NU212 > Question Trainer 5 > Flashcards

Question Trainer 5 Flashcards

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1
Q

What is the purpose of imaging studies when a dislocation is suspected?

A

To assess the presence & extent of dislocation

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2
Q

What is the purpose of an abduction wedge foam pillow?

A

Prevents dislocation of the hip joint by separating the legs and maintaining proper alignment

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3
Q

What are some normal, expected alcohol withdrawal symptoms?

A

Mild tremors, irritability, stomach distress, insomnia

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4
Q

What does a steady increase in vital signs indicate in an alcohol withdrawal patient?

A

The approaching of delirium tremens

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5
Q

Low risk drinking guidelines?

A

Men = 2 drinks or less/day
Women = 1 drink or less/day
Men & Women over 65 = 1 drink or less/day

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6
Q

Levothyroxine mechanism of action

A

stimulates basal metabolic rate

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7
Q

Pharmacological class of Cimetidine

A

H2 receptor antagonist

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8
Q

How does H2 receptor antagonists work?

A

They inhibit gastric acid secretion & decreased total pepsin output

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9
Q

Client education for H2 receptor antagonist

A

Avoid antacids within 1 hr of this meds

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10
Q

True or false: Cimetidine can increase serum creatinine levels.

A

true

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11
Q

What kind of breathing is to be used when pt is entering the transition phase of the 1st stage of labor?

A

Shallow respirations during contractions

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12
Q

How to prevent dislocation when ambulating after hip replacement surgery?

A

Pivot on the unaffected side if not fully weight bearing. Use a high chair.

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13
Q

Why would SCDs be contraindicated in DVT?

A

Risk for embolus

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14
Q

VTE treatments

A

bedrest until prescriptions received & elevate extremity

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15
Q

What causes venous insufficiency?

A

inadequate closing of the valves in the veins

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16
Q

S&S of venous insufficiency

A

Edema
Cool, brown skin
Ulcers & pain
Normal/decreased pulses

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17
Q

When is turn, cough, deep breathe contraindicated?

A

Brain surgery, spinal surgery, eye surgery

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18
Q

What are some important nutrition to have post surgery?

A

Increased protein, calories, and vitamin C

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19
Q

What is the purpose of ballottement test?

A

Confirms the presence of effusion in the knee.

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20
Q

How much fluid is expected to drain from cholecystectomy initially?

A

Usually 500ml-1000m/day, but decreases as fluid begins to drain into duodenum

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21
Q

Where must be the position of the T tube?

A

below the client’s waist & clamped 1hr before & after meals

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22
Q

Why might pt feel pain in the shoulder area after a lap cholecystectomy?

A

Due to migration of CO2 used to insufflate abdomen

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23
Q

What are some concerns due to magnesium sulfate in newborns?

A

Slowing of respirations & hyporeflexia

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24
Q

Salmonellosis

A

Food borne illness

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25
Salmonellosis onset
1-3 days
26
Indications of salmonellosis
N/V, diarrhea, abdominal cramps, fever chills
27
Lead poisoning indications
irritability, sleepiness, N/V, abd pain, IICP, decreased activity, constipation/diarrhea, hematologic/kidney/CNS effects
28
What are 3 main things that can be resulted from lead poisoning in children?
developmental delays, anemia, and cognitive deficiencies
29
Lead levels above what requires chelation therapy?
greater than 45 mcg/dl
30
Why must a NTG patch be removed before an MRI?
It contains heat-conducting aluminized layer and can cause burning of the skin
31
Indications of pylori stenosis
projectile vomiting, weight loss, diminished stools, palpable olive-shaped mass in epigastrium
32
Cyclobenzaprine common side effects
fatigue, heartburn
33
Characteristic of trigeminal neuralgia
Intense facial pain along the nerve tract
34
What Cranial nerve does trigeminal neuralgia affect?
CN 5
35
Common enoxaparin dosage for DVT
1mg/kg
36
How does elevating the feet help with DVT?
promotes venous return & decreases chance of clot formation
37
Raynaud's syndrome can manifest as cold hands and feet. What causes that?
In this syndrome, there is small vessel spasms leading to reduced blood flow.
38
True or false: Client's with RA experience Raynaud's syndrome
true
39
What is Schilling test used for?
Pernicious anemia
40
Normal result for Schilling test
over 10% of dose is excreted in 24 hrs
41
What is a significant manifestation of anemia?
The reduced RBC or HGB lowers the body's oxygen carrying capacity
42
True or False: Severe muscle weakness is seen with hypercalcemia
True
43
For a stem cell transplant, what % chance is there that a full sibling will be a 100% HLA identical match?
Only 25%
44
What is leukemia?
Cancer of blood forming tissue like bone marrow, spleen, lymph nodes
45
What is chronic lymphocytic leukemia?
Increased production of blast cells causing bone marrow to enlarge into the bone. can see spleen & liver enlargement as well
46
Which side should canes be held in?
Canes should be held in the unaffected or stronger side. The cane & affected leg move together.
47
Hypoparathyroidism effect on calcium & phosphate
Low PTH causes hypocalcemia from reduced bone resorption & hyperphosphatemia due to decreased excretion
48
Treatment for hypoparathyroidism
Calcitrol (0.5-2mg/daily), Ergocalciferol (50k-400k unit/daily), Calcium chloride/gluconate over 10-15 mins for emergency care
49
hypoparathyroidism s&s
tenaty muscular irritability carpopedal spasm parethesia laryngeal spasm tachycardia Positive Chvostek & Trousseau's signs
50
What is the action of alpha-adrenergic antagonist?
Block acetylcholine
51
What effect does alpha-adrenergic antagonist have?
arteriole vasodilation & decreased contraction of bladder smooth muscles
52
Adverse reactions of alpha-adrenergic antagonist
Orthostatic hypotension reflex tachycardia nasal congestion impotence
53
Alfuzosin therapeutic class
urinary tract antispasmodic used for BPH
54
Carvedilol action
decrease BP, HR, and contractility
55
Carvedilol adverse effects
peripheral edema
56
Prazosin can cause 1st dose syncope. When do you administer the 1st dose?
Bedtime
57
When are beta blockers considered cardio-selective?
Beta blockers are considered cardio-selective if they have an affinity for beta-1 receptors
58
Beta- adrenergic antagonist actions
- block NE - decrease HR & contractility - constricts bronchioles (unless cardioselective)
59
Beta- adrenergic antagonist adverse effects
bradycardia, dizziness, fatigue, postural hypotension, HF
60
What does atenolol do?
Decreases cardiac contractility & output, decrease O2 consumption & renin secretion
61
Propranolol action
Non-cardioselective blockage of sympathetic impulse to heart
62
Uses of propranolol
HTN, dysrhythmia, angina
63
Adverse effects of propranolol
psychological depression, confusion, gastric pain, impotence, vivid dreams & visual hallucinations
64
Propranolol contraindications
COPD & asthma
65
True or false: verify metoprolol when giving IV
True
66
Mantoux test induration of 5 mm or more is considered positive for which populations?
HIV, recent contact with a TB patient, chest x-ray consistent with prior TB, Organ transplant, Immunosuppressant (taking prednisone >15mg/day for month or longer), children less than 4 yr old
67
Where is PPD administered?
ventral aspect of forearm
68
Anterior fontanelles close when?
about 18 months age
69
Purpose of hydroxyprogesterone caproate
Help to lower risk of preterm birth
70
What does lecithin/sphingomyelin (L/S) ratio test do?
Detects presence of pulmonary surfactant to test for maturity of fetal lungs
71
L/S ratio for mature lungs
2:1
72
What is considered a reactive NST?
2 or more FHR accelerations of 15beats/min lasting 15 sec over a 2 min interval before returning to baseline
73
Superficial burns (1st degree)
epidermis affected, blaches with pressure. painful, red, dry, minimal edema. Ex: sunburn, flash burns
74
Superficial partial thickness burns (2nd degree)
Epidermis affected & can reach up to 1/3 dermis, intact blood supply. painful, red exudes fluid, edema, blisters. Ex: scalds, flames, brief contact w/ hot objects
75
Deep partial thickness burns (2nd degree)
Epidermis affected deeper than 1/3 of dermis. painful. red/white, moderate edema, rare blisters. Ex: scalds, flames, grease, chemicals, prolonged contact with hot objects
76
Full thickness burns (3rd degree)
Total destruction of epidermis & dermis. Decreased blood flow due to eschar. Painless, varied in color, dry, leathery, edema. Ex: electric shock, extensive contact with hot objects, chemicals, grease, flames, scalds
77
Deep thickness burns (4th degree)
Deep wounds to muscle/bone. Black, no pain/edema, possible for shock, amputation, or grafting. Ex: extensive contact with electric or other burning situations
78
First responding interventions for burns
cool the burn by applying water or clothing covering burn. Irrigate chemical burns. Assess ABCs.
79
Nutritional need for burns
Increase protein need by 2-4 times. Increase calorie intake by 3-5 times. Require large amounts of fluid, electrolytes, and protein
80
When does the fluctuation of the fluid in a water seal chamber stop re chest tube?
It stops with the re-expansion of the lung. Confirm lung re-expansion with x-ray.
81
What level should the water be in a water seal chamber?
2ml to maintain negative pressure
82
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