. Water-depletion

Answer 248

c. Protein depletion

Question 248

263. A patient with a left sided congestive heart failure class II, is referred to PT. while exercising, patient may exhibit a. Weight gain with dependent edema b. Anorexia nausea with abdominal pain and distension c. Severe, uncomfortable chest pain with shortness of breath d. Dyspnea with fatigue and muscular weakness

Answer 248

d. Dyspnea with fatigue and muscular weakness

Question 249

264. A traumatic brain injured patient reports to physical therapy, and feeling lethargic after being placed on phenobarbital. The primary purpose of the medication is to: a. Prevent seizures b. reduce spasticity c. limit arrhythmias d. decrease agitation

Answer 249

a. Prevent seizures

Question 250

265. A post-MI patient is about to begin a phase 3 cardiac rehabilitation program. During the initial exercise session, the patient's ECG responses are monitored via radio telemetry: PT noticed three PVCs occurring in a run with no P wave. PTs next strategy is: a. have the patient sit down and rest for a few minutes before resuming exercise b. stop the exercise and notify the physician immediately c. continue the exercise session, but monitor closely d. modify the exercise prescription by decreasing the intensity

Answer 250

b. stop the exercise and notify the physician immediately

Question 251

266. A 75-year-old frail female is being treated at home for general strengthening and mobility. The patient has a 5-year history of taking non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) such as aspirin for joint pain and recently added calcium channel. The possible adverse reactions/side effects include: hypotension a. weight increase, hyperglycemia, b. stomach pain, bruising, confusion c. paresthesia, incoordination, bradycardia d. increased sweating, fatigue, chest pain

Answer 251

b. stomach pain, bruising, confusion

Question 252

267. To reduce inflammation of the tracheobronchial mucosa in asthma, COPD and sarcoidosis, steroids are often prescribed. Which of these is not a side effect of steroid therapy? a. Increased susceptibility to notion b. decrease in BP c. tachycardia d. Osteoporosis

Answer 252

b. decrease in BР

Question 253

268. An infant is independent in sitting, all protective extension reactions and can pull-to-stand through kneeling, cruise sideways and stand alone. The infant still demonstrates plantar grasp in standing. The infant's chronological age is _______ months. a. 5 b. 8-9 с. 10-15 d. 6

Answer 253

b. 8-9

Question 254

269. An infant who was thirty-three weeks of gestation age at birth and is now 3 weeks of chronological age would BEST respond to a. Neutral warmth b. Fast vestibular c. Visual stimulation with a colored object d. Vibration

Answer 254

a. Neutral warmth

Question 255

270. If a child exhibits emerging hand dominance, has crude release, can seat self in chair and walk backwards, he is old. a. 2 years b. 10 months c. 14 months d. 18 months

Answer 255

d. 18 months

Question 256

271. Which test is done when a Pl suspects an unreduced anterior shoulder dislocation? The patient is asked to place the hand on the opposite shoulder and then attempts to lower the elbow to the chest. a. Sulcus sign b. Feagin test c. Protzman d. Dugas

Answer 256

d. Dugas

Question 257

272. A test to determine if there are loose bodies in the knee joint is called a. McMurray's test b. patello-femoral test c. valgus / varus stress test d. Apley's tests

Answer 257

a. McMurray’s test

Question 258

273. A positive Kleiger's test indicates a. deltoid ligament tear b. Achilles tendon rupture c. flatfoot d. tibiotalar dislocation

Answer 258

a. deltoid ligament tear

Question 258

274. A PT is treating a patient with a behavior pattern involving his speech. There is absence of spontaneous speech but prompt repetition of your words. The type of aphasia MOST LIKELY present in this patient is a. transcortical motor b. transcortical sensory c. conduction d. Wernicke's

Answer 258

a. transcortical motor

Question 259

275. Choose a form of resistance seen during range of motion of a hypertonic joint where there is greatest resistance at the initiation of range that lessens with movement through the range of motion. a. Clasp-knife response b. Hemiballism c. Clonus d. Cogwheel rigidity

Answer 259

a. Clasp-knife response

Question 260

276. A patient who has been diabetic for more than 20 years have vascular insufficiency and diminished sensation of both feet with poor healing of a superficial skin lesion. It is essential that the patient understand the precautions and guidelines on foot care. Which of these is a CONTRAINDICATION to diabetic care? a. Wash feet daily and hydrate with moisturizing lotion b. Inspect skin daily for inflammation, swelling, redness, blisters or wounds c. Do daily hot soaks d. Wear flexible shoes that allow adequate room and change shoes frequently

Answer 260

c. Do daily hot soaks

Question 261

277. A PT is preparing a 45-year-old female patient for treatment. The latter asked if she could go to the comfort room. Wondering why patient has not returned to the treatment area after several minutes, PT checked and found patient slumped on the floor face down. The appropriate course of action the PT should take is: a. check level of response, call for help, establish airway and assess breathing b. check level of response, call for help, assess breathing and establish airway c. call for help, check level of response, assess breathing and establish airway d. call for help, check level of response, establish airway and assess breathing

Answer 261

a. check level of response, call for help, establish airway and assess breathing

Question 262

278. A 63-year-old male CVA patient was applied functional electrical stimulation on the affected ankle dorsiflexors in conjunction with her gait training program. The rationale for the application of FES for this case is a. to promote substituting actions b. all of these c. used as an orthotic device d. to delay muscle atrophy

Answer 262

c. used as an orthotic device

Question 263

279. On initial standing, a patient with a chronic stroke is pushing strongly backward, displacing the center of mass at or near the posterior limits of stability. The MOST LIKELY cause of this is a. contraction of the hip extensors b. contracture of the hamstrings c. spasticity of the tibialis anterior d. spasticity of the gastrocnemius soleus

Answer 263

d. spasticity of the gastrocnemius soleus

Question 264

280. The following impairments may result in patients with a lesion in the temporal lobe of the brain, EXCEPT a. emotional liability b. difficulty with memory loss c. Wernicke's aphasia d. learning deficits

Answer 264

a. emotional liability

Question 265

281. A newborn with whole arm paralysis resulting from a traction injury at birth was referred to physical therapy. The initial plan of care for the patient should include: a. passive mobilization of the shoulder in overhead motions b. age-appropriate task training of the upper extremity c. splinting the shoulder in abduction and internal rotation d. partial immobilization of the limb across the abdomen, followed by gentle ROM after immobilization

Answer 265

d. partial immobilization of the limb across the abdomen, followed by gentle ROM after immobilization

Question 266

282. A 65-year-old male with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease was referred to PT. Pulmonary testing reveals that forced Expiratory Volume in 1: second (FEV1) and vital capacity (VC) are within 60 percent of predicted values. What is the correct exercise prescription? a. exercise at 75-80 percent of the target heart rate, 7 times per week b. exercise at 75-80 percent of the target heart rate, 3 times per week c. begin exercise with levels of 1.5 METS and increase slowly, 7 times per week d. begin exercise with levels of 1.5 METS and exercise slowly, 3 times per week

Answer 266

c. begin exercise with levels of 1.5 METS and increase slowly, 7 times per week

Question 267

283. A female patient with a 10-year history of scleroderma is referred to PT to improve function and endurance. She was recently treated with corticosteroids for a bout of myositis. Evaluation shows limited ROM and fibrotic soft tissue with hyperesthesia. The MOST essential strategy in the beginning is a. Treadmill walking with body weight support at intensity 40 percent HR max b. Closed-chain and modified aerobic step exercises c. Soft tissue mobilization and stretching d. AROM exercises and walking in the pool

Answer 267

d. AROM exercises and walking in the pool

Question 268

284. A postpartum patient with stress incontinence is referred to the clinic for pelvic floor exercises. During the beginning of the exercise program, the BEST technique should include a. Supine, squeeze the spincters and hold for 3 seconds b. Hooklying, bridge and hold for 5 seconds c. Supine, squeeze sphincters and hold for 10 seconds d. Sitting in toilet bowl, stop and hold the flow for 5 seconds

Answer 268

d. Sitting in toilet bowl, stop and hold the flow for 5 seconds

Question 269

285. The recommended time duration for endotracheal suctioning is _______ seconds. a. 10 - 15 b. 1-5 c. 5 - 10 d. 15 - 20

Answer 269

a. 10 - 15

Question 270

286. A patient is not able to take in enough supply of nutrients by mouth because of the side effects of radiation therapy. Because of this, the physician ordered the implementation of tube feeding. What type of tube is MOST commonly used for short term feeding? a. Endotracheal b. Endobronchial c. Nasogastric d. Tracheostomy

Answer 270

c. Nasogastric

Question 271

287. Republic Act 5680 mandates that the Board of PT-OT should be composed of a. A PT as Chairman, 2 Physiatrists and 2 OTS b. A PT as Chairman, 1 Physiatrist and 1 OT c. A Physiatrist as chairman, 1 PT and 1 OT d. A Physiatrist as Chairman, 2 PTS and 2 OTS

Answer 271

d. A Physiatrist as Chairman, 2 PTS and 2 OTS

Question 272

288. Schematic drawings on the construction of a PT department should include a. All of these b. Actual size of each department section c. Arrangement of various major elements of the department depicting an orderly traffic flow in the department d. Very detailed arrangement of the fixed and non-fixed equipment

Answer 272

c. Arrangement of various major elements of the department depicting an orderly traffic flow in the department

Question 273

289. What is the test for anterior meniscus pathology and also termed the "tenderness displacement test"? a. Apley's b. Steinmann's c. McMurray's d. Lachman's

Answer 273

b. Steinmann's

Question 274

290. This is a tool to asses and treat balance dysfunction but does not assist to diagnose the cause of balance dysfunction. It consists of eight test conditions used in the battery with each leg measured on two counts, the time spent in each test position and the number of steps that a patient are performed. a. Functional Reach b. Berg Balance Scale c. Fugl Meyer Sensory Assessment d. Fregley Graybiel Ataxia Test Battery

Answer 274

d. Fregley Graybiel Ataxia Test Battery

Question 275

291. The functional outcome reporting method of writing notes must be a. meaningful, quantifiable, sustainable b. sustainable, simple, quantifiable c. meaningful, utilitarian, sustainable d. utilitarian, meaningful, quantifiable

Answer 275

c. meaningful, utilitarian, sustainable

Question 276

292. This is a test for epicondylitis where patient is positioned in sitting. The therapist palpates the lateral epicondyle, pronates the patient's forearm, flexes the wrist and extends the elbow. A positive test is indicated by pain in the lateral epicondyle region and may be indicative of lateral epicondylitis. a. Mill's b. Lateral epicondylitis test c. Medial epicondylitis test d. Cozen's

Answer 276

a. Mill's

Question 277

293. This is a test associated with a pars interarticularis stress fracture or spondylolisthesis. The patient stands on one leg and extends the spine while balancing on the left. The test is repeated with the patient standing on the opposite leg. A positive test is indicated by pain in the back. a. Segmental instability b. Stork standing c. Pheasant d. Quadrant

Answer 277

b. Stork standing

Question 278

294. A 58-year-old female is recovering from a surgical resection of an acoustic neuroma and presents with symptoms of dizziness, vertigo, horizontal nystagmus and postural instability. To manage these problems, the program should include: a. strengthening exercises focusing on spinal extensors b. repetition of movements and positions that provoke dizziness and vertigo c. Hallpike's exercises to improve speed in movement transitions d. prolonged bedrest to allow vestibular recovery to occur

Answer 278

b. repetition of movements and positions that provoke dizziness and vertigo

Question 279

295. What is the FIRST step in controlling organizational behavior in a PT Department? a. establish system of measuring performance b. develop system of review c. determine types of jobs and skills needed d. monitor performance and provide feedback

Answer 279

c. determine types of jobs and skills needed

Question 280

296. PT is conducting an exercise class for geriatrics. Below, which would be of LEAST benefit among the exercises the participant? a. active neck extension b. active stretching of the pectoral muscles c. active neck flexion d. active hip extension

Answer 280

c. active neck flexion

Question 281

297. Froment's sign is a test used to determine function of the: a. ulnar b. axillary c. median d. Radial

Answer 281

a. ulnar

Question 282

298. PT was referred a patient with vague hip pain that radiates to the lateral knee. The findings include: negative FABERE test, negative grind test and a positive Noble's compression test. These test results MOST LIKELY point to: a. DJD of the hip b. irritation of the L5 spinal nerve root c. an iliotibial band friction disorder d. SI joint dysfunction

Answer 282

c. an iliotibial band friction disorder

Question 283

299. A 75-year-old male patient with persistent balance difficulty and a history of recent falls (2 in the past month) is referred for evaluation and management. During the initial session, it is important to examine the: a. level of dyspnea during functional transfers b. sensory losses and sensory organization of balance c. spinal musculoskeletal changes secondary to degenerative joint disease (DJD) d. cardiovascular endurance during a 5-minute walking test

Answer 283

b. sensory losses and sensory organization of balance

Question 284

300. A 64-year-old female patient who underwent a minimally invasive total knee replacement was referred to PT. The referring physician stated in the chart that patient ha stage 1 Alzheimer's disease. The PT will therefore NOT expect to find: a. memory loss b. anxiety and irritability c. cannot concentrate d. profound communication deficits

Answer 284

d. profound communication deficits

Question 285

210. A patient can only reach 60° of passive straight leg raise. To improve ROM, the hold–relax technique should be applied to the: a. Adductors and hip extensors b. Quadriceps and hip flexors c. Abductors and hip flexors d. Hamstrings and hip extensors

Answer 285

d. Hamstrings and hip extensors