1
Q
1.Open node or dangle activities are required on all schedules?
a. a.True, it is logical to have activities without successors or
predecessors (except for start/end) on any schedule
b. b.False, it is not logical to have activities without
successors or predecessors on any schedule (except for start/end
activities)
c. c.True, it is not logical to have activities without
successors or predecessors (except for start/end) on any schedule
d. d.True, it is not logical to have activities without
successors or predecessors (except for start/end) on any schedule
A
b.False, it is not logical to have activities without
successors or predecessors on any schedule (except for start/end
activities)
2
Q
- References against which the project is monitored and controlled is called:
a. a.CPM Update
b. b.Bar chart update
c. c.Estimate revision
d. d.Baseline
A
Baseline
3
Q
- Leadtime refers to the amount of time required by vendors to deliver
materials to the subcontractor. T/F?
a. True
b. False
A
False
4
Q
- On the critical path, early start and late start dates must be?
a. a.The same
b. b.Different
A
The same
5
Q
- Task A takes three days, Task B takes 4 days, Task C takes 6 days, Task D takes 2
days. Task A is the start activity, Task B is dependent on Task A, Task C and D are
dependent on Task B.
What is the critical path duration?
a. a.9
b. b.15
c. c.13
d. d.8
A
13
6
Q
- The amount of time you can delay a critical path activity without delaying the end
date or any follow on activity is ________.
a. a.0 days
b. b.1 day
c. c.2 days
d. d.3 days
A
0 Days
7
Q
- Task A is start. Task E is end. Task B, C, and D are dependent on Task A. Task C
is dependent on task B and Task D is dependent on Task C. Which activities are on the
critical path?
a. a.A,C,E
b. b.A,B,C,E
c. c.A,B,E
d. d.A,B,C,D,E
A
A,B,C,D,E
8
Q
- Task A is the start of the project. Task B, C, D and E all start after Task A. Task F
start is dependent on Tasks D and E, Task G is dependent on C, Task C is also
dependent on completion of Task F. All activities take one day.
What is the critical path task list?
A
A,D,E,F,C,G
9
Q
- The baseline schedule or target should be maintained in order to analyze the
a. a.Variance in progress of a project
b. b.Float time in the current schedule
c. c.Critical path
d. d.Correlative effect of the “leach” factor
A
Variance in progress of a project
10
Q
- The amount of time you can delay an activity before it delays a follow on
(successor) activity is called _______________.
a. a.Total Float
b. b.Free Float
c. c.Negative Total Float
d. d.Negative Free Float
A
Free Float
11
Q
12. The amount of time you can delay an activity on any path without delaying the scheduled end date is called \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_. a. a.Negative Total Float b. b.Free Float c. c.Negative Free Float d. d.Total Float
A
Total Float
12
Q
- The following activities with durations comprise a critical path:
Excavate 10 days, Form 2 days, Rebar 3 days, Pour 1 day, Cure 28 days, Strip 1 day.
What day can you begin to backfill?
a. a.Day 28
b. b.Day 45
c. c.Day 46
d. d.Day 16
A
Day 46
13
Q
- The following critical activities and their costs include:
Activity A, six days, $3,000. Activity B, one day, $10,000. Activity C, ten days, $1,000.
Activity D, three days ,$2,500.
Which critical activity should be reviewed first for crashing?
a. a.Activity A
b. b.Activity B
c. c.Activity C
d. d.Activity D
A
Activity C
14
Q
- How should the nodes on a logic network be numbered?
a. Consecutively
b. The preceding node is greater than the following node
c. Separated by a minimum of five numbers
d. The following node is greater than the concurrent node
A
Separated by a minimum of five numbers
15
Q
19. Leadtimes are used to determine the estimated time durations for what type of activities? a. Design Activities b. Procurement Activities c. Construction Activities d. Project Closeout Activities
A
Procurement Activities
16
Q
- An activity on a non critical path has a total float of 16 days and a duration of 5
days. The start of the activity is delayed by delivery of material for 12 days. A worker
shortage makes the activity take 12 days. How far behind the original critical path
schedule are you?
a. a.0 days
b. b.3 days
c. c.4 days ahead
d. d.4 days
A
3 days
17
Q
- An event is a _____________ activity?
a. a.Critical
b. b.Zero duration
c. c.Floating
A
Zero duration
18
Q
- How is Free Float defined?
a. The amount of slack between acrtivities
b. The amount of slack in a node
c. The amount of slack within a path (series) of activities
d. The amount of slack accumulated throughout the logic network
A
The amount of slack between acrtivities
19
Q
- What is the name of the term called for shortening a logic network?
a. Timed scaled networking
b. Resource Leveling
c. Fast tracking
d. Crashing
A
Crashing
20
Q
- Free Float of the predecessor activity is equal to the late start
of the successor activity minus the early finish of the predecessor
activity. T/F?
a. True
b. False
A
False
21
Q
- A scheduling situation that restricts the flow of resources on a project is called a?
a. a.Arrow on activity
b. b.Constraint
c. c.PERT
d. d.Bar Chart
A
Constraint
22
Q
A situation that tends (or actually) controls the schedule. If you are short of trade labor, this shortage is a: a. a.Resource b. b.Constraint c. c.Event d. d.Milestone
A
Constraint
23
Q
In analyzing the durations and dates for a critical path schedule, backwards
passes are used to:
a. a.Determine early start dates
b. b.Determine late start dates
A
Determine late start dates
24
Q
In crashing a schedule, which activities are selected to focus on.
a. a.Most cost critical activities
b. b.Non critical activities with least cost
c. c.Non critical activities with most cost
d. d.Least cost, critical path activities
A
Least cost, critical path activities
25
If activity A takes three days and Activity B takes 6 days and they can be
performed simultaneously, but must be completed before Activity C can start, how long
can you delay the start of activity A?
a. a.0 days
b. b.6 days
c. c.9 days
d. d.3 days
.3 days
26
```
If an activity can be delayed five days without delaying the follow on activity
what is this called?
a. a.Five days of total float
b. b.Total float
c. c.Five days of free float
d. d.Five days of negative float
```
Five days of free float
27
What is the primary reason that the courts disfavor a Bar Chart?
a. It doesn't look like a Gannt Chart
b. It displays the activities time scaled
c. It does not show the activity descriptions
d. It does not display the interrelationship of activities or the
activity floats
e. It displays the interrelationship of activities or the float
within activities
It does not display the interrelationship of activities or the
activity floats
28
How is the term fast tracking defined in construction?
a. Finalizing the design and procurement before construction
begins
b. Overlapping execution of the construction activities
c. Overlapping execution of the design, procurement and
construction
d. Planning and Scheduling the design
Overlapping execution of the design, procurement and
| construction
29
Activity on Arrow (AOA) diagrams require dummy (dotted) arrows to
show all logic. T/F
True
30
```
What types of activities are considered first when shortening the
length of a project?
a. High floats and highest costs
b. Highest floats and least cost
c. Zero float and least cost
d. Zero float and highest costs
```
Zero float and least cost
31
For a Design-Build Schedule to be admissible evidence in court, it
must contain the Design Activity Sequence, Procurement Activity
Sequence and the Construction Activity sequence. Which of the following
must also be on the preliminary schedule?
a. A bar-chart with owner-furnished items and planned weather
losses each month
b. A time scaled with owner-furnished items and planned weather
losses at the end
c. A bar-chart with planned versus as-built activities, sequence
changes & all delays
d. A time scaled with owner-furnished items and planned weather
losses each month
A time scaled with owner-furnished items and planned weather
| losses each month
32
What is the name of the term for shifting the activities within
their available free floats in order to produce a uniform work force
and reduce the maximum resource usage requirements?
a. Crashing
b. Crew Utilization
c. Time scaled Networking
d. Resource Leveling
Resource Leveling
33
How is Total Float defined?
a. The amount of slack within a path (series) of activities
b. The amount of slack in a node
c. The amount of slack within an activity
d. The amount of slack accumulated throughout the logic network
The amount of slack within a path (series) of activities
34
Which of the following is the proper Procurement Activity Sequence
that is used for every Vendor or Supplier ( such as Rebar, Structural Steel and Sheet
Metal) on a
Design/Build logic network according to acceptable legal practices?
a. Design, Procurement, and Construction
b. Order and Deliver Materials, Place Forms, Place Rebar, Pour
Concrete, and Strip Forms
c. Award Vendor Contract, Vendor Prepares Shop Drawings,
Contractor Reviews Shops, A/E Reviews Shops, Vendor Fabricates
and Delivers
d. Prepare Design Plans, Award Vendor Contract, A/E Approves
Design, Order Materials, Fabricate, A/E Approves Shop Drawings,
Contractor Approves Shop Drawings, Vendor Delivers Materials
Award Vendor Contract, Vendor Prepares Shop Drawings,
Contractor Reviews Shops, A/E Reviews Shops, Vendor Fabricates
and Delivers
35
The labor budget of $35,000.00 is for 350
units of work. The work is bid at $35 per hour total
labor cost. What is the unit resource cost for the
work in labor ?
a. a.2.86 hours per unit
b. b.35 hours per unit
c. c.$100 hours per unit
d. d.$35 hours per unit
```
2.86 hours per unit
𝟑𝟓𝟎𝟎𝟎
𝟑𝟓
= 𝟏𝟎𝟎𝟎
𝟏𝟎𝟎𝟎
𝟑𝟓𝟎
=. 𝟐𝟖𝟔 𝒙 𝟏𝟎𝟎 = 𝟐. 𝟖𝟔
Total dollars divided by $/hour =
total hours
Total hours divided by total units =
hours per unit
```
36
The Remote Resort project has been delayed by unusual rain and road closures.
The rain and road closures in the area normally last for 10 days per year. Your firm
experiences thirty days of closures during the one year project. You are fifteen days
late on substantial completion. The liquidated damages are $1,000 per day. The client
is withholding $30,000 for late completion. In your humble opinion what is the client entitled to in liquidated damages?
a. a.$30,000.00
b. b.$15,000.00
c. c.$10,000.00
d. d.$0.00
0
37
The contract calls for 3011 units. The budget for the work (without overhead or
profit) is $7,200.00 To date 412 units have been installed at a cost of $1,250. What is
the unit cost to date and the expected profit/loss on this unit?
a. a.$2.39, no loss
b. b.$1.75, $1935 more profit
c. c.$3.03, $1935 more profit
d. d.$3.03, $1935 less profit
$3.03, $1935 less profit
38
The labor budget is $33,343 for 2000 cyds of hand excavation. One laborer can
excavate 4 cubic yards per hour and costs $25 per hour. You can do the work with a
machine and one operator. The cost is $400/ 8 hour day for the machine and the
laborer, and the productivity is 25 yards per hour. How much more money will you
make if you use a machine in lieu of the labor?
a. a.$12,500.00
b. b.$4,000.00
c. c.$8,500.00
d. d.$29,343.00
c.$8,500.00
39
What is a good practice for break down and presentation of a building schedule
of values?
a. a.Front end load the work
b. b.Use CSI Codes on the AIA G702 and G703 forms
c. c.Make the list confusing for the clients
d. d.Make custom forms for every project
Use CSI Codes on the AIA G702 and G703 forms
40
What is the AIA form for application of payment?
a. a.A702 and 703
b. b.A201 and 202
c. c.G702 and G703
d. d.A101 and 102
G702 and G703
41
The size of the WBS should generally not exceed _______elements.
a. a.500-1000 elements
b. b.10-20 elements
c. c.5-10 elements
d. d.100-200 elements
100-200 elements
42
Which document is used to request payment for materials?
a. Invoice
b. Bill of Lading
c. Purchase Order
d. None of the above
Invoice
43
```
The WBS should be up to ______ levels deep and each level should be
______ elements broad.
a.1-2, 3-4
b. b.3-4; 5-9
c. c.5-9; 10-15
d. d.200-300; 200-300
```
3-4; 5-9
44
Accelerating a schedule by shortening the duration of the lowest cost activities on
the critical path. The lowest cost installation activities are chosen because even if you
double the cost of the activity it is the least cost method of acceleration. Least cost
activities usually have the fewest expendable resources such as trade hours. This
activity is called:
a. a.Accelerating
b. b.Paralleling
c. c.Compression
d. d.Crashing
Crashing
45
What is the following a definition of?
"Concept of relating future cash inflows and outflows over the life of a project or
operation to a common base value thereby allowing more validity to comparison of
projects with different durations and rates of cash flow."
a. a.Discounted cash flow
b. b.Cash flow
c. c.Net present worth
d. d.Earned value
Discounted cash flow
46
```
What is the normal process used by owners to assure that the work is not
overpaid?
a. a.Waivers
b. b.Schedule of Values
c. c.Retainage
d. d.Notice of Liens
```
Retainage
47
Activity A is start (0 duration). Activity H is end (0 duration). Activity B is
dependent on A and takes three days. Activity C is dependent on B and takes 9 days.
Activity D is dependent on C and takes 3 days. Activity E is dependent on A and takes 6
days. Activity F is dependent on E and takes 5 days. Activity G is dependent on C and F
and takes 4 days. Activity H takes 0 days and is dependent on D and G.
How long is the critical path?
a. a.15 days
b. b.12 days
c. c.26 days
d. d.16 days
16 days
48
Activity A is start (0 duration). Activity H is end (0 duration). Activity B is
dependent on A and takes three days. Activity C is dependent on B and takes 9 days.
Activity D is dependent on C and takes 3 days. Activity E is dependent on A and takes 6
days. Activity F is dependent on E and takes 5 days. Activity G is dependent on C and F
and takes 4 days. Activity H takes 0 days and is dependent on D and G. How many
days of free and total float does Activity F have?
a. a.0
b. b.2
c. c.4
d. d.5
4
49
Accelerating a schedule by shortening the duration of the lowest cost activities
on the critical path is called __________?
a. a.PERT
b. b.Crashing
c. c.CPM
d. d.BCWS
Crashing
50
```
Activity A has two days of free float and two days of total float. Activity A is
_____________.
a. a.a non-critical activity
b. b.a negative float item
c. c.on the critical path
d. d.a dangling activity
```
a non-critical activity
51
6000 units have been installed to date with 9,000 units to install. Labor costs are
$23,300.00 to date. What is the unit cost for labor to date?
a. a.$2.58 per unit
b. b.$15,533.00
c. c.$3.88 per unit
d. d.$23,300.00
23300/6000 = 3.88
52
A WBS system should be ____________.
a. a.highly complex
b. b.either activity-oriented or deliverable-oriented
c. c.based on subcontracting
d. d.built bottom up
either activity-oriented or deliverable-oriented
53
You are a smart owner who understands the trade off between first cost and
maintenance costs. The ten year life cycle cost for a changed parking lot is $100,000
less than the specified product, but the first cost is an add on of $75,000 (capital costs).
You plan to sell the project in one year or less.
Do you accept the change? Why?
a. a.No. Unless the change will be an added selling value. You
can't get payback in one year.
b. b.Yes, of course.
c. c.No, always go with the lowest cost.
d. d.Yes, always make the best product you can afford.
No. Unless the change will be an added selling value. You
| can't get payback in one year.
54
You are the estimator on a public works project. You are delayed in traffic and
are one minute late for the bid submission. What do you do?
a. a.Submit the bid and protest.
b. b.Call your boss and take the heat for an unaccepted late bid.
c. c.Protest the other bidders had an unfair advantage.
d. d.Insist that the agency take your bid.
Call your boss and take the heat for an unaccepted late bid.
55
Even if the project were to be terminated, some unavoidable costs are already
expended. these costs are called ____________ ?
a. a.Skunk costs
b. b.Sunk costs
c. c.Avoidable cost
d. d.Budgeted work-to-date costs
Sunk costs
56
If a masonry contractor has been given a back charge by a general
contractor, what does this mean?
a. a.The general contractor has given the masonry contractor a
credit for extra work performed in the field
b. b.The general contractor is asking the masonry contractor to
bill for work completed before a contract is signed
c. c.The general contractor is charged for faulty work that
needed repair on a project that was completed two years earlier
d. d.The general contractor is deducting a sum of money from the
masonry contractor's contract amount
The general contractor is deducting a sum of money from the
| masonry contractor's contract amount
57
```
Budgets should have no more than ____________line items to match the WBS
structure.
a. a.10-20
b. b.200-300
c. c.500-1500
d. d.500-750
```
200-300
58
Carpenters cost $15.00 per hour direct labor, plus 35% burden. Laborers cost
$10.00 per direct hour plus 35% burden. You have one laborer for every four
carpenters. What is the blended burdened hourly rate per hour?
a. a.$15.00 per hour
b. b.$12.50 per hour
c. c.$18.90 per hour
d. d.$20.25 per hour
```
c.$18.90 per hour
Carpenters = 4*(15*1.35) = 81
Laborer = 1*(10*1.35) = 13.5
94.5
94.5/5 = 18.90
```
59
Quantification of resources needed to achieve a project during a set time frame
and the limit within which the task owners are required to work is called a
________________?
a. a.Estimate
b. b.Schedule
c. c.Specification
d. d.Budget
Budget
60
Quantification of resources needed to achieve a task by a set time, within which
the task owners are required to work is called a _________.
a. a.WBS
b. b.Cost of Accounts
c. c.Budget
d. d.Schedule
Schedule
61
If the work on a project includes 7500 units to install and the labor costs are
$10,000 to date with 300 units installed, what is the expected final cost?
a. a.$25,000.00
b. b.$750,000.00
c. c.$250,000.00
d. d.$225,000.00
$250,000.00
62
Proof that your firm has been paying subcontractors and vendors from previous
application payments is provided through _________.
a. a.cancelled checks
b. b.Schedules of Values
c. c.Waivers of Lien
d. d.Notice of Liens
Waivers of Lien
63
The base rate for labor is $20/hr. Labor burden is 35% with 3% for small tools
for the labor. There are 1000 units to install. Labor can install 10 units per hour, per
trade worker. Owners need to make 15% overhead and profit to pay bills, pay interest
on loans and provide some profit to the partners. What is the profit from the minimum
bid assuming no risk avoidance factor and a 10% overhead?
$139.05
64
The budget is $33,343 for 2000 cubic yds of hand excavation. Labor can
excavate 2 cubic yards per hour. What is the maximum you can pay the labor to do the
work, and how many 10 hour days will it take two individuals to do the work?
a. a.$16.67 per hour and 50 days
b. b.$33.34 per hour and 50 days
c. c.$8.34 per hour and 25 days
d. d.$4.17 per hour and 12.5 days
b.$33.34 per hour and 50 days
65
Subcontractor 1 bids plans and specs with a need for 30 days on site and the use
of the general contractor's crane at no cost.
Subcontractor 2 bids plans and specs with a need for 25 days on the site and will
supplly his own hoisting equipment.
Subcontractor 3 bids plans and specs with need for 20 days on the site and use of the
general contractor's crane at no cost.
Each bidder bids $50,125 dollars as base bid.
The crane is worth $2,000 for the lifts and the general conditions costs for the general
contractor are $1,000 per day.
Who wins and why.
a. a.Subcontractor 1 because he is your friend.
b. b.Subcontractor 1 because he will save you $1,000 per day
c. c.Subcontractor 2 because he will supply his own crane
d. d.Subcontractor 3 because he will save you $8,000 over
Subcontractor 1 and he will save you $3,000 over subcontractor 2
( $10,000 in general conditions less $2,000 in crane charges and
$5,000 in gc's less $2,000 in crane charges.
d.Subcontractor 3 because he will save you $8,000 over
Subcontractor 1 and he will save you $3,000 over subcontractor 2
( $10,000 in general conditions less $2,000 in crane charges and
$5,000 in gc's less $2,000 in crane charges.
66
The base rate for labor is $15/hr. The labor burden is 35% and 3% for small tools
for the labor. There are 1000 units to install. Records indicate that trade workers can
install 10 units per hour, per trade worker. The owners need 15% overhead and profit
to pay bills, pay interest on loan and provide some profit to the partners. What is the
minimum bid assuming no risk avoidance factor?
a. a.$2830.50
b. b.$619.50
c. c.$2398.62
d. d.$2938.62
$2398.62
```
𝐿𝑎𝑏𝑜𝑟
$15/ℎ𝑟 𝑥 1.35 = $20.25
Tool Burden $20.25 𝑥 1.03 = $20.85
Total labor hours 1000 units/10unitsperhour = 100 hours
100 ℎ𝑜𝑢𝑟𝑠 𝑥 20.85 = $2085
$2085 𝑥 1.15 = 2387.75
```
67
```
Overhead expenses distributed over appropriate direct labor and/or material base
costs are called _____________?
a. a.Profit
b. b.Loss
c. c.Burden
d. d.Direct Cost
```
c.Burden
68
The basement excavation for a home must be 8 feet deep with 1:2 H:V slopes.
The foundation is 30 x 30 with 2 added feet on each side to build the edge form. If the
top of the excavation is level, what is the total excavation in cubic yards?
a. a.486.7 cyds
b. b.13,140 cyds
c. c.429.4 cyds
d. d.858.8 cyds
429.4 cyds
A2 = 42 x 42=1764 sf
A1 = 32x32 = 1024 sf
H = 8 ft
Sq root of (1764 x 1024) = 1344
69
In the case of loss caused by a covered peril, if a car crashes and cuts electricity
for a commercial freezer and the food in the freezer spoils, the costs would be covered
by which of the following?
a. a.Consequential loss or damage
b. b.Subrogation
c. c.Umbrella
d. d.PL & PD
Consequential loss or damage
70
On a project estimate, which of the following items is included as a project overhead expense?
a. a.Field trailer
b. b.Home office rent
c. c.Estimating cost
d. d.Home office supplies
Field trailer
71
The Estimator prices the Contractor's portion of the estimate,
develops the Contractor's overhead costs and reviews and selects the
Subcontractor proposal bids to be incorporated into the Contractor's
proposal
a. True
b. False
True
72
The excavation for a square basement requires a 1:2 H:V slope cut back. The
external dimensions of the footings are 30 x 30 feet. The excavation is 8 feet deep and
you need to add 2 feet on each side to install the footing forms. What is the volume of
cubic yards of excavation?
a. a.11019
b. b.408
c. c.29750
d. d.1224
408
V= d/6 [ At + Ab + Am]
Area of top = (43+8/2 x 2) x (34 + 8/2 x 2) = 42x42 = 1764
Area of bottom = 34x34= 144
Area at mid = (34+4/2x2)x(34+4/2x2) =1444
8/6 [1764 +1156+1444]
11594.66 ft^3
429 cubic yards
73
The borrow pit has 2000 cubic yds of suitable fill. The fill required for the project
is 1900 cyds. The swell factor is 10% and the shrinkage factor is 15%. How much more
borrow do we need? Or is there extra?
a. a.13 yards extra
b. b.13 yards short
c. c.200 yards extra
d. d.161 yards short
13 yards extra
```
Logic tells you that shrinkage factor is
greater than swell factor so there should be
a surplus of soil.
This automatically eliminates answers b
and d.
```
74
The cut for a trench is 10 feet deep. The slopes are 1:1. The bottom width is 2 feet
wide. The trench is 100 feet long with vertical ends. What is the quantity of excavation
in cubic yards?
a. a.120 cyds
b. b.44.44 cyds
c. c.444.44 cyds
d. d.1200 cyds
444.44 cyds
#87
75
True or False. On bid day, you always use the low bid received
from every subcontractor in compiling your bid.
a. True
b. False
F
76
What are the five phases of Value Engineering?
a. a.Brainstorming Phase, Creative Phase, Judgment Phase,
Development Phase, Recommendation Phase
b. b.Information Phase, Calculation Phase, Judgment Phase,
Development Phase, Recommendation Phase
c. c.Information Phase, Creative Phase, Judgment Phase,
Development Phase, Recommendation Phase
d. d.Information Phase, Creative Phase, Judgment Phase,
Development Phase, Implementation Phase
Information Phase, Creative Phase, Judgment Phase,
| Development Phase, Recommendation Phase
77
The plans and specifications for a private project are incomplete, but the owner is
insistent that you put a hard number on the table for the project. What do you do?
a. a.Gather the cheapest subs and put a high price to cover the
contingencies.
b. b.Gather the "best" subs and put a tight price on the job with
a tightly defined set of qualifications and assumptions.
c. c.Gather the "best" subs and put a high bid out to cover
contingencies as a complimentary bid, so that some other
contractor can get the work at a high price to cover their risks.
d. d.Gather the cheapest subs, take the work at the lowest
possible price, claim every minor change and pad the change
orders that are inevitable.
b.Gather the "best" subs and put a tight price on the job with
a tightly defined set of qualifications and assumptions.
78
The right of the insurance carrier to take action to recover the amount of a claim
paid to a covered insured if the loss was caused by a third party is called ___________.
a. a.Negotiation
b. b.Umbrella
c. c.Subrogation
d. d.Litigation
Subrogation
79
What is the required contact area formwork for a free standing wall of concrete
3 feet wide, 10 feet tall and 100 feet long? (Hint free standing means you need to form
the end walls)
a. a.2000 sfca
b. b.2003 sfca
c. c.2030 sfca
d. d.2060 sfca
2060 sfca
| 10x100x2 + 3x10x2 = 2060
80
When are addendums typically issued?
a. a.After the bid and contract letting
b. b.After the bid and before the contract letting
c. c.Before the bid
d. d.During the construction phase
Before the bid
81
What do bid bonds typically cost the bidder?
a. a.Full contract amount
b. b.5 or 10% of the bid
c. c.1 to 2% of the bid
d. d.Nothing, if the bidder has a regular bonding company
relationship.
Nothing, if the bidder has a regular bonding company
| relationship.
82
What is a creative, organized approach with the objective of optimizing life cycle
costs and of the performance of a system, facility, or building called?
a. a.TQM
b. b.ISO
c. c.Value Engineering
d. d.Life Cycle Costing
Life Cycle Costing
83
```
The CSI Division that covers structural steel methods and materials is
_________________.
a. a.Division 3
b. b.Division 5
c. c.Division 13
d. d.Division 30
```
5
84
The purpose of through-wall flashing in brick veneer construction
is:
a. a.To prevent water from infiltrating the brick veneer wall
b. b.To assist in carrying load over masonry openings
c. c.To extend continuously through door openings
d. d.Direct the escape of moisture
Direct the escape of moisture
85
The architects scale on a drawing calls for 1:8. You don't have a 1:8 scale. How
do you measure the quantities?
a. a.Always use one inch of a ruler equals 4 (feet or inches)
b. b.First use the dimensions on the drawings. Then use one inch
of a ruler equals 40 (feet or inches)
c. c.First use the dimensions on the drawings. Then use one inch
of a ruler equals 8 (feet or inches)
d. d.First use the dimensions on the drawings. Then use one inch
of a ruler equals 2 (feet or inches)
First use the dimensions on the drawings. Then use one inch
| of a ruler equals 8 (feet or inches)
86
The basic distinction between UniFormat and MasterFormat is?
a. a.Uniformat is "building system" based, MasterFormat is
"building methods and materials" based
b. b.MasterFormat is "building system" based, Uniformat is
"building methods and materials" based
c. c.Uniformat is "building process" based, MasterFormat is
"methods and materials" based
d. d.Uniformat is "building materials" based, MasterFormat is
"subcontractor" based
Uniformat is "building system" based, MasterFormat is
| "building methods and materials" based
87
The "A-C" stamped on the plywood panel describes its:
a. Intended use
b. Veneer grade
c. Veneer thickness
d. Exposure durability
Veneer grade
88
Toilet accessories are specified in what CSI Division (2004 Version)?
a. a.Division 1
b. b.Division 10
c. c.Division 11
d. d.Division 12
10
89
The specifications call for the spoil to be removed from the work
area. What is spoil?
Excess soil on the site
90
The vertical members of a window support system are called ___________
a. Mullions
b. Muntons
c. Sticks
Mullions
91
A national pricing service says the National price is $12.35 per unit. The
adjusted price adjustment for Los Angeles is 1.15. The price adjustment for Tulsa is
0.94. What is the expected price difference between Tulsa and Los Angeles?
a. a.$0.21
b. b.$2.59
c. c.$2.98
d. d.$0.00
$2.59
```
1.15-.94 = .21
.21*12.35 = 2.59
```
92
Bid peddling is also considered ethical under the ASPE Code of
Ethics
a. True
b. False
F
93
You have 25,000 cubic yds to excavate from a pit. The excavation is wet sticky
clay. What type of equipment would be most suitable?
a. a.Pan scrapers with dozer
b. b.Elevating scrapers
c. c.Dozers and front end loaders
d. d.Large track mounted backhoes
Large track mounted backhoes
94
A cut fill grid, has a grid with cut corners totaling 12 feet
and fill corners totaling 4 feet. The grid is 10 x 10 square feet. What is balanced cut or
fill total?
a. a.Cut 15 cf
b. b.Cut 20 cf
c. c.Fill 15 cf
d. d.Fill 20 cf
```
Cut 15 cf
5 x 5 = 25 x -8 = 200
200 x 2 = 400 = 14.8
27
2 x 2.5 x 2.5 x -4 = -50
2 x 2.5 x 2.5 x +4 = 50/0
```
95
Estimates at every level are NOT normally used for_________.
a. a.evaluating options
b. b.establishing bid prices
c. c.planning
d. d.project closeout
project closeout
96
If an owner requires a contractor to supply performance and payment bonds,
and the owner grossly over-pays the contractor without notice to the surety, is the
Surety responsible for paying subs again if the contractor files for bankruptcy
protection?
a. a.No, the owner owes fiduciary responsibility to the surety
and the owner. Overpayment does not oblige the surety in all
cases
b. b.Yes, bonds are like cash.
c. c.Yes, upon demand and notice only.
d. d.Yes, always pay subs first.
a.No, the owner owes fiduciary responsibility to the surety
and the owner. Overpayment does not oblige the surety in all
cases
97
Conceptual estimate contingency carried by the contractor is
intended to
a. a.Cover undefined items in the contractor's estimate with
respect to quantity and/or work item scope
b. b.Be used by the architect for design features as the drawings
are developed
c. c.Be used by the owner to fund scope changes during its design
phase
d. d.Pay for known conditions at the work site.
Be used by the owner to fund scope changes during its design
| phase
98
```
111. Conceptual estimates can be what percentage in variance to the expected final
cost and still be reasonable?
a. a.5-10%
b. b.30-50%
c. c.10-15%
d. d.100%
```
30-50%
99
112. You hear a rumor that your competitor is having financial difficulties. What do
you do?
a. a.Keep this unsubstantiated information to yourself
b. b.Tell your boss.
c. c.Tell your own clients.
d. d.Take this information to your competitors clients.
Keep this unsubstantiated information to yourself
100
```
113. According to Section Formating, allowances and unit prices are specified in
what part of the specification section?
a. a.Division 0
b. b.Part 3 Execution
c. c.Part 2 Products
d. d.Part 1 General
```
Part 1 General
101
114. You are bidding a public project. The bid form requires an authorized
signature. During the bid opening, you notice that the low bidder has not signed the
form. You will be low bidder if the other bid is rejected. What do you do?
a. a.Nothing
b. b.Formally protest the bid and ask that the low bidder be
declared "non-responsive"
c. c.Go to the press and complain that your competitor (the low
bidder) is incompetent and shouldn't be given the work.
d. d.Report the discrepancy to your bonding company
Formally protest the bid and ask that the low bidder be
| declared "non-responsive"
102
115. You have a chance to support construction research. What do you do?
a. a.Ignore the opportunity.
b. b.Tell everyone that construction research is a waste of
money.
c. c.Support the research in any way you can
d. d.Do everything you can to have the research cancelled.
Support the research in any way you can
103
116. A derrick is a type of ____________?
a. a.Truck
b. b.Hoisting equipment
c. c.Excavation equipment
d. d.Scheduling term
Hoisting equipment
104
117. The most recent Masterformat of Estimating Divisions makes what general
change to the CSI Division Numbering System?
a. a.Deletes many sections
b. b.Adds many divisions and three new groupings
c. c.Changes the present numbering system entirely with no
numbers remaining the same
d. d.Deletes over ten divisions entirely
Adds many divisions and three new groupings
105
118. Ace Concrete from San Diego is working on a project in Michigan. The
specifications call for 4% entrained air. Ace forgets to have the air entrained. What are
the ramifications for the owner?
a. a.None, air entrainment is for pump ability and placing only.
b. b.The concrete will have diminished capacity to resist freeze
and thaw and will not last as long as planned in Michigan
c. c.The concrete will be stronger, as less air means higher
strength.
d. d.The concrete will be fine for a longer time as less air
means more freeze-thaw protection.
The concrete will have diminished capacity to resist freeze
| and thaw and will not last as long as planned in Michigan
106
119. A cofferdam is a?
a. Structure used to keep water out a normally underwater
construction site
b. A hydro power project
c. A mound of dirt to prevent other materials from moving to the
other side of the mound
d. None of the above
Structure used to keep water out a normally underwater
| construction site
107
the spacing of studs. Which of these factors provides a larger spacing?
a. a.Face Grain Perpendicular to span
b. b.Face Grain Parallel to span
c. c.Face Grain Parallel to span and smaller stud size
d. d.Face Grain Perpendicular to span and smaller stud size
Face Grain Parallel to span
108
121. In elevated concrete slab construction, shores are used to:
a. a.Indicate location of columns
b. b.Align the reinforcing steel
c. c.Provide lateral support for the concrete formwork on the
next floor
d. d.Transfer construction loads to the lower levels of the
structure
Provide lateral support for the concrete formwork on the
| next floor
109
122. Escalators are specified in what CSI Division (2004 Version)?
a. a.Division 9
b. b.Division 11
c. c.Division 13
d. d.Division 14
14
110
123. Fabric and Art are specified in what CSI Division (2004 Version)?
a. a.Division 1
b. b.Division 5
c. c.Division 12
d. d.Division 11
12
111
124. Mechanical trades are specified in what CSI Division (2004 Version)?
a. a.Division 13
b. b.Division 14
c. c.Division 15
d. d.Division 16
15
112
125. Office equipment is specified in what CSI Division (2004 Version)?
a. a.Division 1
b. b.Division 11
c. c.Division 10
d. d.Division 13
11
113
126. Joint Sealants (caulking) is specified in what CSI Division (2004 Version)?
a. a.Division 6
b. b.Division 7
c. c.Division 9
d. d.Division 4
7
114
127. Lightning protection is specified in what CSI Division (2004 Version)?
a. a.Division 16
b. b.Division 13
c. c.Division 17
d. d.Division 15
13
115
128. ISO stands for?
a. a.International Standards Office
b. b.International Standardization Organization
c. c.International Standardization Office
d. d.International Standards Organization
International Standardization Organization
116
129. Liquidity ratios do NOT include _________.
a. a.Current Ratio
b. b.Quick ratio
c. c.Debt to Equity
Debt to Equity
117
130. In the context of construction, what does a GMP mean?
a. a.Gross Material Price
b. b.Guaranteed Minimum Price
c. c.Guaranteed Maximum Price
d. d.Grossly Mistaken Price
Guaranteed Maximum Price
118
131. In what type of construction does the contractor take full responsibility for
completion of the design and the construction work.
a. a.Design-bid-build
b. b.CMAR
c. c.Unit-price work
d. d.Design-build
Design-build
119
132. On a U.S. Federal construction project, your firm has been awarded the work
based on a hard bid. You realize that a bidding mistake means your profit will be
increased. What do you do?
a. a.Offer to return the savings to the client.
b. b.Offer to return the savings to the subcontractors and
vendors involved in the line item where the error was made.
c. c.Keep the added profit, as this is part of the risk-reward
system. Your firm would have to have absorbed a loss if it had
been discovered after the contract.
d. d.Give the added profit to charity.
Keep the added profit, as this is part of the risk-reward
system. Your firm would have to have absorbed a loss if it had
been discovered after the contract.
120
133. The Notice of Award and Letter of Intent are the same document
a. True
b. False
F
121
134. Meeting of the Minds is inclusive of the concepts outlined below:
a. An offer is made. Normally the Contractor is required to
submit a bid proposal on the forms provided by the A/E firm. It
is also a good practice to standardize the Subcontractor Bid
Proposal form, which includes a Bid Breakdown Section.
b. Acceptance of the Offer. The subcontractor receives a letter
from the contractor indicating that they have been awarded the
contract and will be executing the subcontract agreement.
c. Item 1 only
d. Item 2 only
e. Item 1 and 2
Item 1 and 2
122
135. On a City Hall project, Acme floor bids plans and specs with a voluntary
alternate for local pine floors vs. imported pine from Finland. The savings is $25,000.
Acme is low subcontractor on bid day per plans and specs at $250,000.00. What do you
do?
a. a.Use a bid of $225,000.00 and try to sneak the substitute
product by.
b. b.Use the bid of $250,000.00 and offer the alternate after you
are awarded the work.
c. c.Use the bid of $225,000 on bid day and write in the
qualification of your bid, as being for local pine floors.
d. d.Use the bid of $225,000 and try to get another bidder to
meet plans and specs at the lower price.
Use the bid of $250,000.00 and offer the alternate after you
| are awarded the work.
123
136. True or False. Return on equity equals net profit divided by
equity.
a. True
b. False
T
124
137. True or False. Safety ratios include Debt to Equity.
a. True
b. False
T
125
```
138. The traditional method of letting public construction contracts in the United
States is by what method?
a. a.Design-Build
b. b.Design-Bid-build
c. c.CMAR
d. d.Cost plus a fee
```
Design-Bid-build
126
139. The voluntary process of creating a cooperative and mutually beneficial team
out of potential adversaries on a construction project is called ________.
a. a.TQM
b. b.ISO
c. c.Partnering
d. d.QA/QC
Partnering
127
140. What is the primary difference in contract formation between a
Subcontract Agreement and a Purchase Order?
a. Meeting of the minds exists in a subcontract but not in a
purchase order
b. There are not any contract differences between a subcontract
and purchase order
c. Legal purpose exists in a subcontract but not in a purchase
order
d. All of the above
Meeting of the minds exists in a subcontract but not in a
| purchase order
128
```
141. Which of the following items must never be agreed upon utilizing a
form titled Purchase Order?
a. Materials
b. Labor
c. Overhead
d. Rental Equipment
```
Labor
129
142. True or False. The AIC Code of Ethics allows you to try and
damage your competitors when you are trying to land a project.
a. True
b. False
F
130
143. What is it called when parties choose a third party to settle their disagreement?
a. a.Arbitration
b. b.Mediation
c. c.Litigation
d. d.Conciliation
Arbitration
131
144. Ace Construction has $2,000,000.00 in current assets. They have
current liabilities of 1,000,000.00 plus "due on demand" accounts
payable of $1,500,000.00. What is Ace's current ratio?
a. a.1.25
b. b.1
c. c.0.80
d. d.0.60
0.80
2,000,000/(1,000,000+1,500,000)= .80
132
145. A client asks you to provide a price for a project. The price comes in above
budget. He asks that you go back to the subs and tell them that if they each cut 10% off
their price, he will award you the project. What do you do?
a. a.Shop the subs bid until the price is right.
b. b.Tell the client that the action he proposes is unfair to
your subs, but that you and the low bid subs will prepare a list
of options and changes that will bring the price within budget.
c. c.Agree to the 10% cut, close the deal and then ask the subs
to change to cheaper products and materials to make the price
within budget.
d. d.Take the bid and try to use cheap materials.
Tell the client that the action he proposes is unfair to
your subs, but that you and the low bid subs will prepare a list
of options and changes that will bring the price within budget.
133
146. Your pile driving project is working in Type A soils. During a week long rain
storm, the local storm sewer district has an emergency relocation across your site. They
ask you to dig a trench 15 feet deep without shoring. What do you do?
a. a.Begin the excavation as a Class A soil project
b. b.Tell the client that the Soil is Class C and have an
engineer shoring system ready before starting the excavation
c. c.Begin the excavation as a Class B soil project
d. d.Begin the excavation as a Class A soil project and send a
letter to the storm sewer district rejecting any responsibility
for accidents that might occur
Tell the client that the Soil is Class C and have an
| engineer shoring system ready before starting the excavation
134
147. According to AIA documents, if a project is delayed due to
abnormal weather conditions, which of the following BEST describes the
liability of the contractor?
a. a.The owner has to pay liquidated damages
b. b.The contractor is entitled to an extension of time and not
additional compensation
c. c.The contractor is entitled to an extension of time and
consequential damages
d. d.The contractor is entitled to compensation due to
consequential damages
The contractor is entitled to an extension of time and not
| additional compensation
135
148. An implied contract term is:
a. An understood but not written term of contract
b. A matter of further negotiations
c. Always a warranty item
An understood but not written term of contract
136
```
149. Cash and assets that are expected to be used, sold or converted to cash usually
within one year.
a. a.Long term assets
b. b.Current assets
c. c.Quick assets
d. d.Direct costs
```
Current assets
137
150. Acme and Beta construction form a Joint Venture to perform the work at the
local Wal-Mart, as subcontractor to Delta Construction. Acme files for bankruptcy and
ceases operations. What does Delta do?
a. a.Sends the Joint Venture workers home and does the work
itself and files a lawsuit against Acme and Beta.
b. b.Sends the Joint Venture worker home and demands that Acme's
bonding company performs the work.
c. b.Sends the Joint Venture worker home and demands that Acme's
bonding company performs the work.
d. d.Sends the Joint Venture worker home and files a demand for
payment with the bankruptcy court.
Sends the Joint Venture worker home and demands that Acme's
| bonding company performs the work.
138
151. A good quick ratio is___________.
a. a.Way less than one.
b. b.Around 1.00
c. c.Around 2.00
d. d.Near zero.
Around 1.00
139
```
152. Edwards Deming created a system for improving productivity and quality called
_________.
a. a.ISO
b. b.TQM
c. c.QA/QC
d. d.CPI
```
TQM
140
153. Edwards Deming was a strong proponent of what management system?
a. a.ISO
b. b.MBO
c. c.TQM
d. d.AIC
TQM
141
```
154. Cash receipts and payments in a specified period is called
_______.
a. a.Cash Flow
b. b.Schedule
c. c.Accrual method
d. d.Quick net worth
```
Cash Flow
142
155. Current Ratio is___________.
a. a.Current assets divided by current liabilities.
b. b.Quick assets divided by long term liabilities.
c. c.Current assets divided by long term liabilities.
Current assets divided by current liabilities.
143
156. In design-bid-build, the plans and specifications are assured to the contractor to
be what percent complete when the work is let to the low bid contractor?
100%
144
```
157. In the business organization of corporations, shareholders have
_____________________.
a. a.unlimited liability
b. b.no financial risk
c. c.limited liability
d. d.bankruptcy protection
```
limited liability
145
158. For maintenance contracts, what are good methods of contract procurement?
a. a.Design-bid-build
b. b.Design-build
c. c.CMAR
d. d.Job order contracting and unit price contracts
Job order contracting and unit price contracts
146
159. For unit price contracts, what is used in the schedule of values?
a. a.Revised lump sum items
b. b.Bid unit prices and quantities
c. c.CSI codes
Bid unit prices and quantities
147
160. The specific gravity of water is?
a. 2
b. 1
c. 62.4
d. 7.34
1
specific gravity, which is density divided by the density of water at 4 degrees Celsius and at atmospheric pressure. It follows that water at that temperature and pressure has a specific gravity of 1, but water containing impurities has a specific gravity that varies slightly from 1
148
161. The standard formwork design tables for concrete assume that the pour rate is?
a. a.less than 7 feet per hour
b. b.7-10 feet per hour
c. c.10-12 feet per hour
d. d.over 12 feet per hour
less than 7 feet per hour
149
162. The specific gravity of fluid concrete is?
2.4
150
```
163. The specific gravity of mild steel is 7.85. What does one cubic foot of steel
weigh?
a. a.62.4 pounds
b. b.4900 pounds
c. c.490 pounds
d. d.2.7 tons
```
490 pounds
Most steel weighs about 489 pounds
per cubic foot
151
164. The transfer of heat directly from one surface to another without the
intermediate air acting as a transfer mechanism is called what?
a. a.Radiation
b. b.Convection
c. c.Confluence
d. d.Heat pumping
Radiation
152
165. The transfer of heat through a solid material is called what?
a. a.Convection
b. b.Radiation
c. c.Conduction
d. d.Heating
Conduction
153
166. The steel frame of a 200 foot long temporary STEEL construction bridge has a
daytime temperature of 65 degrees F. At night, the steel plunges to 5 degrees F. The
contractor allowed 0.5 inches of elongated bolt hole. If the bolts in the daytime were up
against the far end, what happens when the temperature is 5 degrees F?
a. a.The bridge is fine
b. b.The bridge has definitely failed.
c. c.The bolts have torn out the elongated bolt hole is now 0.936
inches long, if the bridge hasn't failed.
Most steel weighs about 489 pounds
per cubic foot.
d. d.The bolts have torn out, the elongated bolt hole is now
0.436 inches long, if the bridge hasn't failed.
The bolts have torn out the elongated bolt hole is now 0.936
| inches long, if the bridge hasn't failed.
154
167. The transfer of heat by air flow is called ______________.
a. a.Condensing
b. b.Radiation
c. c.Conductance
d. d.Convection
Convection
155
168. What is ASHRAE the acronym for?
a. a.American Society of Heating and Air conditioning Engineers
b. b.American Society of Heating, Refrigeration and Air
Conditioning Engineers
c. c.American Society of Refrigeration and Air Conditioning
Engineers
d. d.American Society of Heating and Refrigeration Engineers
American Society of Heating, Refrigeration and Air
| Conditioning Engineers
156
169. What is Hydration?
a. a.Concrete drying
b. b.Concrete hardening by chemical reaction
c. c.Water added to concrete
d. d.Concrete hardening by water evaporating
Concrete hardening by chemical reaction
157
170. WBT is the wet bulb temperature in degrees ºF or ºC. Wet bulb temperature is
also:
a. a.measured using a thermometer with a dry sock wrapped around
the bulb.
b. b.measured using a thermometer with a dirty sock wrapped
around the bulb.
c. c.measured using an ordinary thermometer. Wet bulb temperature
lines are the diagonal lines shown on the chart.
d. d.measured using a thermometer with a wet sock wrapped around
the bulb. The air being measured is blown across the sock
allowing moisture to evaporate. This evaporation takes energy out
of the air, which has a cooling effect. Wet bulb temperature will
thus be lower than dry bulb temperatures unless the air is
saturated (100 percent relative humidity). Wet bulb temperature
lines are the diagonal lines shown on the chart.
measured using a thermometer with a wet sock wrapped around
the bulb. The air being measured is blown across the sock
allowing moisture to evaporate. This evaporation takes energy out
of the air, which has a cooling effect. Wet bulb temperature will
thus be lower than dry bulb temperatures unless the air is
saturated (100 percent relative humidity). Wet bulb temperature
lines are the diagonal lines shown on the chart.
158
171. What information is used to determine the required contact area of
a reinforced concrete footing resting in soil?
a. a.Soil bearing capacity
b. b.Soil compression (psi)
c. c.Concrete bearing capacity
d. d.Concrete compression (psi)
Soil bearing capacity
159
172. Which of the following criteria has no meaning in concrete wall form design?
a. a.Temperature of concrete
b. b.Height of wall
c. c.Width of wall
d. d.Rate of placement
Width of wall
160
173. Young's Modulus relates _____________________.
a. a.temperature and humidity on a Pyschrometric chart.
b. b.shear and moments.
c. c.stress and strain when a material is in the elastic region.
d. d.stress and strain when a material is in the plastic region.
stress and strain when a material is in the elastic region.
161
174. What soil testing tool is an accurate and portable instrument for
the determination of in-situ shear strength of cohesive soils, either
on-site or on undisturbed or remolded samples in the Laboratory?
Pocket trixial
162
175. What type of soil can be easily penetrated several inches by the thumb and
molded by light finger pressure?
Type C
163
```
176. Given:
Void Ratio is 0.50
Water Content is 25%
Specific Gravity of Soils is 2.00
What is the degree of saturation?
```
100%
| (.25 x 2.00) ÷ .5 = 1 x 100% = 100%
164
```
177. Given:
Void Ratio is 0.50
Water Content is 50%
Specific Gravity of Soils 3.00
What is the dry unit weight?
```
124.79 p/cf
165
178. DBT is the dry bulb temperature in degrees ºF or ºC. Dry bulb temperature is
measured with:
a. a.an ordinary thermometer. Dry bulb temperature lines are the
vertical lines on a psychrometric chart
b. b.a special thermometer. Dry bulb temperature lines are the
horizontal lines on a psychrometric chart
c. c.an ordinary thermometer. Dry bulb temperature lines are the
horizontal lines on a psychrometric chart.
d. d.a special thermometer. Dry bulb temperature lines are the
horizontal lines on a psychrometric chart
an ordinary thermometer. Dry bulb temperature lines are the
| vertical lines on a psychrometric chart
166
```
179. Given:
Void Ratio is 0.50
Water Content is 50%
Specific Gravity of the soils 3.00
What is the weight of the solids?
a. a.124.79 p/cf
b. b.62.2 p/cf
c. c.93.6 p/cf
d. d.62.4 p/cf
```
124.79 p/cf
167
```
180.If relative humidity is 60% and dry bulb temperature is 70ºF, what is the dew
point?
a. a.56 ºF
b. b.48 ºF
c. c.20 ºF
d. d.30 ºF
```
56 ºF
168
181. If the dry bulb temperature is 80 ºF and the specific humidity (dew point) is
60ºF, what is the wet bulb temperature and the relative humidity?
a. a.Wet Bulb 60ºF and Relative Humidity is 42%
b. b.Wet Bulb 64ºF and Relative Humidity is 42%
c. c.Wet Bulb 64ºF and Relative Humidity is 50%
d. d.Wet Bulb 60ºF and Relative Humidity is 42%
Wet Bulb 64ºF and Relative Humidity is 50%
169
```
182.Given:
Void Ratio is 0.50
Water Content is 50%
Specific Gravity of the soils 3.00
What is the wet unit weight?
a. a.124.79 p/cf
b. b.62.4 p/cf
c. c.187.18 p/cf
d. d.93.6 p/cf
```
187.18 p/cf
170
```
183. If a concrete wall form is 30 feet high full of fluid concrete, what is the pressure
on the form 10 feet below the top?
a. 4500 psf
b. 1872 psf
c. 624 psf
d. 1500 psf
```
1500 psf
171
```
184. The load on a simply supported beam is 500 pounds. The sum of the reaction
loads must be equal to _____________.
a. a.250 pounds
b. b.50 pounds
c. c.500 pounds
d. d.5000 pounds
```
500 pounds
172
material is 1350 Pounds per square inch. What is the required Section Modulus of the
shape needed to resist the bending caused by the moment?
a. a.23.11 inches^4
b. b.1.926 inches^3
c. c.23.11 inches^3
d. d.1.926 inches^4
23.11 inches^3
173
186. The amount of air required to completely replace the air in a room or building
(not to be confused with recirculated air) is called what?
Air Change
174
187. The coefficient of thermal expansion for steel is 0.0000065. The change in
material temperature is minus 60 degrees F. The steel is 55 feet long. What is the
change in length of the steel?
a. a.0.26 inches longer
b. b.0.26 feet longer
c. c.0.26 inches shorter
d. d.0.0215 inches shorter
0.26 inches shorter
175
188. The Moment of Inertia of a shape is 1000 inches^4, the distances from its
centroid to the outer edge of the shape are 20 and 25 inches. What is the Section
Modulus of the shape?
40 inches^3
176
189. The process of adjusting the flow of air in duct systems, or water flow in hotwater
heating systems using accurate instrumentation to deliver the right amount of
heating or cooling to each area or room of the home is called what?
a. a.Punchlist
b. b.Commissioning and Balancing
c. c.Certification
d. d.Warranty
Commissioning and Balancing
177
190. The Modulus of Elasticity is 29,000,000 for mild carbon steel. In the plastic
state, the unit stress is 20000 psi. What is the strain?
a. 0.0007
b. b.1450.0
c. c.145.0
d. d.1.45
0.0007
178
191. The Moment of Inertia of a shape is?
a. a.A property of the shape and an indicator of its ability to
resist bending
b. b.A relationship to the materials used
c. c.A property of the material used and an indicator of its
ability to resist bending
d. d.Always equal to the number zero
.A property of the shape and an indicator of its ability to
| resist bending
179
192. A 10 foot long simply supported beam has a point load of 225 pounds placed 2
feet from the left end. What is the magnitude of the maximum shear?
a. a.45 pounds
b. b.180 pounds
c. c.225 pounds
d. d.112.5 pounds
180 pounds
180
193. A 20 foot high wall is poured at the rate of 7 feet per hour using type 1 cement
without pozzolans. The temperature of the concrete is 70 degrees F. The plyform Face
Grain is Perpendicular to span. Using 3/4" Plyform, what is the maximum stud
spacing?
a. a.8
b. b.10
c. c.6
d. d.12
6
181
194. "Fissured" soil means?
a. a.a soil material that has a tendency to break along definite
planes of fracture with little resistance, or a material that
exhibits open cracks, such as tension cracks, in an exposed
surface
b. b.very strong soils
c. c.cohesive soils
d. d.cohesionless soils
a soil material that has a tendency to break along definite
planes of fracture with little resistance, or a material that
exhibits open cracks, such as tension cracks, in an exposed
surface
182
195. "Mold a moist or wet sample of soil into a ball and attempt to roll it into threads
as thin as 1/8-inch in diameter. Cohesive material can be successfully rolled into
threads without crumbling. For example, if at least a two inch (50 mm) length of 1/8-
inch thread can be held on one end without tearing, the soil is cohesive."
What test does this describe?
a. a.Cohesion
b. b.Axial
c. c.Plasticity
d. d.Torsional
Plasticity
183
196. Acme subcontracting is excavating a trench on a project where you are acting
as a construction manager. They are stacking the spoils directly adjacent to the trench.
It is raining slightly. The excavation material is in Type A soil. Acme is treating the
excavation as a Type C soil. What do you do?
a. a.Call OSHA
b. b.Threaten not to pay Acme
c. c.Temporarily stop the work until the spoil location hazard
can be remediated
d. d.Stop the work until Acme treats the excavation as a Type A
soil
Temporarily stop the work until the spoil location hazard
| can be remediated
184
197. A column transfers 80 kips of load to a footing. The soil bearing capacity is
known to be 1800 PSF. What is the minimum required area of the footing?
a. a.44.44 square feet
b. b.444 square feet
c. c.0.044 square feet
d. d.22.5 square feet
44.44 square feet
185
```
without pozzolans. The temperature of the concrete is 70 degrees F. What is the
required design pressure?
a. a.1050 PSF
b. b.1500 PSF
c. c.3000 PSF
d. d.105.0 PSF
```
1050 PSF
186
199. A 30 foot high wall is poured at the rate of 10 feet per hour using type 1 cement
without pozzolans. The temperature of the concrete is 70 degrees F. What is the design
pressure?
a. a.4500 PSF
b. b.1500 PSF
c. c.1170 PSF
d. d.624 PSF
1170 PSF
187
```
200. A round pipe full of water is 100 feet high. The pipe diameter is 2'- 0". What is
the pressure at the bottom of the pipe?
a. a.898,560 PSI
b. b.624 PSI
c. c.6,240 PSI
d. d.62,400 PSI
```
898,560 PSI
| WT OF H2O… 1’ of water = .433PSI
188
201. A simply supported beam ten feet long has a 10 Kip load two feet from the left
end. What is the maximum moment in the beam?
a. a.8 kip-feet
b. b.20 kip-feet
c. c.24 kip-feet
d. d.16 kip-feet
16 kip-feet
189
```
202. A force of 500 pounds is placed at the end of a ten inch long wrench. What is
the moment at the far end of the wrench.
a. a.500 Foot-pounds
b. b.500 Inch-pounds
c. c.5000 Inch-pounds
d. d.50 Inch-pounds
```
5000 Inch-pounds
| 10 x 500 = 5000
190
203. A four foot high concrete wall form has fluid state concrete in it to three feet
high. What is the pressure at the bottom of the form?
a. a.150 pounds/square inch
b. b.150 pounds/square foot
c. c.450 pounds/square inch
d. d.450 pounds/square foot
450 pounds/square foot
191
204. A unit of measurement used for determining the cooling capacity equivalent of
12,000 BTUs per hour is which of the following?
a. a.One ton of cooling
b. b.One Horsepower
c. c.SEER
d. d.EER
One ton of cooling
A refrigeration ton is approximately 1 ton
of cooling.
192
205. A wall form is four-feet high, ten-feet long and ten-feet wide. It is full of fluid
concrete. What is the pressure at the bottom of the form?
a. 86,400 psi
b. 600 psf
c. 60,000 psi
d. 60,000 psf
600 psf
150 x 4 = 600
193
206. A simply supported beam ten feet long has a 10 Kip load two feet from the left
end. What is the maximum shear in the beam?
NEED PSF OF
CONCRETE
A refrigeration ton is approximately 1 ton
of cooling.
USE 150#/sf
a. a.8 Kips
b. b.10 Kips
c. c.2 Kips
d. d.12 Kips
8 Kips
194
207. A two-hundred pound person balances on the end of an upright timber 4 x 4
(real size). What is the Unit stress applied to the 4 x 4?
a. a.50 pounds per square inch
b. b.200 pounds per square inch
c. c.22.22 pounds per square inch
d. d.12.5 pounds per square inch
d.12.5 pounds per square inch
195
```
208. According to the President and COO, RedVector.com's courses are increasing at _______
courses per month
a. 300
b. 2000
c. 100
```
100
196
209. Among other issues, a formal letter should include what? (Choose the best
answer)
a. a.Address of the recipient, title of recipient, date of
writing, signature of author
b. b.Editorial comments always
c. c.Unsubstantiated claims about the contract
Address of the recipient, title of recipient, date of
| writing, signature of author
197
210. In order to be submittable in court, the daily diary must be?
a. a.Supported by loose leaf daily reports
b. b.Written every day, in ink, in a bound book
c. c.Submitted once a week in loose leaf
Written every day, in ink, in a bound book
198
211. Memorandums are written for __________?
a. a.External correspondence
b. b.Internal correspondence
c. c.Anonymously as letters to file for future reference only
Internal correspondence
199
212. Among other partners, RedVector.com works with ____________.
a. Indiana State University
b. Harvard
c. University of Florida
Indiana State University
200
213. A well run meeting always has _______.
a. a.strong leadership
b. b.a brainstorming session
c. c.a written agenda
d. d.no need for follow up
written agenda
201
214. The project manager wishes to implement a standard procedure at
the job site for processing and tracking shop drawings. Which form of
communication should be required for this effort?
a. a.Face-to-face
b. b.Telephone conference call
c. c.Written
d. d.Nonverbal
Written
202
216. The daily report is written ________.
a. a.daily and submitted in loose leaf to the various specified
individuals
b. b.in a bound book and kept secret until court
c. c.with editorial comments about the client
d. d.anonymously (no signature or attribution)
daily and submitted in loose leaf to the various specified
| individuals
203
217. The lobby floor was to receive what type of finish?
a. a.Ceramic tile
b. b.Wood flooring
c. c.Concrete topping
d. d.No repair work
Wood flooring
204
218.You, as a Masonry Subcontractor, recently submitted a bid of $450,000 to a
General Contractor for the masonry portion of a new office building. You
are invited to the General Contractor’s office to discuss the project. In the
midst of negotiations, the General Contractor’s representative is called out
of the room. In their absence, you notice the spread sheet listing all the bids
received including yours. It is apparent from the spread sheet that you are
$22,000 higher than the low bidder. The next highest bidder is $8,000 above
you. What action should you take?
a. Lower your price by $25,000 upon the General Contractor’s return, giving the
reason that you had a chance to re-examine your numbers
b. Be concerned that the spread sheet may be a decoy with the intention of getting
you to lower your price enough to become the lowest bidder
c. Continue negotiating with the General Contractor over price upon the General
Contractor’s return to the meeting, always knowing you have the upper hand
d. Maintain your original price quotation, extol the virtues of your company to be
able to meet the schedule, the high quality of your work and your relationship
Maintain your original price quotation, extol the virtues of your company to be
able to meet the schedule, the high quality of your work and your relationship
205
219. Why does the KISS rule apply to good writing?
a. a."Keep It Simple Stupid" is bad because you want to confuse
the issue to win arguments.
b. b."Keep It Simple Stupid" makes the writing clear and concise
c. c."Keep It Simple Stupid" means to write long sentences with
lots of clauses
d. d."Keep It Simple Stupid" means you should use words in your
writing that you and the reader don't understand so you can prove
the reader is simply stupid.
b."Keep It Simple Stupid" makes the writing clear and concise
206
220. True or False. A well run meeting has a written agenda and
written minutes.
a. True
b. False
T
207
Answer: B
Constructor “Z” is building an addition to an existing pharmaceutical plant of approximately 20,000
square feet. There is space on the site for one more future addition. After installing foundations, Ed, the
Constructors Superintendent, is verifying the dimensions with Jim the Bricklayer crew leader and they
discover that the addition has been laid out 1' - 0" out of square. All work can still be performed with
very minor field adjustments. The error will compound itself if the future addition ever takes place. Ed
has worked on Mary the Architect’s projects for over twenty years but never for this owner. What should
Ed do?
a. Ignore the error and tell no one
b. Inform Mary the architect only
c. Inform the Owner and Mary the Architect
d. Have Ed, the superintendent, and Jim, the Bricklayer adjust as required
Inform the Owner and Mary the Architect
208
222. The Superintendent supervises and coordinates the daily activities
of foremen. They plan and schedule the work force, the materials and
equipment and coordinate the subcontracts to promote an efficient
construction of the structure at a profit
a. True
b. False
T
209
223. Well Run Meetings, Good Communications and Document Control, Good
Quality Control, and Good Project Closeout Documentation indicate _____________.
a. a.a poorly run project
b. b.a well run project
c. c.a poorly planned project
d. d.obsessive behavior
a well run project
210
224. The Project Manager has the authority and responsibility for the
successful completion of the project(s) within the contract time and
costs considerations.
a. True
b. False
T
211
225. The shipper of a chiller insists that the shipment left Buffalo, NY two weeks
ago. He claims to have a Bill of Lading, but no Pro Number. Did the chiller ship?
a. a.Yes
b. b.No
No
212
226. What is the simplified version of a trial involving no discovery and having
simplified rules of evidence where both sides agree on an arbitrator, or each side
selects an arbitrator and the two arbitrators elect the third to comprise a panel?
a. a.Mediation
b. b.Arbitration
c. c.Litigation
d. d.Conciliation
Arbitration
213
227. When fabricated reinforcing bars are delivered to the project, a
project representative should cross-check each item
a. a.Before moving to the staging area
b. b.During unloading and storing
c. c.During installing
d. d.After installing
During unloading and storing
214
```
228. What date has been met when construction is completed to the point where it
can be used for its intended purpose?
a. a.Final completion
b. b.Punch-list
c. c.Substantial completion
d. d.Liquidated damage date
```
Substantial completion
215
229. What is the difference between transmittals and submittals?
a. a.Submittals are required "for record" such as certifications
and test reports. Transmittals are required for "approval"
b. b.Transmittals are not required "for record" such as
certifications and test reports. Submittals are required for
"approval"
c. c.Transmittals are required "for record" such as
certifications and test reports. Submittals are required for
"approval"
d. d.Transmittals are required "for record" such as
certifications and test reports. Submittals are not required.
Transmittals are required "for record" such as
certifications and test reports. Submittals are required for
"approval"
216
230. Which of the following is the "on the job" representative of a trade union?
a. a.Steward
b. b.Crew leader
c. c.Business agent
d. d.Superintendent
Steward
217
```
231. Which of the following terms refers to the complete process of
obtaining materials?
a. Leadtime
b. Expediting
c. Purchasing
d. Procurement
```
Procurement
218
232. Which document shows the work involved in completing a project in an
exhaustive, hierarchical tree structure of tasks or deliverables?
a. a.Work Breakdown Structure
b. b.Estimate
c. c.Schedule
d. d.CPM
Work Breakdown Structure
219
233. Which of the following is the most complete list of construction project
resources?
a. a.Cash, materials, work space, labor, equipment.
b. b.Cash, materials, labor, information, equipment, tools, plans
and specifications, schedules.
c. c.Cash, materials, work space, labor, information, equipment,
schedules.
d. d.Cash, materials, work space, labor, information, equipment,
tools, plans and specifications, time, schedules.
Cash, materials, work space, labor, information, equipment,
| tools, plans and specifications, time, schedules.
220
```
234. Which position typically assigns the crews, maintains a job diary
and schedules subcontractors?
a. Superintendent
b. Cost Engineer
c. Project Engineer
d. Project Manager
```
Superintendent
221
235. Who is directly responsible for coordinating subcontractors work on-site, safety
and cleanup management, as well as direct trade supervision such as concrete, labor,
etc?
a. a.Project Engineer
b. b.Project Manager
c. c.Project Clerk
d. d.Project Superintendent
Project Superintendent
222
236. FOB Job Site means the vendor is responsible for shipment of the
order and ownership transfers from the supplier to the buyer at the job
site
a. True
b. False
T
223
237. In a corporate organization, chart dotted lines signify?
a. a.Direct reporting
b. b.Matrix organization
c. c.Indirect reporting
d. d.Functional reporting
Indirect reporting
224
238. A rod-buster is a?
a. Real estate agent
b. High iron worker
c. Re-enforcing steel installer
Re-enforcing steel installer
225
239. Common contract clauses that encourage contractors to suggest
cost-saving changes in the original design frequently state:
a. a.All savings go to the contractor
b. b.All savings go to the owner
c. c.Savings are shared between the owner and the contractor
d. d.Savings are shared between the owner, designer and
contractor
Savings are shared between the owner and the contractor
226
240. Purchase Orders are governed by which law?
a. Uniform Commercial Code
b. The Davis Bacon Act
c. National Labor Relations Act
d. Uniform Transportation Code
Uniform Commercial Code
227
241. The Certificate of Substantial Completion is the substantial
acceptance of the project which is implemented by a joint inspection on
the part of the owner's representative and the contractor.
a. True
b. False
T
228
242. In contrast to a change order, what is to be used where the owner and
contractor, for whatever reason, have not reached agreement on proposed changes in
the contract sum or contract time?
a. a.Change Order
b. b.Notice to Proceed
c. c.Request for Proposal
d. d.Construction Change Directive (CCD)
Construction Change Directive (CCD)
229
243. Projects typically resemble this type of organizational structure where
functional/technical experts report directly to one manager and indirectly to the project
manager responsible for delivery of a project. What is this type of organizational
structure?
a. a.Functional
b. b.Hierarchy
c. c.Matrix
d. d.Staff
Matrix
230
244. The form used to contract with a freight company, commonly known
as a Common Carrier, is called a Bill of Lading.
a. True
b. False
T
231
245. The lifting superintendent on a project rents a forty ton crane. The lift in
question is off a truck on to the ground. The crane boom is at its maximum degree
upright position. The lift is directly in front of the cab, on firm level ground. Parallel
with the tracks. The trucking company weighed the net load at 86,300 pounds. You are
the project manager working on a deadline. What do you do?
a. a.Go ahead with the lift. The added load is less than 8% over
and the crane is probably underated/overdesigned for safety.
b. b.Cancel the lift and call for a larger crane.
c. c.Make the lift very slowly and carefully.
d. d.Put a fork lift under the load to relieve some of the added
weight.
Cancel the lift and call for a larger crane.
1 Ton = 2,000 lbs
20 x 2000 = 80,000 lbs
232
246. The Field Engineer or the Project Engineer doesn't assists the
superintendent in solving engineering related problems
a. True
b. False
F
233
247. The following steps outline a good receiving procedure that all
job sites should follow:
a. Count the quantities received and compare with the packing
list or Bill of Lading for shortages or incorrect materials.
b. Inspect all deliveries for damages. If visual damage is
observed, have the driver sign for damaged cartons on the
delivery receipt, contact the common carrier, request inspection
before unpacking, and file a claim immediately. If the damages
are concealed, save the cartons and all packing material and
contact the common carrier immediately.
c. Compare the packing list with the purchase order, noting the
amount ordered versus the amount shipped.
d. Verify the items shipped meet the requirements outlined on the
purchase order.
e. Designate the lay down area where the materials are being
stored.
f. Prepare a receiving report indicating the condition of
material, amount ordered and amount received and send copies to
Contractor's purchasing department. You should also notify them
of any material shortages. Another copy should be sent to the
contractor's accounting department for comparing the invoiced
items to the items received. A third copy should be sent to the
expediters, informing them that the order has been received.
Finally, a copy should be sent to the field construction
personnel, informing them where the order is located.
g. All of the above
All of the above
234
248. The owners representative has the authority to
a. a.Supervise the contractor's employees
b. b.Negotiate subcontractors
c. c.Process the payroll
d. d.Direct changes and/or clarify the work
Direct changes and/or clarify the work
235
250. The organization plan should contain the following:
a. Be put in writing in the form of a procedure manual.
b. List all duties for each individual.
c. Include an organizational chart for the company and each
project establishing the lines of communication.
d. Be discussed with everyone concerned.
e. All of the above
All of the above
236
```
251. The owner hires the general contractor with a direct contract. Ultimately, who
has QA/QC responsibility to the owner?
a. a.Architect
b. b.Subs
c. c.General Contractor
d. d.City Inspectors
```
General Contractor
237
252. The benchmark is 00.00. The backsights are 6.00, 9.32 and 13.75 and 14.00 The
foresights are 6.00, 9.00 and 3.22. What is the height of the instrument? H.I.
a. a.100.00
b. b.124.85
c. c.24.85
d. d.43.07
24.85
238
253. The benchmark is 100.00. The backsights are 4.00, 6.32 and 12.75. The
foresights are 6.00, 9.00 and 3.22. What is the elevation of the point?
a. a.123.08
b. b.81.78
c. c.104.85
d. d.95.14
104.85
Point BS H1 FS Ele
BM 4 104 100
Tp1 6.32 104.32 6 98
Tp2 12.75 108.07 9 95.32
Tp3 3.22 104.83
BS + E = H1
H1- FS = New Ele
239
254. Wood job-made ladders with spliced side rails shall be used at an angle such
that the horizontal distance is ___ the working length of the ladder.
a. a.one-quarter
b. b.one-eighth
c. c.one-half
d. d.three-quarters
one-eighth
240
255. A topographical map is a drawing showing
a. a.Subsurface soil conditions
b. b.A general profile view of the site
c. c.Contour lines and elevations
d. d.Cross sections along the length of the project
Contour lines and elevations
241
```
256. The gradient is 3%. The sloped distance is 209.00 feet. What is the horizontal
distance?
a. a.209.00 feet
b. b.208.99 feet
c. c.212.00 feet
d. d.209.01 feet
```
```
208.99 feet
Easy answer: 3, 4, 5
Triangle. 209 feet would be
on the slope so it would be
the longest of distances.
The only answer below
209, is option b.
```
242
257. The known ceiling height is 125.00 feet and the known floor height is 112.32
feet. You are set up on the floor. The backsight off the floor is 5.85 feet. What should
the foresight be to the ceiling height?
6.83
243
258. The building is twenty-five feet by twenty five feet. The side line of the building
and two corners along the line have been staked. What is the diagonal distance and the
90 degree distance to the other corners?
a. a.35.36 feet and 25 feet
b. b.25.00 feet and 35.36 feet
c. c.25.00 feet and 25.00 feet
d. d.35.36 feet and 35.36 feet
35.36 feet and 25 feet
```
Easy answer: diagonal distance has to
be longer than the other two sides, so
that eliminates b and c. The description
gave you the distance of the square at
25 feet, so the answer would have to be A.
```
A2 + b2 = c2
625 +625=1250
𝑠𝑞𝑢𝑎𝑟𝑒 𝑟𝑜𝑜𝑡 𝑜𝑓 1250 = 35.36
244
259. The design of an outfall sewer requires a 0.5% grade in the pipe. The outlet
invert is at sea level 0.00'. The sewer run is 6 miles. What is the pipe invert at the end
of the six mile run?
a. a.1584 feet
b. b.158.4 feet
c. c.1584 inches
d. d.158.4 inches
158.4 feet
6 Miles or (5280' x 6) = 31, 680'
31,680 x .005’ = 158.4’
245
260. Where can the centroid of a right triangle be found?
a. a.On the hypotenuse
b. b.At a point perpindicular to the legs at 1/3 of the distance
along either 90 degree leg from the intersection of the legs
c. c.1/2 of the distance along either 90 degree leg from the
intersection of the legs
d. d.1/2 of the distance along either 90 degree leg from the
intersection of the hypotenuse and the leg
At a point perpindicular to the legs at 1/3 of the distance
| along either 90 degree leg from the intersection of the legs
246
261. A "notice to proceed" is a _________?
a. a.Formal document that tells the contractor to begin work and
then fixes the start and finish dates
b. b.Stop work order
c. c.Field order
d. d.RFI
Formal document that tells the contractor to begin work and
| then fixes the start and finish dates
247
262. The sides of a building are 300 feet long and 200 feet wide. What is the
diagonal distance between the opposite corners?
a. a.360.60 feet
b. b.300 feet
c. c.306 feet
d. d.306.6 feet
360.60 feet
A2 + b2 = c2
90,000 +40,000=130,000
𝑠𝑞𝑢𝑎𝑟𝑒 𝑟𝑜𝑜𝑡 𝑜𝑓 1250 = 360.6
248
263. The survey crew is making a differential level run. The benchmark is 532.33'.
The backsights are 4.00', 7.32', 9.25'. The foresights are 3.23', 7.65' and 6.32 '. What is
the elevation of the temporary bench mark?
a. a.537.5
b. b.532.33
c. c.535.7
d. d.528.86
535.7
249
A city electrical inspector makes the following statement after discovering that the new condominium
building # 13 of 25 buildings has been drywalled without an electrical inspection. The inspector says to
you, the superintendent, “Gee! It will be pretty expensive to remove all of the drywall. I’d bet it will cost
you at least $5, 000. I’d like to have that kind of money myself!” (You suspect that the inspector is
asking for a bribe.)
a. Contact the building department supervisor and ask to have hidden areas removed
b. Instruct your workers to remove all of the drywall for the electrical inspection
c. Pay the inspector because you don’t want to be bothered with the situation
d. Contact the City Commissioners and the local newspaper and have the inspector
relieved of their duties
Contact the building department supervisor and ask to have hidden areas removed
250
265. An "as-built" project is a ______
a. Completed project
b. Proposed building
c. Partially completed structure
Completed project
251
266. A contractor has suffered compensable delays amounting to 45
calendar days, in a contract amounted to $2,700,000. During this
year, the contractor had 5 projects underway and the aggregate value
was $10,000,000. The contractor's home office overhead during this
year totaled $250,000. The duration of this project, including delays,
totaled 265 days.
Calculate the home office overhead damages of this claim.
a. $11,174
b. $11,462
c. $21,464
d. $12,412
e. $11,422
11,462
Overhead per day
$250,000/$10,000,000
= .025 𝑐𝑜𝑠𝑡 𝑝𝑒𝑟 𝑡𝑜𝑡𝑎𝑙 $ 𝑜𝑓 𝑝𝑟𝑜𝑗𝑒𝑐𝑡𝑠 𝑎𝑛𝑛𝑢𝑎𝑙𝑙𝑦
$. 025 𝑥 $2,700,000 = $67,500 𝑡𝑜𝑡𝑎𝑙 𝑣𝑎𝑙𝑢𝑒 𝑜𝑓 𝑂𝐻 𝑓𝑜𝑟 𝑝𝑟𝑜𝑗𝑒𝑐𝑡
45 days/265 days = .1698 percentage of delay to total
.025 x 2700000 = 67500 x .1698 = $11,462
252
267. ADR stands for?
a. a.Alternating current
b. b.Alternative Dispute Resolution
c. c.Alternative disruption methods
d. d.All digging records
Alternative Dispute Resolution
253
268. A portable, factory built ladder is to be used in an excavation 10 feet deep. What
is the minimum safe length of the ladder?
a. a.16 feet
b. b.14 feet
c. c.10 feet
d. d.11 feet
14 feet
254
270. "Competent person" by OSHA definition means?
a. a.One who is capable of reading the OSHA regulations after a
collapse.
b. b.One who is capable of testifying to the facts of a collapse
in court.
c. c.One who is capable of identifying existing and predictable
hazards in the surroundings, or working conditions which are
unsanitary, hazardous, or dangerous to employees, and who has
authorization to take prompt corrective measures to eliminate
them
d. d.any project supervisor on the job
One who is capable of identifying existing and predictable
hazards in the surroundings, or working conditions which are
unsanitary, hazardous, or dangerous to employees, and who has
authorization to take prompt corrective measures to eliminate
them
255
```
271. A job built ladder is used in a trench six feet deep. What is the minimum length
of the ladder?
a. a.9 feet
b. b.6 feet
c. c.12 feet
d. d.7 feet
```
9 feet
256
272. Non-self-supporting ladders shall be used at an angle such that the horizontal
distance from the top support to the foot of the ladder is approximately _______of the
working length of the ladder (the distance along the ladder between the foot and the
top support).
a. a.one-half
b. b.three-quarters
c. c.one-quarter
d. d.one-eighth
one-quarter
257
273. Sediment control is required to_______________.
a. a.Keep soils on site and out of sewers and rivers
b. b.Keep site clean.
c. c.Contain hazardous chemicals.
d. d.Control on site dust.
Keep soils on site and out of sewers and rivers
258
274. Each employee working at the leading edge in a CDZ shall be
protected from fall hazards of more than ______ stories or ______ feet
whichever is less.
a. a.two, thirty
b. b.one, ten
c. c.two, fourteen
d. d.one, fourteen
two, thirty
259
```
275. Match the class rating of fire extinguishers with the proper
definition of each class:
___ 1. Class D
___ 2. Class K
___ 3. Class B
___ 4. Class A
___ 5. Class C
```
N/A - Review
260
276. The "10 B" rating for a fire extinguisher indicates:
a. a.Capability to extinguish 10 gallons of flammable liquid
b. b.Capability to extinguish 10 pounds of combustible materials
c. c.Capability to extinguish an electrical fire in 10 minutes
d. d.Capability to extinguish 10 square feet of flammable liquid
spill
Capability to extinguish 10 pounds of combustible materials
261
277. True or False? Employers shall maintain any material safety data
sheets that are received with incoming shipments of hazardous
chemicals, and ensure that they are readily accessible during each
workshift to employees when they are in their work areas; By reference
in 1926.
a. True
b. False
T
262
278. The _________ is responsible for requiring the wearing of
appropriate personal protective equipment in all operations where there
is an exposure to hazardous conditions or where Part 1926 indicates the
need for using such equipment to reduce the hazards to the employees.
a. a.Employee
b. b.Employer
Employer
263
279. The minimum clear distance between side rails for all portable ladders shall be:
a. a.6 inches
b. b.11 1/2 inches
c. c.12 inches
d. d.18 inches
11 1/2 inches
264
280. Where the total length of a climb (on a fixed ladder) equals or
exceeds 24 feet (7.3 m), fixed ladders shall be equipped with the
following items:
a. a.An extra hand hold and a loose rope
b. b.Ladder safety devices; or self-retracting lifelines, and
rest platforms at intervals not to exceed 150 feet (45.7 m); or a
cage or well, and multiple ladder sections, each ladder section
not to exceed 50 feet (15.2 m) in length. Ladder sections shall
be offset from adjacent sections, and landing platforms shall be
provided at maximum intervals of 50 feet (15.2 m) (Your Answer)
c. c.Bungee cords
d. d.Platforms at every 10 feet
Ladder safety devices; or self-retracting lifelines, and
rest platforms at intervals not to exceed 150 feet (45.7 m); or a
cage or well, and multiple ladder sections, each ladder section
not to exceed 50 feet (15.2 m) in length. Ladder sections shall
be offset from adjacent sections, and landing platforms shall be
provided at maximum intervals of 50 feet (15.2 m) (Your Answer)
265
281. Who is responsible for ensuring that all workers on a construction project have
and use personal protective equipment?
a. a.Employees
b. b.Employer
Employer
266
282. Under the workers right to know, they have a right under federal law to be told
what types of chemicals and other hazardous substances are found in the work place
and how they should be handled. What document lists what products are made of?
a. a.OSHA sheets
b. b.Material Data Sheets
c. c.Insurance sheets
d. d.Mechanic Liens
Material Data Sheets
267
283. When portable ladders are used for access to an upper landing surface, the
ladder side rails shall extend at least ________ above the upper landing surface to
which the ladder is used to gain access or, when such an extension is not possible
because of the ladder's length, then the ladder shall be secured at its top to a rigid
support that will not deflect, and a grasping device, such as a grabrail, shall be
provided to assist employees in mounting and dismounting the ladder. In no case shall
the extension be such that ladder deflection under a load would, by itself, cause the
ladder to slip off its support.
a. a.four feet
b. b.three feet
c. c.one foot
d. d.six feet
three feet
268
286. The following is a jumbled list of construction activities. Some of these activities
can be performed simultaneously. All activities take 1 day.
"Pour slab, install studs, install electical rough-in, install plumbing rough-in,
inspections, insulation, drywall"
What is the list of critical path activities?
a. a.Pour slab, install studs, install electical rough-in,
install plumbing rough-in, insulation, drywall.
b. b.Pour slab, install studs, inspections, insulation, drywall.
c. c.Pour slab, install studs, install electical rough-in,
install plumbing rough-in, inspections, insulation, drywall.
d. d.Pour slab, install studs, install electical rough-in,
install plumbing rough-in, inspections, drywall.
Pour slab, install studs, install electical rough-in,
| install plumbing rough-in, inspections, insulation, drywall.
269
289. The time available for an activity (or path) to be delayed from its planned
duration without affecting the project duration is called _______________?
a. a.Lead
b. b.Lag
c. c.Float
d. d.Crashing
Float
270
294. What activities and analysis do you perform on a forward pass in a PDM?
a. a.Subtract durations from ES and use lowest dates when paths
converge.
b. b.Add durations to ES and use lowest dates when paths
converge.
c. c.Add durations to ES and use highest dates when paths
converge
d. d.Subtract durations from ES and use highest dates when paths
converge.
Add durations to ES and use highest dates when paths
| converge
271
```
297. What is the shortening of a project schedule without reducing the project scope,
often resulting in an increase in cost?
a. a.Acceleration
b. b.Crashing
c. c.Duration Compression
d. d.PERT
```
Duration Compression
272
298. Which of the following items is the least important when laying out a
construction project CPM schedule?
a. a.Estimating the trade work and engineering necessary to
accomplish each task
b. b.Choosing the project methodology
c. c.Listing work tasks in a reasonable order
d. d.Ordering the project trailers
Ordering the project trailers
273
299. What is the following a definition of?
"Reducing the duration of a project usually by overlapping phases or activities that
were originally planned to be done sequentially."
a. a.PERT
b. b.Crashing
c. c.FastTracking
d. d.Duration compression
FastTracking
274
300. What is the following a definition of?
"A graphic display of planned and or actual resource usage over a period of time. It is
in the form of a vertical bar chart, the height of each bar representing the quantity of
resource usage in a given time unit. Bars may be single, multiple or show stacked
resources."
a. a.Histogram
b. b.Gantt Chart
c. c.PERT
d. d.CPM
Histogram
275
301. After a $15,000,000 bid on a new pump house, you are publicly regarded as
the apparent second low bidder. The following day one of the subcontractors
for a $4,500,000 portion of the project calls and asks how they compared
with their competitors. The Subcontractor is the low bidder to the
Contractor. What do you tell the subcontractor?
a. Divulge all and hope to put your competitor at a negotiating disadvantage
b. Maintain your silence in respect for the other subcontractors who provided
quotes
c. Provide the subcontractor a ball park idea where they stood, but don’t be
specific
d. Tell him that it is none of their business and hang up on him for bothering
Maintain your silence in respect for the other subcontractors who provided
quotes
276
302. According to the Constructor’s Code of Ethics, The Constructor shall
insure that when providing a service or advice such advice shall be to treat
all parties in a fair and unbiased way. What is the best way for a
Constructor to achieve this?
a. Fire someone for being considered unethical
b. Review your mission and goal statement on ethical behavior
c. Follow the guidelines provided in your employment contract
d. Don’t engage in any practice which creates an unfair advantage for one
party
Don’t engage in any practice which creates an unfair advantage for one
party
277
303. According to the Constructor’s Code of Ethics, The Constructor shall not
maliciously or recklessly injure or attempt to injure the professional
reputation of others. You have just been notified in writing that you have
not met the minimum score required to pass the Level 2 Advanced
Construction Applications Examinations even though you have over twenty
years of experience. What is the Best way to proceed?
a. Call the Commission office and criticize the poor quality of the examination
b. Submit a written request to the Commission, postmarked no later than thirty days
after the notice of failure according to the Appeals Process procedures
c. Obtain the e-mail addresses of all members and send a letter criticizing the quality
of the test questions and that certain portions of the examination were wrong
d. Call the Commission office and ask for hints on how close you were to passing
and what questions should be appealed. Then provide a solid grounds for appeal
Submit a written request to the Commission, postmarked no later than thirty days
after the notice of failure according to the Appeals Process procedures
278
304.The Constructor Code of Ethics principles and standards are stated below.
Which of the following statements are false?
a. The Constructor shall maintain full regard to the public interest in fulfilling their
professional responsibilities to the construction industry.
b. Constructor shall not engage in any deceptive practice, or in any practice that
creates an unfair advantage for the Constructor or another.
c. A Constructor shall maliciously or recklessly injure or attempt to injure the
professional reputation of others.
d. A Constructor shall insure that when providing a service that includes advice,
such advice shall be fair and unbiased.
e. A Constructor shall not divulge to any person, firm or company, information of a
confidential nature acquired during the course of professional activities.
f. A Constructor shall carry out responsibilities in accordance with current
professional practice.
g. A Constructor shall keep informed of new concepts and developments in the
construction process relative to his or her responsibilities
A Constructor shall maliciously or recklessly injure or attempt to injure the
professional reputation of others.
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