Quizlet

Question 1

1. (120). How will an engine failure affect the takeoff mode (TOTO)? (A). Pitch commands will be 15 degrees nose up (B). Pitch will be commanded to maintain V2 (C). Pitch commands will be lowered as appropriate (D). Engine failures have no affect on takeoff mode

Answer 1

(C). Pitch commands will be lowered as appropriate

Question 2

2. (170). Pressing the SPEED button on the FCP twice will: (A). Select DES mode (B). Select IAS mode (C). Select CLB mode (D). Deselect speed mode

Answer 2

B). Select IAS mode

Question 3

3. (50). Both flight directors are active during takeoff, approach and go- around. (A). True (B). False

Answer 3

(A). True

Question 4

4. (80). What would be indicated if only the left green light of a mode button on the FCP illuminated when that mode was selected? (A). The command was acknowledged by both FCCs (B). The command was acknowledged and the autopilot is not engaged (C). The command was not acknowledged (D). The command was acknowledged by one FCC

Answer 4

(D). The command was acknowledged by one FCC

Question 5

5. (340). Selecting the SYNC button will have no effect if the autopilot is engaged. (A). True (B). False

Answer 5

A). True

Question 6

6. (90). What will pressing the course select knob on the FCP accomplish when navigating to a VOR? (A). Selects the cross side NAV source (B). Automatically selects the inbound course for an ILS (C). Causes the course pointer to indicate the zero deviation (direct) (D). Nothing

Answer 6

(C). Causes the course pointer to indicate the zero deviation (direct)

Question 7

7. (360). With the autopilot engaged, pressing the onside FD pushbutton will (A). Disconnect the autopilot only (B). Have no effect on the coupled FD or autopilot (C). Remove the coupled FD and disconnect the autopilot (D). Remove the offside FD

Answer 7

(B). Have no effect on the coupled FD or autopilot

Question 8

8. (290). What is the lowest altitude the autopilot can be used on a precision approach? (A). 600 AGL (B). 400 AGL (C). 80 AGL (D). 50 AGL

Answer 8

(C). 80 AGL

Question 9

9. (500). Pressing the FD Sync button on the control yoke will disengage the autopilot. (A). True (B). False

Answer 9

B). False

Question 10

10. (110). Which heading will the takeoff mode (TOTO) hold? (A). The heading selected by the heading bug (B). The aircraft heading at the moment of pressing the TOGA button (C). The heading at the moment of weight off wheels (D). No heading is held, TOTO is wings level only

Answer 10

C). The heading at the moment of weight off wheels

Question 11

11. (160). During an initial climb, the flight crew has 5,000 ft set in the altitude selector. The pilot has noted an ALTS CAP annunciation on his FMA. At that moment, ATC clears the flight to 10,000 ft which was immediately set in the altitude selector. If no other changes are made, at what altitude will the aircraft level off? (A). 5,000 ft (B). 10,000 ft (C). The final altitude in the flight plan (D). The pilot must press ALT at a desired altitude for the airplane to level off

Answer 11

(A). 5,000 ft

Question 12

12. (30). The FCCs provide instructions to the: (A). Flight directors (B). Yaw dampers (C). Autopilot servomotors (D). All of the above

Answer 12

(D). All of the above

Question 13

13. (320). Which mode on the FCP will have no annunciation in the FMA when selected? (A). ½ BANK (B). TURB (C). B/C (D). ALT

Answer 13

(B). TURB

Question 14

14. (460). ‘A’ (boxed) in the amber displayed on the PFD indicates: (A). Failure of the aileron trim (B). Failure of the aileron PCU (C). Significant aileron pressure is being held by the autopilot (D). Autopilot failure

Answer 14

(C). Significant aileron pressure is being held by the autopilot

Question 15

15. (440). If a new flight director mode becomes active, the annunciation in the FMA will (A). Flash green for 5 seconds then remain steady (B). Flash white 10 times then remain steady (C). Flash yellow then green (D). Flash red then green

Answer 15

A). Flash green for 5 seconds then remain steady

Question 16

16. (330). Which mode is automatically cleared upon an onside localizer capture? (A). TURB (B). ½ BANK (C). Both A and B (D). Neither A or B

Answer 16

C). Both A and B

Question 17

17. (70). The two green lights located on either side of each mode button on the FCP: (A). Indicate which modes are captured (B). Indicate the FCCs have acknowledged the request (C). Indicate that the autopilot is on (D). All of the above

Answer 17

B). Indicate the FCCs have acknowledged the request

Question 18

18. (510). With the autopilot engaged, pressing the offside FD button on the FCP will: (A). Have no effect (B). Remove the offside FD (C). Remove both FDs (D). Disengage the autopilot

Answer 18

B). Remove the offside FD

Question 19

19. (430). When in NAV mode and the captured navigation signal is lost, the FD will: (A). Automatically arm the appropriate NAV mode (B). Will revert to HDG mode (C). Disappear (D). Will default to ROLL mode

Answer 19

(D). Will default to ROLL mode

Question 20

20. (410). If an overspeed were to occur in a VS descent: (A). The overspeed clacker will sound (B). The FCC will synch the speed bug to Vmo/Mmo -5kts. (C). The command bars will pitch up to slow the aircraft (D). All of the above

Answer 20

D). All of the above

Question 21

21. (130). When performing a localizer back course approach, the pilot should: (A). Select the front course of the localizer using the course select knob (B). Select the back course of the localizer using the course select knob (C). Press the B/C button on the FCP (D). Both A and C are correct

Answer 21

D). Both A and C are correct

Question 22

22. (260). Which of the following will NOT disconnect the autopilot? (A). Windshear caution (B). Windshear warning (C). Stall warning (D). The loss of both stab trim channels

Answer 22

A). Windshear caution

Question 23

23. (140). Pressing the TOGA button will disengage the autopilot. (A). True (B). False

Answer 23

A). True

Question 24

24. (60). Which statement is true regarding the FMA? (A). The active/captured field is located to the left of the cyan vertical line (B). The active/captured modes are indicated in green (C). Modes that are capturing will flash green for 5 seconds (D). All of the above

Answer 24

D). All of the above

Question 25

25. (270). A windshear warning or a stall will disengage the autopilot. (A). True (B). False

Answer 25

(A). True

Question 26

26. (400). Illumination of the lights on both sides of a mode push button indicate (A). That the mode has captured (B). That the FCC 1 and FCC 2 have acknowledged that input (C). The mode is armed (D). The autopilot is on

Answer 26

(B). That the FCC 1 and FCC 2 have acknowledged that input

Question 27

27. (100). Pressing the FD SYNC button will: (A). Synchronize FD1 and FD2 if a comparator problem exists (B). Select the same vertical and lateral modes for the pilot and copilot FMAs (C). Synchronizes the FD command bars to the aircrafts current vertical and lateral values (D). Synchronize the autopilot to the flight director

Answer 27

C). Synchronizes the FD command bars to the aircrafts current vertical and lateral values

Question 28

28. (280). What is the lowest altitude the autopilot can be used on a non- precision approach? (A). 600 AGL (B). 400 AGL (C). 80 AGL (D). 50 AGL

Answer 28

B). 400 AGL

Question 29

29. (420). Vertical Pitch Mode (PTCH) is changed by: (A). Stab trim switches (B). Vertical speed pitch wheel (C). Pitch trim wheel on control wheel (D). Selecting another mode

Answer 29

(B). Vertical speed pitch wheel

Question 30

30. (10). While in takeoff mode, the vertical aspect of the command bars will: (A). Pitch up to a fixed 10 deg. angle (B). Pitch to a lower angle following the failure of an engine (C). Have a variable pitch up angle with both engines operating (D). Both B and C above

Answer 30

D). Both B and C above

Question 31

31. (380). There are two green status indicators lights on the Flight control panel. These represent: (A). FCC 1 and FCC 2 (B). FD 1 and FD 2 (C). FCP 1 and FCP 2 (D). Autopilot 1 and Autopilot 2

Answer 31

A). FCC 1 and FCC 2

Question 32

32. (350). A red HDG indication on a PFD would indicate what? (A). The ADC data is invalid (B). The IRS data is invalid (C). Cross-side data is being used (D). The heading difference between both PFDs exceeds 10°

Answer 32

(B). The IRS data is invalid

Question 33

33. (190). Each click on the vertical speed wheel equates to approximately: (A). 100 fpm (B). 200 fpm (C). 500 fpm (D). 1,000 fpm

Answer 33

(A). 100 fpm

Question 34

34. (470). If you engage the ALT mode pushbutton on the FCP, the flight director will: (A). Command capture and tracking of the preselected altitude (B). Command a level off and maintain the new altitude in which it leveled off (C). Maintain pressure altitude existing at time of selection (D). Clear the preselected altitude and delete the aural warnings

Answer 34

(C). Maintain pressure altitude existing at time of selection

Question 35

35. (250). Of the following, which will disconnect the autopilot? (A). Activating the stab trim switches (B). Pressing the AP ENG button on the FCP (C). Pressing the YD DISC button (D). All of the above

Answer 35

D). All of the above

Question 36

36. (230). Choose the correct statement regarding autopilot engagement: (A). Only one IRS is required for autopilot engagement (B). Both stab trim channels must be engaged for autopilot engagement (C). Both yaw dampers must be engaged for autopilot engagement (D). Only one FCC is required for autopilot engagement

Answer 36

A). Only one IRS is required for autopilot engagement

Question 37

37. (520). Choose the correct statement: (A). If ROLL mode is selected, the aircraft will maintain the bank angle present at the time of selection (B). If ROLL mode is selected, the aircraft will roll wings level if the bank angle was less than 10°at the time of selection (C). If ROLL mode is selected, the aircraft will maintain the bank angle present at the time of selection if it was greater than 5° (D). The default lateral mode of the FCC is HDG

Answer 37

C). If ROLL mode is selected, the aircraft will maintain the bank angle present at the time of selection if it was greater than 5°

Question 38

38. (150). Above what altitude will half bank mode be selected automatically? (A). 15,000 (B). 31,000 (C). 31,600 (D). 42,000

Answer 38

C). 31,600

Question 39

39. (490). Choose the correct statement: (A). When CLB mode is engaged the FCC will command the aircraft to hold a desired airspeed regardless of climb rate (B). When DES mode is engaged the FCC will command the aircraft to hold a desired airspeed but will never allow the aircraft to pitch down greater than -1000 feet (C). When IAS or MACH mode is engaged the FCC commands the aircraft to hold a desired airspeed regardless of climb rate (D). IAS or MACH mode will be engaged by the first push of the speed pushbutton

Answer 39

C). When IAS or MACH mode is engaged the FCC commands the aircraft to hold a desired airspeed regardless of climb rate

Question 40

40. (450). Each click on the vertical speed pitch wheel equates to: (A). 1/2 degree change of pitch (B). 100 ft/min change of vertical speed (C). One knot change of airspeed (D). Both A and B are correct

Answer 40

D). Both A and B are correct

Question 41

41. (480). The altitude alert system will provide an aural alert if the aircraft deviates from the selected altitude by: (A). 200 feet (B). 100 feet (C). 50 feet (D). 300 feet

Answer 41

A). 200 feet

Question 42

42. (390). If the aircraft is in ALTS or ALT mode and an overspeed occurs: (A). The AFCS automatically reverts to IAS/MACH mode, the speed bug synchronizes to Vmo/Mmo - 5 knots (B). The autopilot will automatically disconnect to initiate pilot control (C). The overspeed clacker will sound but the aircraft will not leave selected altitude, the pilot must reduce speed manually (D). A higher preselected altitude will be selected by the FCC and the aircraft will pitch up to capture the new altitude while reducing speed

Answer 42

C). The overspeed clacker will sound but the aircraft will not leave selected altitude, the pilot must reduce speed manually

Question 43

43. (210). Auto changeover from IAS to Mach occurs at 31,600 ft. (A). True (B). False

Answer 43

A). True

Question 44

44. (240). The autopilot servomotors control: (A). The aileron (B). The elevator (C). The rudder (D). Both A and B are correct

Answer 44

D). Both A and B are correct

Question 45

45. (310). Operations with an ILS glidepath angle that exceeds ________ degrees are prohibited. (A). 4.0 (B). 3.5 (C). 3.0 (D). 3.25

Answer 45

B). 3.5

Question 46

46. (370). Half bank is activated manually by pressing the 1/2 bank button on the FCP and automatically when climbing through 31,600 ft. (A). True (B). False

Answer 46

A). True

Question 47

47. (300). How must the ATC transponder be set for operation in to RVSM airspace? (A). The transponder must be selected to #1 (B). The transponder must be selected to #2 (C). The transponder must be selected to the same side as the autopilot coupled ADC source (D). The transponder must be selected to the opposite side as the autopilot coupled ADC source

Answer 47

C). The transponder must be selected to the same side as the autopilot coupled ADC source

Question 48

48. (20). There are ____ FCCs which process _______. (A). 2, ADC information only (B). 2, IRS and ADC information (C). 3, IRS and ADC information (D). 4, AHRS heading information and ADC information

Answer 48

B). 2, IRS and ADC information

Question 49

49. (220). In order to engage the autopilot, which of the following conditions must exist? (A). At least one yaw damper must be engaged (B). Both FCCs must be operational (C). At least one IRS and one ADC must be available (D). All of the above

Answer 49

(D). All of the above

Question 50

50. (40). Pressing the XFR button on the FCP will: (A). Select which flight director is active (B). Revert the FD to its original setting upon capturing the onside localizer (C). Selects the operable flight director if the active FD has failed (D). Both A and C are correct

Answer 50

D). Both A and C are correct

Question 51

51. (80). Use of thrust reversers on the ground to slow taxi speeds is: (A). Approved with no restrictions (B). Not approved (C). Approved on uncontaminated surfaces (D). Approved during two engine taxi

Answer 51

B). Not approved

Question 52

52. (10). What is the overall height of the CRJ 900? (A). 24'1" (B). 25'6' (C). 24'10" (D). 28'

Answer 52

A). 24'1"

Question 53

53. (40). What is the minimum pavement width for a 180 deg. turn for the CRJ 900? (A). 80' (B). 90' (C). 57' (D). 75'

Answer 53

A). 80'

Question 54

54. (50). Where is the antenna for ATC 1 located? (A). The tail (B). Lower forward fuselage (C). Upper forward fuselage (D). Upper aft fuselage

Answer 54

(C). Upper forward fuselage

Question 55

55. (70). Miniumum crew required to taxi the aircraft are: (A). 1 (B). 2 (C). 3 (D). 4

Answer 55

(B). 2

Question 56

56. (30). What is the overall length of the aircraft CRJ 900? (A). 119'4" (B). 118'11" (C). 76'3" (D). 110'

Answer 56

B). 118'11"

Question 57

57. (20). What is the wingspan of the CRJ 900? (A). 75' (B). 76''3" (C). 81'6" (D). 106'8"

Answer 57

C). 81'6"

Question 58

58. (100). The beacon must be on for all pushback or towing operations unless "dark" aircraft operations have been approved at that airport. (A). True (B). False

Answer 58

A). True

Question 59

59. (60). Towbarless Towing is not approved with the CRJ 900. (A). True (B). False

Answer 59

B). False

Question 60

60. (110). A special logbook entry is required when: (A). Go around is completed (B). Engine airstart (C). Touch and go landings are completed (D). All of the above

Answer 60

D). All of the above

Question 61

61. (190). The APU utilizes its own oil cooler to maintain oil temperatures within an acceptable range. (A). True (B). False

Answer 61

(A). True

Question 62

62. (150). The APU fuel pump receives its power from: (A). AC BUS (B). DC BUS 1 (C). DC EMER BUS (D). BATTERY BUS

Answer 62

D). BATTERY BUS

Question 63

63. (290). The EICAS caution message "APU FAULT" received in flight will always be followed by the APU automatically shutting down. (A). True (B). False

Answer 63

(B). False

Question 64

64. (360). If the APU oil pressure switch has failed: (A). The APU will shut down in flight (B). The APU will shut down on the ground (C). The APU will continue to run on the ground (D). Both A and C

Answer 64

B). The APU will shut down on the ground

Question 65

65. (180). The APU uses the air/oil heat exchanger of the left main engine. (A). True (B). False

Answer 65

B). False

Question 66

66. (250). One of the locations the APU can be shut down in an emergency is via a switch located in the aft equipment bay. (A). True (B). False

Answer 66

(B). False

Question 67

67. (330). Loss of both EGT sensor channels in flight will cause the APU to shutdown. (A). True (B). False

Answer 67

(B). False

Question 68

68. (210). What is required to start the APU? (A). AC power (B). DC power from the batteries (C). DC power from the batteries or external DC (D). DC power or external air

Answer 68

(B). DC power from the batteries

Question 69

69. (80). The maximum ECS bleed altitude for the APU is: (A). 37,000' (B). 41,000' (C). 25,000' (D). 21,000'

Answer 69

(C). 25,000'

Question 70

70. (240). One of the locations the APU can be shut down in an emergency is via a switch located on the defuel/refill panel. (A). True (B). False

Answer 70

(B). False

Question 71

71. (100). The fuel source for the APU is: (A). From the left collector tank (B). From the right main tank (C). From the right engine feed manifold (D). From the fuel transfer manifold

Answer 71

(A). From the left collector tank

Question 72

72. (140). It is possible to manually select bleed air from the APU and a main engine. (A). True (B). False

Answer 72

B). False

Question 73

73. (370). If the APU door position sensor signal was lost: (A). The APU will shut down in flight (B). The APU will continue to run on the ground (C). The APU will shut down on the ground (D). Both A and C

Answer 73

D). Both A and C

Question 74

74. (170). Choose the correct statement: (A). To prevent compressor surge, the APU uses VG stator vanes to control air flow through the compressor (B). To prevent compressor surge, the APU ECU decreases RPM to maintain airflow through the compressor (C). To prevent compressor surge, some compressor air is vented overboard by a surge control valve (D). To prevent compressor surge, the APU ECU increases fuel flow to burn with excess air in the compressor

Answer 74

(C). To prevent compressor surge, some compressor air is vented overboard by a surge control valve

Question 75

75. (10). The APU compartment is ventilated by: (A). APU compressor by-pass air (B). APU exhaust eductor (C). A fan, mechanically driven from the APU gearbox (D). The APU compartment requires no ventilation

Answer 75

B). APU exhaust eductor

Question 76

76. (120). The green AVAIL light in the APU start/stop switchlight means: (A). APU bleed air is available (B). APU is able to supply electrical loading (C). APU is running (D). APU BITE test is complete

Answer 76

(B). APU is able to supply electrical loading

Question 77

77. (110). Fuel for the APU is provided via: (A). A cross-flow/APU pump drawing fuel from both wings (B). An APU pump drawing fuel from the left collector tank (C). Right engine fuel feed manifold through a negative g check valve (D). Both a and c are correct

Answer 77

(B). An APU pump drawing fuel from the left collector tank

Question 78

78. (60). The maximum operating altitude for the APU is: (A). 37,000' (B). 41,000' (C). 25,000' (D). 21,000'

Answer 78

(B). 41,000'

Question 79

79. (260). One of the locations the APU can be shut down in an emergency is via a switch located on the external service panel. (A). True (B). False

Answer 79

(A). True

Question 80

80. (400). An APU overspeed in flight will cause the APU to shut down. (A). True (B). False

Answer 80

(A). True

Question 81

81. (40). What is the minimum time between APU start attempts that must be observed before another attempt is made? (A). 10 seconds (B). 90 seconds (C). 2 minutes (D). 20 minutes

Answer 81

(C). 2 minutes

Question 82

82. (130). The EGT arc on the APU gauge changes with loading. (A). True (B). False

Answer 82

(A). True

Question 83

83. (220). The APU door has only two positions on the ground. (A). True (B). False

Answer 83

A). True

Question 84

84. (390). The minimum battery voltage to start the APU is: (A). There is no stated minimum (B). 22 volts (C). 24 volts (D). 28 volts

Answer 84

(B). 22 volts

Question 85

85. (50). What is the maximum number of APU start attempts that can be made in one hour? (A). 2 (B). 4 (C). 5 (D). None of the above

Answer 85

D). None of the above

Question 86

86. (270). One of the locations the APU can be shut down in an emergency is via a switch located in the avionics bay. (A). True (B). False

Answer 86

(B). False

Question 87

87. (380). To start the APU: (A). Only the Main Battery is required (B). Only the APU Battery is required (C). Both Main and APU batteries are required (D). The APU battery or External AC is required

Answer 87

C). Both Main and APU batteries are required

Question 88

88. (280). The EICAS caution message "APU FAULT" received on the ground will be followed by the APU automatically shutting down. (A). True (B). False

Answer 88

(A). True

Question 89

89. (300). Dashes in place of the APU door position indicate: (A). The door has failed open (B). The door has failed closed or is not in a commanded position (C). The door position is unknown (D). None of the above

Answer 89

(C). The door position is unknown

Question 90

90. (90). The maximum main engine start altitude using bleed from the APU is: (A). 37,000' (B). 41,000' (C). 25,000' (D). 21,000'

Answer 90

(D). 21,000'

Question 91

91. (320). An ECU internal failure in flight will cause the APU to shutdown. (A). True (B). False

Answer 91

(A). True

Question 92

92. (350). If the APU oil filter is in an impending bypass condition: (A). The APU will shut down in flight (B). The APU will shut down on the ground (C). The APU will continue to run on the ground (D). Both A and C

Answer 92

B). The APU will shut down on the ground

Question 93

93. (200). Choose the correct statement: (A). The APU LCV will not be open if a main engine PRSOV is open (B). The APU can supplement bleed air pressure in the bleed air manifold during low thrust settings in flight (C). If the main engines are operating, the APU LCV will remain open until the APU is shutdown (D). Bleed air from the APU can be used for wing anti-icing during single engine operations

Answer 93

A). The APU LCV will not be open if a main engine PRSOV is open

Question 94

94. (160). The APU generator is rated at: (A). 40 v, 115 Hz AC (B). 40 Hz, 28 VDC (C). 115 VAC, 28 VDC (D). 115 VAC, 40 kVA

Answer 94

D). 115 VAC, 40 kVA

Question 95

95. (310). If an EGT overtemperature is sensed in flight: (A). The APU will shut down (B). The APU will continue to run (C). The APU will shut down, the fire bell will sound, and the FIREX bottle will be discharged (D). The APU will shut down and the fire bell will sound

Answer 95

B). The APU will continue to run

Question 96

96. (70). The maximum starting altitude for the APU is: (A). 37,000' (B). 41,000' (C). 25,000' (D). 21,000'

Answer 96

(A). 37,000'

Question 97

97. (20). The primary function of the APU is: (A). To supply bleed air for main engine start (B). To supply bleed air for pressurization (C). To drive a 40 KVA generator (D). To augment thrust for take off

Answer 97

(C). To drive a 40 KVA generator

Question 98

98. (410). If the APU's oil pressure falls below a predetermined level: (A). The APU will shut down in flight (B). The APU will continue running in flight (C). The APU will continue running on the ground (D). None of the above

Answer 98

(B). The APU will continue running in flight

Question 99

99. (340). High oil temperature will cause: (A). The APU to shutdown on the ground (B). The APU to shutdown in flight (C). The APU to continue to run in flight (D). Both A and C

Answer 99

(D). Both A and C

Question 100

100. (230). Choose the correct statement: (A). In flight, the APU door is either open or closed (B). The APU intake door will open for ventilation if an overheat condition exists in the APU compartment (C). On the ground, the APU door position varies in response to intake air demand as determined by the ECU (D). In flight, the APU door position is variable depending on RPM and aircraft speed

Answer 100

(D). In flight, the APU door position is variable depending on RPM and aircraft speed

Question 101

101. (30). What is the minimum ambient temperature for starting a cold soaked APU on the ground? (A). +40°C (B). -40°C (C). ISA -35°C (D). -25°C

Answer 101

(B). -40°C

Question 102

102. (500). The appropriate setup on the Audio Control Panel with the oxygen mask on is: (A). I/C selected, SPKR on, MASK selected (B). R/T selected, SPKR on, BOOM selected (C). I/C selected, SPKR on, BOOM selected (D). I/C selected, SPKR off, MASK selected

Answer 102

(A). I/C selected, SPKR on, MASK selected

Question 103

103. (190). The 1/2 switch on the RTU is disabled when: (A). An RTU disable switch is selected (B). An RTU fails (C). AC Bus one has failed (D). All of the above

Answer 103

(B). An RTU fails

Question 104

104. (440). Under normal circumstances what frequencies appear in the Backup Tuning Unit? (A). COM 1, NAV 2 (B). COM 1, NAV 1 (C). COM 2, NAV 1 (D). COM 1, COM 2

Answer 104

(B). COM 1, NAV 1

Question 105

105. (250). When selected, the EMER (on the interphone control unit) switchlight flashes amber and a red light flashes on the mid-cabin overhead exit sign. (A). True (B). False

Answer 105

(A). True

Question 106

106. (490). When ground service personnel are connected to the service interphone system, they will hear you: (A). Anytime you push the TX switch to transmit (B). Only when you use the hand mic (C). Anytime your headset is on hot mic (D). Only when you transmit on INT/SVC selection

Answer 106

(C). Anytime your headset is on hot mic

Question 107

107. (40). How is the volume of the PA adjusted? (A). The PA volume knob on either ACP (B). Automatically for aircraft background noise (C). The PA volume knob at the flight attendant station (D). There is no volume adjustment

Answer 107

(B). Automatically for aircraft background noise

Question 108

108. (10). How can the volume of the aural warning system be adjusted? (A). With the speaker volume knob on either ACP (B). With the HI/LO switch on the miscellaneous test panel (C). Automatically, with the engines running (D). It cannot be adjusted

Answer 108

(D). It cannot be adjusted

Question 109

109. (130). To regain cross-side tuning with a failed RTU, the RTU INHIB switch corresponding to the operating unit must be pressed. (A). True (B). False

Answer 109

(B). False

Question 110

110. (340). PA volume is adjusted automatically for the aircraft background noise. (A). True (B). False

Answer 110

(A). True

Question 111

111. (410). The RTU 1 and RTU 2 INHIBIT switches located in the backup tuning unit: (A). Inhibit automatic FMS tuning of the main RTUs (B). Inhibit automatic FMS tuning if the backup turning unit (C). Permit cross-side tuning with one failed RTU (D). Allow the backup tuning unit to be used for communication

Answer 111

(C). Permit cross-side tuning with one failed RTU

Question 112

112. (50). While on the RTU main page for COM 1, the pilot forgets to select RETURN, what will be the outcome? (A). COM 1 will be inoperative until RETURN is selected (B). The squelch will turn off after 20 seconds (C). The top page cannot be accessed until RETURN is selected (D). The RTU will automatically return to the top page after 20 seconds

Answer 112

(D). The RTU will automatically return to the top page after 20 seconds

Question 113

113. (380). The volume of the aural warning system in the headsets is controlled by the INT/SERV knob. (A). True (B). False

Answer 113

(B). False

Question 114

114. (350). The 1/2 button on the RTU is used for: (A). Tuning a failed RTU (B). Cross side tuning of an RTU (C). Shifting the FMS auto-tune function (D). None of the above

Answer 114

(B). Cross side tuning of an RTU

Question 115

115. (180). In the event of a total loss of AC power, radio tuning will be allowed through the: (A). 1/2 Button (B). FMS (C). Backup Tuning Unit (D). RTU inhibit switch

Answer 115

(C). Backup Tuning Unit

Question 116

116. (450). Not all of the switches on the observers Audio Control Panel are operative. (A). True (B). False

Answer 116

(A). True

Question 117

117. (390). There is a speaker associated with all three of the Audio Control Panels. (A). True (B). False

Answer 117

(B). False

Question 118

118. (300). COM 2 and NAV 2 can be tuned in the backup tuning unit. (A). True (B). False

Answer 118

(B). False

Question 119

119. (70). When an RTU fails: (A). The display becomes blank (B). Cross-side tuning becomes inoperative (C). The RTU INHIBIT button should be pushed to regain cross-side tuning ability (D). All of the above

Answer 119

(D). All of the above

Question 120

120. (470). The ELT is located: (A). Foreword nose compartment (B). Left wingtip (C). Right wingtip (D). Aft equipment bay

Answer 120

(D). Aft equipment bay

Question 121

121. (140). The power source for the Backup Tuning Unit is: (A). Essential AC (B). The Battery Bus (C). Essential DC (D). The Service Bus

Answer 121

(B). The Battery Bus

Question 122

122. (460). Once the ELT switch on the ELT control panel is selected to ON, the ELT cannot be deactivated. (A). True (B). False

Answer 122

(B). False

Question 123

123. (510). The FMS tune inhibit switch: (A). Prevents FMS DME tuning function (B). Inhibits the RTU's from manual tuning (C). Prevents the RTU's from being tuned by the FMS CDU (D). None of the above

Answer 123

C). Prevents the RTU's from being tuned by the FMS CDU

Question 124

124. (480). Placing the Emergency/normal switch to EMER on the Captain's side ACP will: (A). RX/TX on VHF 2, audio on NAV 2 and aural warnings (B). RX/TX on VHF 1, audio on NAV 2 and aural warnings (C). RX/TX on VHF 1, audio on ADF 1 and aural warnings (D). RX/TX on VHF 1, audio on NAV 1 and aural warnings

Answer 124

D). RX/TX on VHF 1, audio on NAV 1 and aural warnings

Question 125

125. (20). What is the purpose of the EMER/NORM switch on the ACP? (A). Sets the transponder code to 7700 (B). Establishes communication when the oxygen masks are in use (C). Bypasses the electronic circuits of the integrating system and connects the captain's headset to VHF 1 and NAV 1 (D). Renders the aural warning system inoperative

Answer 125

C). Bypasses the electronic circuits of the integrating system and connects the captain's headset to VHF 1 and NAV 1

Question 126

126. (230). While the flight attendant is making a PA announcement, the captain's PA will override the flight attendants PA. (A). True (B). False

Answer 126

(A). True

Question 127

127. (30). Which statement is true regarding the priority of the PA system? (A). The flight attendant has the highest priority (B). The flight attendant can interrupt the entertainment system and the pilot (C). The pilot has the highest priority (D). There is no priority to the PA system

Answer 127

(C). The pilot has the highest priority

Question 128

128. (280). Pressing the DME-H button on the RTU will disable the RTU from being auto tuned. (A). True (B). False

Answer 128

(A). True

Question 129

129. (370). The observer's ACP does not have all of the same operative features as the pilot's and copilot's. (A). True (B). False

Answer 129

(A). True

Question 130

130. (160). The FMS can be auto-tuned while in DME Hold. (A). True (B). False

Answer 130

(B). False

Question 131

131. (290). The volume of the aural warning system is controlled by the volume knobs on the audio panel. (A). True (B). False

Answer 131

(B). False

Question 132

132. (440). A three position switch behind the copilot's seat allows the MFDs to present maintenance diagnostic computer data. (A). True (B). False

Answer 132

(B). False

Question 133

133. (40). Power for EICAS CRTs: (A). Can come from the batteries and is limited to 5 minutes without AC power for cooling (B). Can come from the batteries and is limited to 5 minutes without packs running for cooling (C). Comes from the AC essential bus and is limited to 5 minutes operation without DC power for cooling (D). Is DC and has no restrictions

Answer 133

(A). Can come from the batteries and is limited to 5 minutes without AC power for cooling

Question 134

134. (170). A red wing duct on the Anti- Ice synoptic page indicates: (A). Anti ice system is heating the wing normally to clear ice (B). Warning or exceeded parameter (C). Insufficient data to determine wing temperature (D). Invalid wing temperature data

Answer 134

(B). Warning or exceeded parameter

Question 135

135. (50). Intensity for CRT displays is adjusted: (A). Independently with small adjustment knobs on each display unit (B). All together using DISPL knob on lighting panel (C). Adjusted bright or dim using the IND LIGHTS switch on the miscellaneous test panel (D). Both A and B

Answer 135

D). Both A and B

Question 136

136. (110). Pressing the MASTER WARNING switchlight silences: (A). Fire bell (B). Triple chime (C). Both A and B (D). Neither A or B

Answer 136

(A). Fire bell

Question 137

137. (330). The Flight Data Recorder records the last 48 hours of flight data. (A). True (B). False

Answer 137

(B). False

Question 138

138. (300). Pushing the MASTER WARNING switchlight also silences the aural warnings except for: (A). Flap clacker, trim clacker, AP disconnect cavalry charge, landing gear warning horn. (B). Stall warbler, GPWS/TCAS, triple chime, overspeed clacker (C). Configuration warnings, overspeed clacker, triple chime, stall warbler (D). All of the above

Answer 138

(D). All of the above

Question 139

139. (490). The CAS button on the EICAS control panel will not allow the "boxing" of caution messages until: (A). Oil pressures are green (B). The main generators are operating and online (C). No associated warning messages are present (D). All of the above

Answer 139

(B). The main generators are operating and online

Question 140

140. (200). Choose the correct statement: (A). Warning messages can be removed from view by pressing the CAS button on the ECP (B). Warning messages always are accompanied by a triple or single clime (C). Warning messages cannot be removed from view unless the applicable failure has been rectified (D). Caution messages can be removed by pressing the CAS button on the ECP provided that one main generator is operating and online

Answer 140

C). Warning messages cannot be removed from view unless the applicable failure has been rectified

Question 141

141. (310). Caution messages will always appear as a ____ message on the CAS. (A). White (B). Amber (C). Red (D). Green

Answer 141

(B). Amber

Question 142

142. (270). A white Hydraulic fluid level indication on the Hydraulic synoptic page indicates: (A). Fluid level is less than 45% (B). Fluid level is more than 85% (C). Considered a normal condition, abnormal conditions would be amber (D). Either A or B

Answer 142

(D). Either A or B

Question 143

143. (500). Magenta coloring on the Synoptic pages indicates: (A). Insufficient data (B). Normal operations (C). Failed item (D). Commanded position

Answer 143

(A). Insufficient data

Question 144

144. (90). Pressing a flashing master warning switchlight: (A). Silences the chime (B). Extinguishes the flashing switchlight (C). Will not silence the fire bell (D). Both B and C

Answer 144

(B). Extinguishes the flashing switchlight

Question 145

145. (240). If the ED1 CRT display should fail: (A). ED1 will automatically be transferred to copilot's MFD position (B). ED1 data is not displayed until a new display for ED1 is selected on the Source Select panel (C). ED1 will automatically be transferred to ED2 (D). ED1 can only be displayed by using the STEP button and ED2display

Answer 145

C). ED1 will automatically be transferred to ED2

Question 146

146. (70). The lamp test switch only tests switchlight annunciators. (A). True (B). False

Answer 146

(A). True

Question 147

147. (380). The most important EICAS message always appears at the top of its associated list. (A). True (B). False

Answer 147

(B). False

Question 148

148. (560). Pushing the MASTER WARNING switchlight will silence the overspeed clacker. (A). True (B). False

Answer 148

(B). False

Question 149

149. (470). When warning messages are displayed, they will be accompanied by: (A). Flashing master caution and aural alert (B). Steady master caution and aural alert (C). Flashing master warning, aural alert or triple chime if applicable (D). Flashing master warning and aural warning

Answer 149

(C). Flashing master warning, aural alert or triple chime if applicable

Question 150

150. (350). Certain caution (amber) messages are inhibited for both takeoff and landing. (A). True (B). False

Answer 150

(A). True

Question 151

151. (10). Messages displayed on EICAS are strictly in the order they occurred. (A). True (B). False

Answer 151

(B). False

Question 152

152. (20). Cooling for the CRTs is provided by: (A). 3 DC powered fans (B). The conditioned air that ventilates the displays (C). AC powered fans (D). Both B and C

Answer 152

(D). Both B and C

Question 153

153. (100). Pressing the MASTER WARNING switchlight silences: (A). Overspeed clacker (B). AP Disconnect cavalry charge (C). Both A and B (D). Neither A or B

Answer 153

(D). Neither A or B

Question 154

154. (420). The DCU's will process inhibit logic to minimize spurious or distracting warning/caution messages during: (A). During takeoff phase only (B). During initial & final takeoff and landing phases only (C). During initial and final takeoff and cruise flight (D). During landing phase only

Answer 154

(B). During initial & final takeoff and landing phases only

Question 155

155. (360). The flight data recorder will begin to record when: (A). BEACON or STROBE switch is selected on (B). Electrical power is supplied to the aircraft (C). The passenger seat belt is ON (D). The FDR EVENT pushbutton is pressed

Answer 155

(A). BEACON or STROBE switch is selected on

Question 156

156. (480). If the EICAS control panel microprocessor fails, _____ manual selections are still operational. (A). Two (B). Three (C). Four (D). One

Answer 156

(C). Four

Question 157

157. (120). A flashing amber master caution indication is accompanied by: (A). A single chime and an aural warning (B). A single chime (C). A triple chime (D). A red EICAS message

Answer 157

(B). A single chime

Question 158

158. (290). A half-intensity magenta pump indication on the Hydraulic synoptic page means: (A). The pump is not operating (B). Invalid data (C). The pump cannot be used (D). None of the above

Answer 158

(B). Invalid data

Question 159

159. (210). Advisory messages can be cleared. (A). True (B). False

Answer 159

(B). False

Question 160

160. (430). The display reversionary panel allows the MFD to be reconfigured. (A). True (B). False

Answer 160

(A). True

Question 161

161. (160). Thrust limit carets and thrust mode annunciation (N1 reference) information is derived from: (A). Manually entering the N1 in the FMS PERF page (B). Phase of flight based on bleed air position (C). Provided by FMS for full thrust settings (D). All of the above

Answer 161

(B). Phase of flight based on bleed air position

Question 162

162. (250). Several pages can be displayed on the PFD using reversionary modes. (A). True (B). False

Answer 162

(B). False

Question 163

163. (340). An EICAS aural alert that continues after the condition no longer exists can be stopped by: (A). Pressing the disable switchlight on the audio warning panel (B). Selecting the aural warn test switch to "off" (C). Reselecting the master warning switchlight (D). Pressing the FDR event button

Answer 163

A). Pressing the disable switchlight on the audio warning panel

Question 164

164. (180). When numerous caution messages are displayed they are arranged by: (A). Order of importance based on a pre-defined scheme (B). Alphabetical order (C). Order in which they occurred (D). Effected system

Answer 164

(C). Order in which they occurred

Question 165

165. (130). MASTER WARNING and MASTER CAUTION switchlights cannot be dimmed. (A). True (B). False

Answer 165

(B). False

Question 166

166. (220). When more caution messages are generated than can be displayed on one screen: (A). Less important caution messages are cleared to make room (B). Oldest caution messages are cleared to make room (C). Multiple pages of messages are generated (D). Caution messages overflow onto ED2

Answer 166

(C). Multiple pages of messages are generated

Question 167

167. (460). If the EICAS control panel microprocessor fails there are manual selections that are still available. (A). True (B). False

Answer 167

(A). True

Question 168

168. (390). In the event of an ED 2 failure: (A). ED 2 should transfer to ED 1 (B). ED 1 should transfer to MFD (C). ED 1 should transfer to ED 2 (D). None of the above is correct

Answer 168

(D). None of the above is correct

Question 169

169. (450). In the event of an ED1 CRT failure: (A). ED 2 will transfer to ED 1 (B). ED 1 will transfer to ED 2 (C). ED 1 will transfer to MFD (D). ED 1 will transfer to PFD (E).

Answer 169

B). ED 1 will transfer to ED 2 truB?

Question 170

170. (280). The buttons that can be manually controlled on the EICAS control panel are: (A). MENU, UP, DN, STEP (B). PRI, STAT (C). PRI, STAT, STEP (D). PRI, STAT, CAS, STEP

Answer 170

D). PRI, STAT, CAS, STEP

Question 171

171. (190). Green EICAS messages are _________ messages. (A). Advisory (B). Warning (C). Status (D). Caution

Answer 171

(A). Advisory

Question 172

172. (230). Certain EICAS messages are inhibited during specific phases of flight. The three phases are: (A). Takeoff, approach & landing (B). Initial takeoff, Final takeoff, Landing (C). Takeoff, Final approach, Taxi (D). Cruise, Final approach, Taxi

Answer 172

(B). Initial takeoff, Final takeoff, Landing

Question 173

173. (150). Should the EICAS control panel (ECP) fail: (A). Some buttons are hard wired and allow access to all of the EICAS information (B). Synoptic pages can be paged by using the STEP button (C). Status and caution messages can be cleared (boxed) (D). All of the above

Answer 173

D). All of the above

Question 174

174. (80). Pressing a flashing master warning switchlight: (A). Silences the chime (B). Extinguishes the flashing switchlight (C). Silences the aural warning (D). Both B and C

Answer 174

D). Both B and C

Question 175

175. (140). All aural warnings are accompanied by a red warning message displayed on EICAS. (A). True (B). False

Answer 175

(A). True

Question 176

176. (550). All caution messages will appear on the initial takeoff phase. (A). True (B). False

Answer 176

(B). False

Question 177

177. (520). Warning messages will always appear as a____message on the CAS. (A). White (B). Red (C). Amber (D). Green

Answer 177

(B). Red

Question 178

178. (410). The four levels of CAS messages in order of importance are: (A). Warning, caution, advisory, status (B). Caution, warning, status, advisory (C). Warning, caution, status, advisory (D). Caution, warning, advisory, status

Answer 178

(A). Warning, caution, advisory, status

Question 179

179. (320). It is possible to remove all caution messages from view when: (A). There are more than 5 cautions messages (B). Engines are stabilized at idle (C). There are no warning messages (D). Caution messages cannot be cleared

Answer 179

(B). Engines are stabilized at idle

Question 180

180. (60). The DCU's primary function is to: (A). Transmit flight data in a concentrated form to ground personnel (B). Detect system malfunctions and initiate automatic EFCS corrections (C). Provide information to the engine indication and crew alerting system (EICAS) (D). Control APU automatic fire protection sequencing

Answer 180

(C). Provide information to the engine indication and crew alerting system (EICAS)

Question 181

181. (260). While in cruise you press the FDR event button. You have: (A). Marked the FDR memory with a timestamp (B). Cleared the FDR data if you held the button for 5 or more seconds (C). None of the above (D). Both A and B

Answer 181

(A). Marked the FDR memory with a timestamp

Question 182

182. (530). The lamp driver unit: (A). Receives information directly from the AHRS bus (B). Controls panel and glareshield light illumination (C). Sends information directly to the FDR (D). Sends information to the IAPS

Answer 182

(B). Controls panel and glareshield light illumination

Question 183

183. (400). To protect the cockpit CRT displays, ground operations with DC power only are limited to: (A). 2 minutes (B). 5 minutes unless the STDBY mode of the display fan has been selected (C). 5 minutes unless low pressure ground air is active (D). 5 minutes

Answer 183

(D). 5 minutes

Question 184

184. (510). Status messages can be cleared by pressing the: (A). CAS button (B). STAT button (C). CLEAR button (D). MENU button

Answer 184

B). STAT button

Question 185

185. (130). The aircraft AC generators are rated at: (A). 120 VAC, 400 HZ at 35 KVA (B). 115 VAC, 400 HZ at 40 KVA (C). 115 VAC, 400 HZ at 35 KVA (D). 115 VAC, 30 HZ at 400 KVA

Answer 185

(B). 115 VAC, 400 HZ at 40 KVA

Question 186

186. (310). At the gate, with the passenger door open and only the APU generator on line, the batteries are not being charged. (A). True (B). False

Answer 186

(B). False

Question 187

187. (260). The ADG supplies AC power to: (A). 1B hydraulic pump and AC service bus (B). 2B hydraulic pump and AC bus 1 (C). ADG Bus and AC ESS bus (D). 3B hydraulic pump and AC service bus

Answer 187

(C). ADG Bus and AC ESS bus

Question 188

188. (140). The DC EMER BUS is always displayed on the DC ELECTRICAL synoptic page. (A). True (B). False

Answer 188

(B). False

Question 189

189. (370). With external AC connected, and the IN USE light illuminated on the external services panel (no other power source in operation): (A). All DC buses are powered (B). The aircraft batteries are being charged (C). The AC SERV bus is being powered (D). All of the above

Answer 189

(D). All of the above

Question 190

190. (40). If an IDG is disconnected in flight by pressing the IDG 1/2 DISC switchlight, deselecting the switchlight will re-connect the IDG. (A). True (B). False

Answer 190

(B). False

Question 191

191. (90). The ADG Bus provides power to: (A). Hydraulic pump 3B (B). Pitch Trim Ch 1 (C). Both A & B (D). Neither A or B

Answer 191

(A). Hydraulic pump 3B

Question 192

192. (270). Deployment of the ADG will supply power to the DC ESS bus via: (A). The SERV TRU (B). The ESS TRU 1 (C). Both A and B (D). None of the above

Answer 192

(B). The ESS TRU 1

Question 193

193. (550). The engine or APU generator output is tripped off and removed from the bus system for which of the following: (A). Under voltage, over frequency, generator or bus over current (B). Over/under voltage, over/under frequency, generator or bus faults (C). Overvoltage, over frequency, generator or bus undercurrent (D). Under voltage, under frequency, generator or bus over current

Answer 193

(B). Over/under voltage, over/under frequency, generator or bus faults

Question 194

194. (30). The APU battery is: (A). 24 volts rated at 43 ampere hours (B). 24 volts rated at 17 ampere hours (C). 12 volts rated at 17 ampere hours (D). 12 volts rated at 43 ampere hours

Answer 194

(A). 24 volts rated at 43 ampere hours

Question 195

195. (490). The batteries supply DC electrical power to the following buses: (A). MAIN BATT DIR BUS, APU BATT DIR BUS, DC EMER BUS, SERV BUS (B). MAIN BATT DIR BUS, APU BATT DIR BUS, DC BUS 1, DC BATT BUS (C). MAIN BATT DIR BUS, APU BATT DIR BUS, DC ESS BUS, DC BATT BUS (D). MAIN BATT DIR BUS, APU BATT DIR BUS, DC EMER BUS, DC BATT BUS

Answer 195

(D). MAIN BATT DIR BUS, APU BATT DIR BUS, DC EMER BUS, DC BATT BUS

Question 196

196. (530). Pressing the FDR EVENT pushbutton on the miscellaneous test panel will: (A). Cause the flight data recorder to stop recording (B). Cause then flight data recorder to start recording (C). Time stamp the FDR and cause a advisory message to be displayed on the status page (D). Cause the FDR to record additional inputs

Answer 196

(C). Time stamp the FDR and cause a advisory message to be displayed on the status page

Question 197

197. (170). What radios are tuned in the Back Up tuning unit? (A). COM 1, NAV 2 (B). COM 1, NAV 1 (C). COM 2, NAV 1 (D). COM 1, COM 2

Answer 197

(B). COM 1, NAV 1

Question 198

198. (60). How is RTU cross-side tuning accomplished? (A). Through the use of the ½ key (B). Through the use of the course select button (C). Through the use of the BTU (D). Cross-side tuning is not possible

Answer 198

(A). Through the use of the ½ key

Question 199

199. (310). To regain cross-side tuning with a failed RTU, the RTU INHIB switch corresponding to the failed unit must be pressed. (A). True (B). False

Answer 199

(A). True

Question 200

200. (220). To determine if the squelch is OFF the pilot must: (A). View the main page of the RTU. There are no annunciations (B). Either view the main page of the RTU or look for an annunciation on the top page (C). Look for an annunciation on the standby RTU (D). Ask ATC if they think it is OFF

Answer 200

(B). Either view the main page of the RTU or look for an annunciation on the top page

Question 201

201. (210). The Passenger Service Unit speakers are automatically adjusted for aircraft background noise. (A). True (B). False

Answer 201

(A). True

Question 202

202. (330). The RTU will automatically revert back to the top page from the main page if no inputs have been made for 20 seconds. (A). True (B). False

Answer 202

(A). True

Question 203

203. (100). When will the CVR start recording? (A). With weight off wheels (B). When the beacon is on (C). When electrical power is applied to the aircraft (D). When selected to record on the CVR panel

Answer 203

C). When electrical power is applied to the aircraft

Question 204

204. (430). With an O2 mask on, the jump seat rider would not be able to communicate with the pilots via the overhead speaker. (A). True (B). False

Answer 204

(A). True

Question 205

205. (320). The cockpit voice recorder will start recording when: (A). Electrical power is supplied to the aircraft (B). The landing gear is selected up (C). Thrust levers are advanced above 79% N1 (D). Weight is off wheels

Answer 205

(A). Electrical power is supplied to the aircraft

Question 206

206. (90). The ELT transmits on what frequency? (A). 121.5MHz (B). 406.0 MHz (C). 243.0 MHz (D). All of the above

Answer 206

D). All of the above

Question 207

207. (270). The CVR TEST button performs an internal test of the system. This button needs to be held for: (A). 2 seconds (B). 4 seconds (C). 10 seconds (D). 5 seconds

Answer 207

(D). 5 seconds

Question 208

208. (360). With the aircraft on battery power only, radio tuning will be allowed through the: (A). RTU inhibit switch (B). Backup Tuning Unit (C). FMS (D). 1/2 Button

Answer 208

B). Backup Tuning Unit

Question 209

209. (240). When the MECH/PUSH is pressed, both the light in the center console and the light in the external services panel will illuminate and a two tone chime sounds in the aircraft. Both lights remain on for 30 seconds then extinguish. (A). True (B). False

Answer 209

(A). True

Question 210

210. (110). Where is the CVR located? (A). Beneath the pilot's PFD and MFD (B). In the tail section of the aircraft (C). In the avionics bay (D). Behind the flight instrument panel

Answer 210

B). In the tail section of the aircraft

Question 211

211. (80). If both RTUs fail or if there is a complete loss of AC power, what radios remain operative? (A). None (B). Only COM 1 through the BTU (C). Only NAV 1 through the BTU (D). COM 1 and NAV 1 are available

Answer 211

(D). COM 1 and NAV 1 are available

Question 212

212. (400). The order of priority with regards to PA announcements is: (A). Flight attendant can override the entertainment system and pilots (B). Flight attendant can override the pilots but not the entertainment system (C). Pilot can override the entertainment system but not the flight attendant (D). Pilots can override the entertainment system and flight attendant

Answer 212

(D). Pilots can override the entertainment system and flight attendant

Question 213

213. (520). Placing the EMER switch on the First Officer's side ACP will: (A). RX/TX on VHF 1, audio on NAV 2 and aural warnings (B). RX/TX on VHF 2, audio on NAV 2 and aural warnings (C). RX/TX on VHF 2, audio on NAV 1 and aural warnings (D). RX/TX on VHF 1, audio on ADF 1 and aural warnings

Answer 213

(B). RX/TX on VHF 2, audio on NAV 2 and aural warnings

Question 214

214. (200). The volume of the aural warning system cannot be controlled by the pilots. (A). True (B). False

Answer 214

(A). True

Question 215

215. (420). Which of the following will not operate on the observers ACP? (A). R/T (B). EMER/NORM (C). SPKR (D). B and C

Answer 215

(D). B and C

Question 216

216. (150). The flight crew can communicate with ground personnel at the following locations: (A). Avionics bay, aft equipment bay, external services panel only (B). Avionics bay, aft equipment bay, external services panel, refuel/defuel panel (C). Avionics bay, aft equipment bay, external services panel, external air connection (D). Aft equipment bay, external services panel, refuel/defuel panel only

Answer 216

(B). Avionics bay, aft equipment bay, external services panel, refuel/defuel panel

Question 217

217. (120). When will the FDR start recording? (A). When the beacon is on (B). When the strobe is on (C). Weight off wheels (D). Any of the above conditions

Answer 217

(D). Any of the above conditions

Question 218

218. (350). Choose the correct statement: (A). The crew escape hatch can only be opened from the inside (B). The crew escape hatch can only be opened from the outside (C). The crew escape hatch is attached via hooks to allow the hatch to be completely removed (D). The crew escape hatch is hinged and cannot be removed

Answer 218

(C). The crew escape hatch is attached via hooks to allow the hatch to be completely removed

Question 219

219. (200). The avionics bay door is located on the: (A). Top aft portion of the fuselage (B). Top front portion of the fuselage (C). Lower forward portion of the fuselage (D). Lower aft portion of the fuselage

Answer 219

(C). Lower forward portion of the fuselage

Question 220

220. (190). The avionics bay door is monitored by the PSEU and appears on the EICAS DOORS synoptic page. (A). True (B). False

Answer 220

(A). True

Question 221

221. (310). The handrails should be left extended when the jetbridge is utilized. (A). True (B). False

Answer 221

(B). False

Question 222

222. (290). How many emergency exits (total exits) are provided for the passengers? (A). 2 (B). 3 (C). 4 (D). 6

Answer 222

(D). 6

Question 223

223. (10). The aft equipment bay door is monitored by the PSEU. (A). True (B). False

Answer 223

(B). False

Question 224

224. (140). The crew escape hatch is monitored by the PSEU and has indications on the EICAS DOORS synoptic page. (A). True (B). False

Answer 224

(B). False

Question 225

225. (240). The maximum load capacity of the passenger door is: (A). 1,500 lbs or 4 people (B). 1,000 lbs or 4 people (C). There is no limit (D). 5 people

Answer 225

(B). 1,000 lbs or 4 people

Question 226

226. (70). The Avionics Bay door is: (A). A plug type door and can only be opened from the inside (B). A plug type door and can only be opened from the outside (C). A plug type door and can be opened from both the inside and outside (D). Is located on the right side of the fuselage

Answer 226

(B). A plug type door and can only be opened from the outside

Question 227

227. (170). The crew escape hatch is an outward-opening door, located on the flight deck upper fuselage. (A). True (B). False

Answer 227

(B). False

Question 228

228. (120). An aural "Door" alert is associated with the: (A). The service door (B). The avionics bay door (C). The passenger door (D). All of the above

Answer 228

(C). The passenger door

Question 229

229. (30). The crew escape hatch: (A). Can be opened from the inside and outside (B). Can only be opened from the inside (C). Can only be opened from the outside (D). Is hydraulically operated

Answer 229

(A). Can be opened from the inside and outside

Question 230

230. (100). If the forward left over-wing emergency exit is unsafe: (A). A red L FWD EMER DOOR message is displayed but no aural is sounded (B). A red L FWD EMER DOOR message is displayed and an aural EMER DOOR OPEN is sounded (C). An amber L FWD EMER DOOR message is displayed (D). An amber L FWD EMER DOOR message is displayed and an aural EMER DOOR OPEN is sounded

Answer 230

(C). An amber L FWD EMER DOOR message is displayed

Question 231

231. (300). The main cabin door cannot be closed without the powered door assist. (A). True (B). False

Answer 231

(B). False

Question 232

232. (150). In the event of an emergency the flight deck door can be removed by withdrawing the hinge pins from inside the flight deck. (A). True (B). False

Answer 232

(A). True

Question 233

233. (110). The emergency exits can only be opened from the inside of the aircraft. (A). True (B). False

Answer 233

(B). False

Question 234

234. (180). The flight deck door cannot be opened by occupants in the cabin. (A). True (B). False

Answer 234

(A). True

Question 235

235. (60). What provides mechanical confirmation that the Galley/Service door is locked? (A). A green indicator located below the inner handle (B). A green indicator located below the outer handle (C). A green indicator located below both the inner and outer handle (D). A red indicator located below the inner handle

Answer 235

A). A green indicator located below the inner handle

Question 236

236. (50). Passenger door closing from the inside: (A). Can only be accomplished manually (B). Can only be accomplished electrically (C). Is normally accomplished using DOOR ASSIST switch (D). Can only be accomplished if the APU SERV BUS is selected ON

Answer 236

(C). Is normally accomplished using DOOR ASSIST switch

Question 237

237. (340). A PASSENGER DOOR warning message means: (A). The passenger door is closed (B). The passenger door is open or unsafe (C). The passenger door is broken (D). The passenger door assist motor is broken

Answer 237

(B). The passenger door is open or unsafe

Question 238

238. (210). When opening the passenger door from the inside, pulling the handle up: (A). Unlatches the door (B). Ejects the external handle from its recess (C). Opens the pressurization vent (D). All of the above

Answer 238

(D). All of the above

Question 239

239. (90). An aural "DOOR" is sounded when? (A). Cargo door is open (B). Service door is open (C). Over-wing emergency exit is open (D). Passenger door is open or unsafe

Answer 239

(D). Passenger door is open or unsafe

Question 240

240. (320). Which doors are not displayed on the DOORS synoptic page: (A). Crew escape hatch, aft equipment bay door (B). Crew escape hatch, aft equipment bay door, avionic bay (C). Aft equipment bay door, avionic bay (D). Left and right overwing EMER exits, crew escape hatch

Answer 240

(A). Crew escape hatch, aft equipment bay door

Question 241

241. (130). What is the load limitation with regard to the passenger door? (A). 1000 lbs. (B). Four passengers (C). One passenger per step (D). A and B

Answer 241

D). A and B

Question 242

242. (20). The maximum number of people permitted on the passenger door stairway is: (A). 2 (B). 3 (C). 4 (D). 5

Answer 242

(C). 4

Question 243

243. (360). Which doors can only be opened from outside the aircraft? (A). Aft cargo door, avionics bay door, aft equipment bay door (B). All cargo doors, aft equipment bay door (C). Aft equipment bay door, forward cargo doors, avionics bay door (D). All cargo doors, avionics bay door, aft equipment bay door

Answer 243

D). All cargo doors, avionics bay door, aft equipment bay door

Question 244

244. (230). In case of an emergency the flight deck door can be removed by the: (A). Hinge pins that are accessible from only the flight deck (B). Hinge pins that are accessible from the flight deck and cabin (C). Breaking the deadbolt that secures the door (D). All of the above are true

Answer 244

(A). Hinge pins that are accessible from only the flight deck

Question 245

245. (220). You can ensure the crew escape hatch is properly latched by: (A). Stowing the inner handle (B). Checking the door synoptic page (C). There is no way to verify (D). Checking the two green indicators which line up with the hatch witness marks

Answer 245

(D). Checking the two green indicators which line up with the hatch witness marks

Question 246

246. (260). A sudden loss of flight deck pressurization will: (A). Cause the dead bolt in the cockpit door to release (B). Release the hinge pins on the cockpit door (C). Require the crew to pull the latch on the decompression panel (D). Cause the decompression panel in the flight deck door to open

Answer 246

(D). Cause the decompression panel in the flight deck door to open

Question 247

247. (330). The crew escape hatch can be opened from the inside and outside of the aircraft. (A). True (B). False

Answer 247

(A). True

Question 248

248. (160). The following doors are monitored by the PSEU and have associated indications on DOORS synoptic page: (A). PASSENGER, SERVICE, AVIONIC BAY, FWD & AFT EMER, FWD, CTR & AFT CARGO (B). PASSENGER, SERVICE, AVIONIC BAY, FWD & AFT EMER, FWD, CTR & AFT CARGO, ESCAPE (C). PASSENGER, SERVICE, AVIONIC BAY, EMER, AFT CARGO, FLT DECK (D). PASSENGER, SERVICE, AVIONIC BAY, EMER, FWD, CTR & AFT CARGO, AFT EQUIP

Answer 248

(A). PASSENGER, SERVICE, AVIONIC BAY, FWD & AFT EMER, FWD, CTR & AFT CARGO

Question 249

249. (280). The decompression panel is located on the: (A). Emergency exits (B). Flight deck door (C). Service door (D). Avionic equipment bay

Answer 249

(B). Flight deck door

Question 250

250. (40). The passenger door rests on: (A). Two support wheels when the door is open (B). Two support plates when the door is open (C). One support wheel when the door is open (D). One support plate when the door is open

Answer 250

C). One support wheel when the door is open

Question 251

251. (80). The aft cargo bay door is: (A). A plug type door installed on the right side of the fuselage that can only be opened from the outside (B). A plug type door installed on the left side of the fuselage that can only be opened from the outside (C). A hydraulically operated door installed on the right side of the fuselage (D). A hydraulically operated door installed on the left side of the fuselage

Answer 251

(B). A plug type door installed on the left side of the fuselage that can only be opened from the outside

Question 252

252. (270). The motorized power assist component of the passenger door is activated when: (A). The door is opened from the outside (B). The door handle is pulled to the detent from the inside (C). When selected at the forward FA panel (D). All of the above

Answer 252

(C). When selected at the forward FA panel

Question 253

253. (250). The aft equipment bay door is monitored by the PSEU and appears on the DOORS synoptic page. (A). True (B). False

Answer 253

(B). False

Question 254

254. (390). A red CABIN ALT warning message indicates: (A). Cabin altitude above 10,000 ft. (B). Cabin altitude above 12,500 ft. (C). Cabin altitude above 14,000 ft. (D). Cabin altitude above 8,500 ft.

Answer 254

(A). Cabin altitude above 10,000 ft.

Question 255

255. (600). The outflow valve is opened and closed through the use of: (A). Vacuum pressure from bleed air manifold (B). Electric motor (C). Mechanical spring loaded valves (D). None of the above

Answer 255

(B). Electric motor

Question 256

256. (140). The CRJ 900 contains two independent air conditioning units that are identical in operation. (A). True (B). False

Answer 256

(A). True

Question 257

257. (310). "DISPLAY COOL" message is present when: (A). The flight deck AC is not working (B). A cooling fan has failed (C). Low airflow is sensed at the displays (D). Both B and C are correct

Answer 257

(D). Both B and C are correct

Question 258

258. (730). Avionics cooling air is discharged via two different routes, one for doors open, the other for doors closed. (A). True (B). False

Answer 258

(A). True

Question 259

259. (530). A CARGO OVHT message will be removed when: (A). The overheat condition is removed (B). Placing the CARGO COND AIR switch to FAN position (C). The extinguishing agent is discharged into the compartment (D). Both A and B

Answer 259

(D). Both A and B

Question 260

260. (90). The aural "CABIN PRESSURE" alert is associated with: (A). The cabin altitude exceeding 10,000 feet (B). Failure of the active pressurization controller (C). Differential pressure in excess of 8.6 psi (D). Both A and C

Answer 260

(D). Both A and C

Question 261

261. (80). The active pressurization controller will send a signal to drop the passenger oxygen masks automatically at: (A). 14,000' cabin altitude (B). 10,000' cabin altitude (C). 8,000' cabin altitude (D). 12,500' cabin altitude

Answer 261

(A). 14,000' cabin altitude

Question 262

262. (100). DISPLAY COOL caution message is present: (A). When the cooling fan used for flight fails (B). When the fan is turned to standby (C). Low airflow is sensed at the CRT displays (D). All of the above

Answer 262

(A). When the cooling fan used for flight fails

Question 263

263. (690). Cabin differential pressure will not exceed +8.7psi or -0 .5psi due to pressure relief valves. (A). True (B). False

Answer 263

(A). True

Question 264

264. (410). How many cabin pressure controllers are on the CRJ 900? (A). 1 (B). 2 (C). 3 (D). 4

Answer 264

(B). 2

Question 265

265. (240). When the ram air shutoff valve is selected open, air is routed to provide: (A). Flight deck ventilation (B). Cabin ventilation (C). Hydraulic system heat exchangers (D). Both A and B

Answer 265

(D). Both A and B

Question 266

266. (330). Cabin air outflow is controlled by: (A). CPAM (B). ARINC FAN (C). OUTFLW VALVE selector switch (D). Outflow valve

Answer 266

(D). Outflow valve

Question 267

267. (450). A DISPLAY COOL caution message indicates that: (A). The flight deck AC is not working (B). A cooling fan has failed (C). Low airflow has been sensed at the displays (D). Both B and C are correct

Answer 267

(D). Both B and C are correct

Question 268

268. (370). With RAM AIR selected OPEN, air comes through the scoop at the base of the vertical fin. (A). True (B). False

Answer 268

(A). True

Question 269

269. (270). When the cabin pressurization control switchlight is pressed in: (A). It selects manual mode (B). It selects controller #3 (C). It selects controller designated as standby for that flight (D). It selects ADC #2

Answer 269

(A). It selects manual mode

Question 270

270. (40). The pressurization system automatically pre-pressurizes the aircraft to __________ when the thrust levers are advanced to takeoff: (A). The scheduled cabin pressure (B). -50 ft. (C). -100 ft. (D). -150 ft.

Answer 270

(A). The scheduled cabin pressure

Question 271

271. (130). When smoke is detected in the aft cargo compartment: (A). The Aft cargo intake and exhaust SOVs close (B). Forward cargo intake and exhaust SOVs also close (C). Both bottles are discharge automatically (D). Both A and B

Answer 271

(A). The Aft cargo intake and exhaust SOVs close

Question 272

272. (580). RAM AIR Ventilation is used when: (A). When performing an unpressurized takeoff or landing (B). Using the MAN temperature mode (C). When a single pack has failed (D). Both A and C

Answer 272

A). When performing an unpressurized takeoff or landing

Question 273

273. (610). The manual cabin altitude switch, when selected up in the manual pressurization mode: (A). Causes the outflow valve to open and increase cabin altitude (B). Causes the outflow valves to open and decrease cabin altitude (C). Causes the outflow valves to close and increase cabin altitude (D). Causes the outflow valves to close and decrease cabin altitude

Answer 273

(A). Causes the outflow valve to open and increase cabin altitude

Question 274

274. (150). The cabin pressure controllers: (A). Control all phases of pressurization in automatic mode (B). Control all phases of pressurization in manual mode (C). Are both active at one time (D). Both A and B

Answer 274

(A). Control all phases of pressurization in automatic mode

Question 275

275. (50). The cargo bay heater is enabled through the: (A). Application of DC power (B). Left engine start (C). FAN switch position of the AFT CARGO switch (D). COND AIR switch position of the AFT CARGO switch

Answer 275

D). COND AIR switch position of the AFT CARGO switch

Question 276

276. (250). The right hand pack primarily influences air to the: (A). Passenger compartment (B). Flight compartment (C). Aft equipment (D). Avionics bay

Answer 276

(A). Passenger compartment

Question 277

277. (630). The outflow valve uses _______ to open and close. (A). An electric motor (B). Pneumatic pressure (C). Vacuum pressure from the bleed air manifold (D). None of the above

Answer 277

(A). An electric motor

Question 278

278. (260). In flight, an inadvertent selection of the Man Alt toggle switch on the Cabin (A). Press panel will: (B). Cause the cabin pressure to rise if selected up (C). Cause the cabin pressure to fall if selected down (D). Have no effect unless the Press Cont switchlight has been selected to Man (E). Both A and B

Answer 278

(D). Have no effect unless the Press Cont switchlight has been selected to

Question 279

279. (190). The right pack primarily influences air to the: (A). Passenger compartment (B). Flight deck (C). Cargo compartment (D). Avionics cooling

Answer 279

(A). Passenger compartment

Question 280

280. (590). When the RAM AIR is selected open the air is used for: (A). Flight deck ventilation (B). EFIS cooling (C). EICAS cooling (D). All of the above

Answer 280

(A). Flight deck ventilation

Question 281

281. (740). Cabin pressure is maintained by: (A). A single electrically actuated triple motored outflow valve (B). Two electrically controlled, pneumatically actuated outflow valves (C). A single electrically actuated inflow valve (D). Carefully managing the amount of stress among those occupying the cabin

Answer 281

(A). A single electrically actuated triple motored outflow valve

Question 282

282. (280). Cabin exhaust air is routed: (A). Under floor to the outflow valve at aft pressure bulkhead (B). Under floor through the aft equipment bay (C). Passenger cabin gaspers (D). Flight deck gaspers

Answer 282

(A). Under floor to the outflow valve at aft pressure bulkhead

Question 283

283. (400). Maximum pressure relief differential is: (A). 8.9 PSI (B). 8.1 PSI (C). 8.7 PSI (D). 8.5 PSI

Answer 283

(C). 8.7 PSI

Question 284

284. (430). OVBD COOL caution message indicates: (A). Avionics cooling is not effective (B). The avionics fan designated as primary for that flight has failed or is providing inadequate airflow (C). CRT's are not receiving adequate cooling airflow (D). That the ground valve has failed open in flight

Answer 284

(D). That the ground valve has failed open in flight

Question 285

285. (750). The maximum altitude for single pack operation in a CRJ 900 is: (A). 41,000' (B). 37,000' (C). 31,000' (D). 25,000'

Answer 285

(D). 25,000'

Question 286

286. (620). An AUTO PRESS caution message indicates: (A). That the cabin pressure controller in use has failed (B). That the pressurization system is being used in the manual mode (C). That both of the cabin pressurization controllers have failed (D). That the ram air shut off valve is open

Answer 286

(C). That both of the cabin pressurization controllers have failed

Question 287

287. (110). The low-pressure ground air connection supplies air directly to the: (A). Left and right pack (B). Bleed air manifold (C). Right pack only (D). Flight and passenger distribution systems

Answer 287

(D). Flight and passenger distribution systems

Question 288

288. (500). How many cooling fans are available for the EFIS and EICAS CRT's? (A). 1 (B). 2 (C). 3 (D). 4

Answer 288

(B). 2

Question 289

289. (160). Selecting the AFT CARGO switch to COND AIR: (A). Opens the SOVs and directs air through a heater (B). Opens the left pack SOV (C). Opens the ground valve (D). Both A and C

Answer 289

(A). Opens the SOVs and directs air through a heater

Question 290

290. (60). "CABIN PRESSURE" aural warning will be heard when: (A). Cabin altitude is less than 8500 ft. (B). Cabin pressure is greater than 8.6 PSI (C). Cabin altitude is 10,000 ft or greater (D). Both B and C

Answer 290

(D). Both B and C

Question 291

291. (570). There are _____smoke detectors in the FWD cargo compartment. (A). 1 (B). 2 (C). 3 (D). 4

Answer 291

(C). 3

Question 292

292. (300). The flight abort mode of the automatic pressurization: (A). Is armed during the entire route (B). Alleviates the need to reset the landing elevation when aborting a flight at any point along the route (C). Alleviates the need to reset the landing elevation when aborting a flight below 6,000 feet and is armed or only 10 minutes (D). Both A and B are correct

Answer 292

C). Alleviates the need to reset the landing elevation when aborting a flight below 6,000 feet and is armed or only 10 minutes

Question 293

293. (10). The cargo compartment gets its conditioned air from: (A). Recirculated air (B). Air from the mixing manifold (C). Left pack (D). Both A and B

Answer 293

(D). Both A and B

Question 294

294. (470). The cabin pressure control unit will shift from one controller to the other: (A). When the Press Cont switchlight is pressed twice (B). Shortly after landing (C). When the controller in use fails (D). All of the above

Answer 294

(D). All of the above

Question 295

295. (210). A FAULT light on the air conditioning panel illuminates: (A). Indicates that the pack has failed in both automatic and manual modes (B). Due to underpressure or overtemperature (C). Due to overpressure or undertemperature (D). Due to underpressure or undertemperature

Answer 295

(A). Indicates that the pack has failed in both automatic and manual modes

Question 296

296. (20). The temperature of the cargo bay is controlled by: (A). The flight attendant (B). An automatic temperature controller (C). The temperature setting of the left pack (D). None of the above

Answer 296

(B). An automatic temperature controller

Question 297

297. (510). The flight abort mode of the automatic pressurization system: (A). Is disarmed 15 minutes after takeoff (B). Is disarmed once the cabin altitude reaches 3000' (C). Is disarmed once the aircraft altitude is greater than 6000' (D). All of the above

Answer 297

(C). Is disarmed once the aircraft altitude is greater than 6000'

Question 298

298. (220). Packs are cooled in flight by: (A). Fan power (B). Ram air (C). Bleed air (D). Hydraulics

Answer 298

(B). Ram air

Question 299

299. (360). There are three cabin pressure controllers on the CRJ 900. (A). True (B). False

Answer 299

(B). False

Question 300

300. (350). EMER DEPR switchlight when pressed in commands: (A). The outflow valve to close (B). Primary outflow valve to close (C). Secondary outflow valve to close (D). The outflow valve to open

Answer 300

(D). The outflow valve to open

Question 301

301. (200). Maximum negative differential pressure control is: (A). - 0.2 psi (B). - 1.0 psi (C). - 1.5 psi (D). - 0.5 psi

Answer 301

D). - 0.5 psi

Question 302

302. (170). Packs are cooled on the ground by: (A). Fan power (B). APU bleed air (C). Fuel (D). Hydraulics

Answer 302

(A). Fan power

Question 303

303. (550). Switches on the forward FA panel allow for the manipulation of galley heating. (A). True (B). False

Answer 303

(A). True

Question 304

304. (340). Low pressure ground air can be routed through bleed air manifold for engine starting. (A). True (B). False

Answer 304

(B). False

Question 305

305. (460). The low pressure air connection is located on the: (A). Left side of aircraft aft the wing (B). Right side of aircraft aft the wing (C). Under the belly of aircraft (D). Right side of aircraft forward the wing

Answer 305

(B). Right side of aircraft aft the wing

Question 306

306. (480). If the designated ground display cooling fan fails on the ground the FLT ALTN will automatically cool the CRT's. (A). True (B). False

Answer 306

(B). False

Question 307

307. (700). Following an aborted takeoff, cabin pressure will: (A). Equalize within 20 seconds (B). Equalize after opening cabin door (C). Not have to equalize, cabin is not pressurized until weight off wheels (D). Only equalize after pressing the EMER DEPRESS switchlight

Answer 307

(A). Equalize within 20 seconds

Question 308

308. (420). Pressing the EMER DEPRESS switchlight at FL290 will: (A). Drive the outflow valve fully open (B). Allow the cabin to rise to approximately 14,500 ± 500 ft (C). Shut off both packs (D). Both A and B are correct

Answer 308

(D). Both A and B are correct

Question 309

309. (70). ECS data is presented on the: (A). Primary, fuel and ECS synoptic page (B). Secondary, primary, ECS and anti- ice synoptic page (C). Primary, ECS and anti-ice synoptic page (D). Primary, secondary, and ECS synoptic page

Answer 309

D). Primary, secondary, and ECS synoptic page

Question 310

310. (230). The left pack normally influences air to the: (A). Passenger compartment (B). Flight deck (C). Cargo compartment (D). Avionics cooling

Answer 310

B). Flight deck

Question 311

311. (320). Pressing the EMER DEPR switchlight will cause: (A). The outflow valve to close (B). The ground valve to close (C). The both pack valves to close (D). The outflow valve to open

Answer 311

(D). The outflow valve to open

Question 312

312. (180). Single pack operations are limited to what altitude? (A). 40,000' (B). 25,000' (C). 20,000' (D). 30,000'

Answer 312

(B). 25,000'

Question 313

313. (380). During ground operations, pneumatic air for the ECS can be obtained from the: (A). APU (B). Engines (C). External air cart (D). All of the above

Answer 313

D). All of the above

Question 314

314. (540). There are two cabin pressure controllers on the CRJ 900. (A). True (B). False

Answer 314

(A). True

Question 315

315. (640). Air temperature exiting the air conditioning packs is varied by: (A). Regulating the temperature of electric heaters (B). Mixing PACK air with ram air in air- to-air heat exchangers (C). Bypassing various stages of the cooling system (D). Regulating the amount of ram airflow over the PACK heat exchangers

Answer 315

(C). Bypassing various stages of the cooling system

Question 316

316. (290). Pressing the EMER DEPRESS switchlight at 25,000' will: (A). Cause the cabin pressure to rise to 25,000' (B). Drive the outflow valve fully open (C). Cause the cabin pressure to rise to approximately 15,000' (D). Both B and C

Answer 316

(D). Both B and C

Question 317

317. (660). When ram air is not available, air is circulated over the PACK heat exchangers by: (A). A fan electrically driven (B). A fan mechanically driven off of accessory gearbox (C). A fan mechanically driven by the APU (D). A fan mechanically driven by the air cycle machine

Answer 317

(D). A fan mechanically driven by the air cycle machine

Question 318

318. (710). While at FL310, the EMER DEPR switchlight is pressed. Cabin altitude will: (A). Descend to 14,500' ± 500' (B). Equal pressure altitude (C). Climb to 14,500' ± 500' (D). Equalize to just below 8psi differential pressure to maintain structural integrity.

Answer 318

(C). Climb to 14,500' ± 500'

Question 319

319. (680). When smoke is detected in the aft cargo compartment: (A). The compartment is automatically sealed and de-pressurized to extinguish the fire (B). The intake and exhaust shut off valves close (C). The cargo fan must be turned off to seal the compartment (D). Ram air is automatically directed into compartment to ventilate the compartment

Answer 319

(B). The intake and exhaust shut off valves close

Question 320

320. (520). Manual temperature control has protection built into the temperature output. (A). True (B). False

Answer 320

(B). False

Question 321

321. (560). There are _____smoke detectors in the AFT cargo compartment. (A). 1 (B). 2 (C). 3 (D). 4

Answer 321

B). 2

Question 322

322. (440). If the cabin altitude reaches 14,000 feet the active pressurization controller will: (A). Send a signal to deploy the oxygen masks for the passengers (B). Illuminate the Seat Belt/No Smoking signs (C). Trigger the oxygen system auto deploy to the flight compartment (D). Trigger the "CABIN PRESS" aural warning

Answer 322

(A). Send a signal to deploy the oxygen masks for the passengers

Question 323

323. (490). The cooling air for the PACK air-to-air heat exchangers is supplied by: (A). Display fan (B). High pressure bleed air (C). Ram air scoop (D). ARINC fan (E)

Answer 323

(C). Ram air scoop?

Question 324

324. (30). During ground operations pneumatic air for the ECS can be obtained from the: (A). APU (B). Engines (C). External air cart (D). All of the above are true

Answer 324

D). All of the above are true

Question 325

325. (120). When in Manual (MAN) mode, the pressurization readouts are displayed on: (A). EICAS primary page (B). Anti-ice synoptic page (C). ECS synoptic page (D). Both A and C

Answer 325

(D). Both A and C

Question 326

326. (180). The closure of DC tie contactors ESS, MAIN, and CROSS are all automatic functions. (A). True (B). False

Answer 326

(A). True

Question 327

327. (570). If the DC SERVICE switch on the electrical power panel is selected ON, the DC service bus is powered from the MAIN battery direct bus. (A). True (B). False

Answer 327

(B). False

Question 328

328. (160). Status of the AC external power is displayed on the: (A). Primary and secondary page (B). Primary and AC electrical synoptic page (C). DC electrical synoptic page (D). AC electrical synoptic page

Answer 328

(D). AC electrical synoptic page

Question 329

329. (540). At the gate, with the passenger door open and only the APU generator on line, the batteries are being charged. (A). True (B). False

Answer 329

(A). True

Question 330

330. (410). The TRU's are max rated at: (A). 100 AMPS (B). 120 AMPS (C). 24 AMPS (D). 28 AMPS

Answer 330

(B). 120 AMPS

Question 331

331. (380). In flight if a complete loss of AC power and a failure of the ADG, the battery will provide: (A). 30 minutes of emergency power (B). 15 minutes of emergency power (C). 10 minutes of emergency power (D). 5 minutes of emergency power

Answer 331

A). 30 minutes of emergency power

Question 332

332. (330). Pressing the EXT AC switchlight on the external services panel connects AC power to: (A). The AC service bus (B). AC buses 1 and 2 (C). The battery chargers (D). All of the above

Answer 332

D). All of the above

Question 333

333. (360). The IDG switchlight FAULT light illuminates when: (A). High oil temperature, low oil pressure is sensed (B). Low oil temperature, high oil pressure is sensed (C). The IDG has been disconnected (D). The IDG has been commanded to disconnect but failed to do so

Answer 333

A). High oil temperature, low oil pressure is sensed

Question 334

334. (320). AC BUS 1 is located on Circuit Breaker Panel 1 which is located: (A). Behind the pilot's seat (B). Behind the copilot's seat (C). In the aft equipment bay (D). None of the above

Answer 334

A). Behind the pilot's seat

Question 335

335. (300). GEN 1(2) OVLD EICAS caution message indicates: (A). Associated generator load is > 40 KVA (B). Associated generator load is > 30 KVA (C). Associated generator load is > 25 KVA (D). Associated generator load is > 35 KVA

Answer 335

(A). Associated generator load is > 40 KVA

Question 336

336. (670). DC BUS 2 can be powered following the failure of TRU 2 via the (A). MAIN DC TIE (B). CROSS TIE (C). ESS TIE (D). None of the above

Answer 336

A). MAIN DC TIE

Question 337

337. (530). The IDG's may be disconnected from the gearbox by: (A). Engine overspeed (B). Engine under speed (C). Deploying the ADG manually (D). Disconnect switchlights on the overhead panel

Answer 337

(D). Disconnect switchlights on the overhead panel

Question 338

338. (640). DC power for normal flight operations can be provided by: (A). The ADG (B). Two nickel cadmium batteries (C). One nickel cadmium battery (D). None of the above

Answer 338

D). None of the above

Question 339

339. (650). The engine or APU generator output is tripped off and removed from the bus system for the following conditions: (A). Over/under voltage, over/under frequency, generator or bus faults (B). Over/under voltage, over/under current, generator or bus over current (C). Over/under amperage, over/under frequency, generator or bus faults (D). Over/under voltage, over/under frequency, generator or bus under current

Answer 339

(A). Over/under voltage, over/under frequency, generator or bus faults

Question 340

340. (210). The power source priority for AC BUS 2 is: (A). GEN 1, APU GEN, GEN 2, external power (B). GEN 2, GEN 1, APU GEN, external power (C). GEN 2, external power, GEN 1, APU GEN (D). GEN 2, APU GEN, GEN 1, external power

Answer 340

(D). GEN 2, APU GEN, GEN 1, external power

Question 341

341. (630). The DC UTIL buses power: (A). Right cabin reading lights (B). The passenger cabin main lighting (C). The lavatory (D). All cabin lighting

Answer 341

(A). Right cabin reading lights

Question 342

342. (430). In flight, pressing the AC ESS XFER switchlight will cause the AC ESS BUS to be powered by: (A). AC BUS 1 (B). AC BUS 2 (C). AC Service BUS (D). GEN 1

Answer 342

(B). AC BUS 2

Question 343

343. (520). Gen 2 normally powers: (A). AC BUS 1, ESS BUS and SERV BUS (B). AC BUS 2, AC ADG bus, and service bus (C). AC BUS 2, ESS BUS and SERV BUS (D). AC BUS 2, ADG BUS, SERV BUS

Answer 343

(C). AC BUS 2, ESS BUS and SERV BUS

Question 344

344. (120). The ADG Manual deploy handle is used to deploy the ADG should the ADG automatic deployment not occur. (A). True (B). False

Answer 344

A). True

Question 345

345. (80). The ADG can only supply power to: (A). AC Bus 1, AC essential, ADG Bus (B). AC Bus 2, AC essential, ADG Bus (C). 3B hydraulic pump, AC Buses No. 1 and No. 2, ADG Bus (D). AC essential, ADG Bus

Answer 345

(D). AC essential, ADG Bus

Question 346

346. (390). The IDG FAULT light is illuminated when the: (A). Engine is on fire (B). CSD Oil temperature is excessive or if CSD oil pressure drops below a predetermined value (C). Engine fails (D). Over torque

Answer 346

(B). CSD Oil temperature is excessive or if CSD oil pressure drops below a predetermined value

Question 347

347. (590). With external AC power active, deselecting AC on the electrical services panel without having another AC power source established will deploy the ADG. (A). True (B). False

Answer 347

B). False

Question 348

348. (190). 115 VAC is supplied to 4 TRU's for DC static conversion, and the TRU's are rated at: (A). 80 AMPS (B). 75 AMPS (C). 120 AMPS (D). 100 AMPS

Answer 348

C). 120 AMPS

Question 349

349. (400). The priority for power to AC BUS 1 is: (A). GEN 1, GEN 2, APU GEN, EXT PWR (B). GEN 1, APU GEN, GEN 2, EXT PWR (C). GEN 1, APU GEN, EXT PWR, GEN 2 (D). GEN 1, GEN 2, APU GEN, EXT PWR

Answer 349

B). GEN 1, APU GEN, GEN 2, EXT PWR

Question 350

350. (170). The primary purpose of the ADG is: (A). To supply power to the 3B hydraulic pump (B). To supply power to the 3A hydraulic pump (C). To supply power to the ADG bus and ESS AC bus (D). To supply power to the ESS DC bus

Answer 350

(C). To supply power to the ADG bus and ESS AC bus

Question 351

351. (200). In flight, the ADG auto deploy function monitors the three main AC generators and main AC buses for: (A). Over voltage (B). Main generator failure (C). Complete AC power failure (D). Over frequency

Answer 351

(C). Complete AC power failure

Question 352

352. (450). Pressing the PWR TXFR OVERRIDE button on the ADG CONTROL panel will: (A). Allow the AC ESS BUS to connect to the AC BUS 1 (B). Allow the AC BUS 2 to connect to the AC ESS (C). Allow the AC ESS BUS to connect to the AC SERV BUS (D). None of the above

Answer 352

(A). Allow the AC ESS BUS to connect to the AC BUS 1

Question 353

353. (560). If the DC SERVICE switch on the electrical power panel is selected ON, the DC service bus is powered from the APU battery direct bus. (A). True (B). False

Answer 353

A). True

Question 354

354. (20). The air driven generator (ADG) is powered by a propeller that utilizes counterweights to control a constant speed. (A). True (B). False

Answer 354

A). True

Question 355

355. (610). The constant speed drive provides a means of converting: (A). Variable generator speed to constant engine speed (B). Variable frequency output from the generators (C). Variable engine speed to constant generator speed (D). Variable generator speed to variable engine speed

Answer 355

(C). Variable engine speed to constant generator speed

Question 356

356. (510). The AC SERV BUS provides power to: (A). Service outlets for maintenance (B). On board thermal heater (C). Service outlets and flight deck lighting (D). Service outlets for passenger cabin and lavatory cleaning

Answer 356

(D). Service outlets for passenger cabin and lavatory cleaning

Question 357

357. (680). The closure of a single DC tie will be indicated by: (A). A caution message (B). A status message (C). Illuminated switchlight on the ELECTRICAL POWER panel (D). None of the above

Answer 357

(B). A status message

Question 358

358. (110). Power for 28 VDC is supplied by: (A). Transformer rectifier units (B). Batteries (C). Inverters (D). Static Inverters

Answer 358

(A). Transformer rectifier units

Question 359

359. (240). The aircraft uses both ____ and ____ electrical power. (A). 120 VAC, 28 VDC (B). 115 VAC, 20 VDC (C). 115 VAC, 28 VDC (D). 115 VDC, 28 VAC

Answer 359

C). 115 VAC, 28 VDC

Question 360

360. (580). With the ADG deployed, the 3B hydraulic pump can be shutdown. (A). True (B). False

Answer 360

(B). False

Question 361

361. (220). The aircraft engine driven generators are rated at: (A). 40 KVA (B). 25 KVA (C). 30 KVA (D). 35 KVA

Answer 361

(A). 40 KVA

Question 362

362. (50). IDG 1 (2) EICAS caution message indicates: (A). Associated IDG has been disconnected. (B). Associated IDG has a low oil pressure condition (C). Associated IDG has a high oil temperature. (D). Both B and C

Answer 362

(D). Both B and C

Question 363

363. (480). The IDG will automatically disconnect when: (A). Low oil pressure (B). Overtemp or overtorque condition (C). High oil temp (D). Overspeed/underspeed

Answer 363

B). Overtemp or overtorque condition

Question 364

364. (230). Deployment of the ADG will automatically activate the 3B hydraulic pump regardless of switch position. (A). True (B). False

Answer 364

A). True

Question 365

365. (100). The air driven generator will provide power to the ADG bus until: (A). Airspeed falls below 155 kts (B). Airspeed falls below 135 kts (C). Airspeed falls below 100 kts (D). None of the above

Answer 365

(B). Airspeed falls below 135 kts

Question 366

366. (660). DC BUS 1 can be powered following the failure of TRU 1 via the (A). MAIN DC TIE (B). CROSS TIE (C). ESS TIE (D). None of the above

Answer 366

A). MAIN DC TIE

Question 367

367. (500). The IDG will be mechanically disconnected if: (A). The internal temp of the CSD exceeds a target value (B). The IDG switchlight is pressed (C). The shaft connecting the IDG to the CSD shears (D). All of the above

Answer 367

D). All of the above

Question 368

368. (690). A "TRU 2 FAIL" status message will normally be accompanied by: (A). DC ESS TIE CLSD status message (B). DC CROSS TIE CLSD status message (C). DC MAIN TIE CLSD status message (D). AC ESS ALTN status message

Answer 368

(C). DC MAIN TIE CLSD status message

Question 369

369. (460). How many TRU's are installed on the CRJ 900? (A). 4 (B). 5 (C). 6 (D). 7

Answer 369

A). 4

Question 370

370. (150). The main battery is: (A). 12 volts 43 ampere hours (B). 24 volts 43 ampere hours (C). 12 volts 17 ampere hours (D). 24 volts 17 ampere hours

Answer 370

D). 24 volts 17 ampere hours

Question 371

371. (620). The ADG can be automatically stowed by re-stowing the ADG Manual handle. (A). True (B). False

Answer 371

B). False

Question 372

372. (420). The external AC power receptacle is located: (A). Below the left engine pylon (B). Below the right engine pylon (C). Near the nose gear (D). At the right wing root

Answer 372

(C). Near the nose gear

Question 373

373. (70). Once disconnected, the IDG: (A). Is automatically re-connected with engine shutdown (B). Can only be re-connected on the ground by maintenance (C). Can be re-connected in flight by reselecting the switchlight (D). Can be re-connected on the ground by reselecting the switchlight

Answer 373

(B). Can only be re-connected on the ground by maintenance

Question 374

374. (60). The DC EMER BUS provides power to the: (A). Engine and APU fire extinguishers, fuel and hydraulic shutoff valves (B). Engine and APU fire extinguishers (C). DC essential items including the cabin lighting (D). DC power to the galley power

Answer 374

(A). Engine and APU fire extinguishers, fuel and hydraulic shutoff valves

Question 375

375. (250). All 3 DC ties operate automatically. (A). True (B). False

Answer 375

(A). True

Question 376

376. (600). Deployment of the ADG will supply power to the DC ESS bus via ESS TRU1. (A). True (B). False

Answer 376

(A). True

Question 377

377. (10). In the event that both essential TRUs fail, the DC essential, battery and emergency bus will be powered by TRU 2 via: (A). The automatic MAIN TIE (B). The automatic CROSS TIE (C). The automatic ESS TIE (D). Both B and C

Answer 377

(D). Both B and C

Question 378

378. (440). With AC external power connected, pushing the Ext AC switchlight in the flight deck will power the: (A). DC buses 1 and 2 (B). AC service bus (C). DC essential bus (D). All of the above

Answer 378

D). All of the above

Question 379

379. (280). The main and APU batteries are kept in a charged condition by battery chargers powered by: (A). AC BUS 1 and AC ESS bus (B). AC BUS 2 and AC SERV bus (C). AC BUS 1 and AC SERV bus (D). None of the above

Answer 379

C). AC BUS 1 and AC SERV bus

Question 380

380. (340). AC BUS 2 is located on Circuit Breaker Panel 2 which is located: (A). Behind pilot's seat (B). Behind copilot's seat (C). In the aft equipment bay (D). None of the above

Answer 380

(B). Behind copilot's seat

Question 381

381. (350). An AC 1 AUTOXFER caution on the primary page indicates: (A). That AC BUS 1 is being powered by AC bus 2 (B). That AC BUS 1 is no longer powered (C). A fault has inhibited the normal bus priority system (D). Both B and C

Answer 381

D). Both B and C

Question 382

382. (470). Pushing the PWR TXFR OVERRIDE pushbutton on the ADG control panel will: (A). Allow the AC ESS BUS to be transferred back to its normal power source (B). Shutdown the ADG power source (C). Connects the DC EMER bus to the DC ESS bus (D). Overrides power from the ADG to the batteries

Answer 382

(A). Allow the AC ESS BUS to be transferred back to its normal power source

Question 383

383. (140). Total, how many fire extinguishers are installed in the cabin of the CRJ 900? (A). 3 (B). 4 (C). 5 (D). 6

Answer 383

B). 4

Question 384

384. (70). How many water fire extinguishers are located on the CRJ 900? (A). 1 (B). 2 (C). 3 (D). 4

Answer 384

A). 1

Question 385

385. (110). ___ PBE (s) are located on the CRJ 900. (A). 1 (B). 2 (C). 3 (D). 4

Answer 385

D). 4

Question 386

386. (80). The FWD F/A station contains: (A). Halon fire extinguisher (B). Water fire extinguisher (C). Smoke detector (D). Life line

Answer 386

A). Halon fire extinguisher

Question 387

387. (50). The CRJ has ____ life line (s) located in the cabin. (A). 1 (B). 2 (C). 3 (D). 4

Answer 387

B). 2

Question 388

388. (40). How many life vests for crew use are located on the CRJ 900 flight deck? (A). 1 (B). 2 (C). 3 (D). 4

Answer 388

C). 3

Question 389

389. (160). Passengers have inflatable life vests installed under their seats that are to be used in the event of a water landing. (A). True (B). False

Answer 389

B). False

Question 390

390. (150). How many protective breathing equipment (PBE) devices are installed on the CRJ 900? (A). 3 (B). 4 (C). 5 (D). 6

Answer 390

(B). 4

Question 391

391. (10). The first aid kits are located: (A). Forward overhead bin (B). Forward flight attendant station (C). Aft overhead bin (D). Both B and C

Answer 391

D). Both B and C

Question 392

392. (60). The smoke detector located in the lavatories can be tested. (A). True (B). False

Answer 392

A). True

Question 393

393. (130). How many Halon extinguishers are installed on the CRJ 900? (A). 2 (B). 3 (C). 4 (D). 5

Answer 393

B). 3

Question 394

394. (20). The PBE located in the flight deck is: (A). Behind the captain (B). Behind the first officer (C). On the sidewall alongside the first officer (D). In the flight deck closet

Answer 394

A). Behind the captain

Question 395

395. (30). How many oxygen masks are located in the flight deck? (A). 1 (B). 2 (C). 3 (D). 4

Answer 395

C). 3

Question 396

396. (90). Oxygen can be supplied to the passengers for _____ minutes via the drop down oxygen masks. (A). 60 minutes (B). 30 minutes (C). 15 minutes (D). 13 minutes

Answer 396

(D). 13 minutes

Question 397

397. (120). The portable oxygen cylinder and masks are located in the: (A). Flight deck (B). Aft overhead compartment (C). Wardrobe Closet (D). Both B and C

Answer 397

(B). Aft overhead compartment

Question 398

398. (100). The XMK is located in the: (A). Flight deck (B). Forward F/A station (C). Aft bulkhead (D). None of the above

Answer 398

(D). None of the above

Question 399

399. (90). The cargo fire extinguisher bottles are located: (A). In the right belly fairing of the aircraft (B). In the nose (C). In aft equipment bay (D). Inside each engine cowl

Answer 399

(A). In the right belly fairing of the aircraft

Question 400

400. (430). The forward cargo compartment has ___ smoke detectors installed in the ceiling. (A). 1 smoke detector (B). 5 smoke detectors (C). 2 smoke detectors (D). 3 smoke detectors

Answer 400

(D). 3 smoke detectors

Question 401

401. (10). Crew exposure to high levels of Halon vapors may result in dizziness, impaired coordination and reduced mental alertness. (A). True (B). False

Answer 401

(A). True

Question 402

402. (360). The Halon fire extinguishers in the cargo bay discharge at different rates. (A). True (B). False

Answer 402

(A). True

Question 403

403. (470). Both cargo fire extinguisher bottles discharge at the same rate. (A). True (B). False

Answer 403

(B). False

Question 404

404. (350). The location of the cabin Halon fire extinguishers are as follows: (A). Two in the cabin and one in the flight deck (B). Two in the flight deck and one in the cabin (C). One in the cabin and one in the flight deck (D). Two in the cabin and two in the flight deck

Answer 404

(A). Two in the cabin and one in the flight deck

Question 405

405. (280). Selecting the CARGO FIREX "BOTTLE ARMED PUSH TO DISCH" switchlight fires: (A). 2 squibs (B). 1 squib (C). 4 squibs (D). 5 squibs

Answer 405

(A). 2 squibs

Question 406

406. (130). A fire or overheat in the exhaust area of the engine is extinguished by shutting down that engine. (A). True (B). False

Answer 406

(A). True

Question 407

407. (140). The engine fire extinguisher bottles are located: (A). In the right belly fairing of the aircraft (B). In the nose (C). In the aft equipment bay (D). Inside each engine cowl

Answer 407

(C). In the aft equipment bay

Question 408

408. (440). There are smoke detection systems for the: (A). Lavatories and cargo compartments (B). Cargo compartments and galley (C). Galley and lavatories (D). Avionics bay, lavatories and cargo compartments

Answer 408

(A). Lavatories and cargo compartments

Question 409

409. (270). Operation of mobile transceivers in close proximity to the smoke detectors, or exhaust fumes from ground handling equipment may cause a false smoke indication in the cargo compartment. (A). True (B). False

Answer 409

(A). True

Question 410

410. (480). With an APU fire indication on the ground the automatic extinguishing will occur within: (A). 4 seconds (B). 2 seconds (C). 3 seconds (D). 5 seconds

Answer 410

(D). 5 seconds

Question 411

411. (250). Fire detection and extinguishing is provided for the: (A). Left and right exhaust areas (B). Left and right pylon areas (C). Left and right wheel bin areas (D). Left and right nacelles and APU areas

Answer 411

(D). Left and right nacelles and APU areas

Question 412

412. (420). A "FIRE SYS FAULT" caution message indicates: (A). Loss of redundancy in the FIDEEX system (B). The FIDEEX system has been tested and is operational (C). Loss of all AIRINC communication to the FIDEEX system (D). A successful test of the FIDEEX system

Answer 412

(C). Loss of all AIRINC communication to the FIDEEX system

Question 413

413. (220). A SMOKE FWD/AFT LAV caution message indicates that: (A). A fire has been detected in the lavatory (B). Smoke has been detected in the lavatory (C). That the fire extinguisher has been activated in the lavatory (D). B and C

Answer 413

(B). Smoke has been detected in the lavatory

Question 414

414. (310). An overheat condition in either the exhaust or the pylon area will be addressed by pressing the appropriate ENG FIRE push switchlight. (A). True (B). False

Answer 414

(A). True

Question 415

415. (30). A single loop detection system is used to monitor the temperature in the main landing gear wheel bins. (A). True (B). False

Answer 415

(A). True

Question 416

416. (330). If there is only one serviceable detector within a cargo compartment, the FIDEEX will automatically switch to single smoke detector operation. (A). True (B). False

Answer 416

(A). True

Question 417

417. (80). Pressing the AFT CARGO SMOKE PUSH switchlight: (A). Arms the squibs for both extinguishers (B). Closes the cargo SOVs for recirculated air, air conditioning, and exhaust (C). Illuminates the BOTTLE ARMED PUSH TO DISCH switchlight (D). All of the above

Answer 417

(D). All of the above

Question 418

418. (50). ___smoke detector(s) are installed in the forward cargo compartment and ___ fire bottle(s) are installed in the aft equipment bay. (A). 2, 2 (B). 2, 1 (C). 3, 2 (D). 1, 2

Answer 418

C). 3, 2

Question 419

419. (210). Fire detection and extinguishing is provided for the left and right wheel bay areas. (A). True (B). False

Answer 419

(B). False

Question 420

420. (20). Pressing the BOTTLE ARMED PUSH TO DISCH switchlight on the CARGO FIREX panel will discharge both of the fire extinguishers. (A). True (B). False

Answer 420

(A). True

Question 421

421. (60). Halon vapors are nontoxic. (A). True (B). False

Answer 421

(A). True

Question 422

422. (400). If smoke is detected in the either cargo compartment: (A). The FWD/AFT CARGO SMOKE PUSH switchlight will illuminate (B). The aural "smoke" warning will sound (C). A SMOKE FWD/AFT CARGO warning message will appear on the primary page (D). All of the above

Answer 422

D). All of the above

Question 423

423. (500). Dual loop fire and overheat detection is provided for the: (A). APU (B). Engine exhaust areas (C). Engine accessory section (D). All of the above

Answer 423

(D). All of the above

Question 424

424. (200). The fire detection system for the engines utilizes: (A). Single loop sensing element (B). Photo electric cell to monitor for smoke (C). Dual loop sensing elements mounted in parallel (D). Two loops mounted in series

Answer 424

(C). Dual loop sensing elements mounted in parallel

Question 425

425. (100). The main landing gear is protected by a dual loop detection system. (A). True (B). False

Answer 425

(B). False

Question 426

426. (170). ENG BOTTLE 1 (2) LO messages are display on: (A). EICAS primary page (B). EICAS status page (C). Pilot's PFD (D). Pilot's MFD (E).

Answer 426

(A). EICAS primary page

Question 427

427. (390). SMOKE FWD/AFT LAV caution message indicates: (A). A fire in the lavatory waste bin (B). A smoke indication in lavatory (C). An overheat detection in lavatory (D). None of the above

Answer 427

(B). A smoke indication in lavatory

Question 428

428. (240). Fire and overheat detection is provided for: (A). Engines, APU, main landing gear (B). Engines, cargo compartments, APU, main & nose landing gear (C). Engines, APU, cargo compartments (D). Engines, APU, main landing gear, cargo compartments

Answer 428

(D). Engines, APU, main landing gear, cargo compartments

Question 429

429. (120). Halon vapors have no effect on animals or humans. (A). True (B). False

Answer 429

(B). False

Question 430

430. (70). The dual loop fire and overheat protection system will detect a bleed air leak in the pylon area. (A). True (B). False

Answer 430

(A). True

Question 431

431. (460). An APU FIRE FAIL caution message indicates: (A). A failure to detect a fire indication (B). A failure of the APU FIRE PUSH switchlight (C). APU fire/overheat detection loop A or B has failed (D). A failure of the APU detection system

Answer 431

(D). A failure of the APU detection system

Question 432

432. (300). In flight when a fire is detected in the APU, the APU will: (A). Shutdown (B). Shutdown and extinguish automatically (C). Do nothing (D). Remain operating with a Fire Bell annunciation

Answer 432

(A). Shutdown

Question 433

433. (450). When the LH or RH ENG FIRE PUSH switchlight is pressed; both bottles squibs are armed but, only the onside BOTTLE ARMED PUSH TO DISCH switchlight illuminates. (A). True (B). False

Answer 433

(B). False

Question 434

434. (230). An APU fire detected on the ground will: (A). Only fire the bottle (B). Shutdown the APU but will not fire bottle (C). Shutdown the APU and display a message on EICAS but will not fire bottle (D). Shutdown the APU, automatically discharge the fire extinguisher and display an EICAS message

Answer 434

(D). Shutdown the APU, automatically discharge the fire extinguisher and display an EICAS message

Question 435

435. (150). Selecting the BOTTLE ARMED PUSH TO DISCH switchlight on the CARGO FIREX panel will: (A). Activate one of the squibs on one of the cargo bottles (B). Activate both squibs on one of the cargo bottles (C). Activate both squibs on both of the cargo bottles (D). None of the above

Answer 435

(D). None of the above

Question 436

436. (260). The fire bell can be silenced by pressing the: (A). Master caution switch light (B). Master warning switch light (C). Left or right eng fire switch light (D). Bottle armed to discharge switch light

Answer 436

(B). Master warning switch light

Question 437

437. (110). On the ground with an APU fire indication the APU will: (A). Trigger an APU FIRE warning message, fire bell and illuminate the APU FIRE PUSH switchlight (B). Shutdown (C). Discharge the bottle (D). All of the above

Answer 437

(D). All of the above

Question 438

438. (410). A successful test of the FIDEEX system will: (A). Generate a FIRE SYS OK advisory message (B). Generate a FIRE SYS OK status message (C). Generate a FIRE SYS FAULT status message (D). None of the above

Answer 438

(A). Generate a FIRE SYS OK advisory message

Question 439

439. (290). When SMOKE is detected in the aft cargo compartment, airflow through the compartment is automatically stopped. (A). True (B). False

Answer 439

(A). True

Question 440

440. (340). When smoke is detected in the aft cargo compartment: (A). Shut off valves automatically close to isolate the compartment (B). Shut off valves automatically open to ventilate the compartment to prevent the smoke from entering the passenger cabin (C). Fire extinguishers automatically discharge in to the compartment (D). Both A and C

Answer 440

(A). Shut off valves automatically close to isolate the compartment

Question 441

441. (180). Dual loop detection is provided for the: (A). Jet exhaust area and pylons (B). Engines (C). APU (D). All of the above

Answer 441

(D). All of the above

Question 442

442. (320). Normally, two cargo detectors must detect smoke to issue a cargo compartment smoke warning. (A). True (B). False

Answer 442

(A). True

Question 443

443. (160). The lavatory fire extinguisher bottle is discharged via: (A). Heat sensitive capsules automatically (B). A switch on FA panel (C). A switch on the pilot's glareshield (D). Switches on the CARGO FIREX panel

Answer 443

(A). Heat sensitive capsules automatically

Question 444

444. (40). Fire extinguishing in the lavatory waste compartment is carried out manually. (A). True (B). False

Answer 444

(B). False

Question 445

445. (490). L FIRE FAIL caution message indicates: (A). A failure to detect a fire indication (B). A failure of the associated FIRE PUSH switchlight (C). A normal test of the FIDEEX system (D). None of the above

Answer 445

(D). None of the above

Question 446

446. (380). ENG BTL 1 (2) LO caution message indicates: (A). Respective bottle has been discharged (B). Respective bottle has failed (C). Halon pressure in the bottle is low (D). Squib 1 (2) has faulted

Answer 446

(C). Halon pressure in the bottle is low

Question 447

447. (370). When the LH or RH ENG FIRE PUSH switchlight is pressed: (A). Both extinguisher squibs are armed (B). Fuel and hydraulic SOV's are closed (C). Bleed air shutoff valves close (D). All of the above

Answer 447

(D). All of the above

Question 448

448. (510). As long as smoke is detected in the cargo bay: (A). The associated CARGO SMOKE PUSH switchlight will remain illuminated (B). The aural "smoke" warning will persist (C). The CARGO SMOKE warning message will remain on the primary page (D). Both A and C

Answer 448

(D). Both A and C

Question 449

449. (470). In the event of a mechanical failure of the slats/flaps control lever: (A). The slats/flaps will operate at half speed (B). The slats/flaps will fail in their present position (C). The slats/flaps will retract to 0° (D). An emergency flap switch will allow limited slat and flap selection

Answer 449

(D). An emergency flap switch will allow limited slat and flap selection

Question 450

450. (580). Operation of the rudder trim will cause rudder pedal deflection in the direction trim was applied. (A). True (B). False

Answer 450

(B). False

Question 451

451. (50). VFE for flaps 30 is: (A). 230 KIAS (B). 220 KIAS (C). 185 KIAS (D). 170 KIAS

Answer 451

(C). 185 KIAS

Question 452

452. (390). To ensure adequate maneuvering margins, the flight spoilers should not be used at speeds below: (A). The approach speed (B). Vref plus 10 kts (C). The recommended approach speed plus 10 KIAS (D). VFE slats/flaps 45 speed

Answer 452

(B). Vref plus 10 its

Question 453

453. (180). The aileron is trimmed trough the use of an aileron trim tab located on the left wing. (A). True (B). False

Answer 453

(B). False

Question 454

454. (280). Pulling the ROLL DISC handle separates the control wheel interconnect and: (A). Establishes a cross-side aileron/spoileron relationship (B). Illuminates a Master Warning ROLL SEL (C). Gives the pilots control of both spoilerons (D). Automatically disables spoileron control on jammed side

Answer 454

(A). Establishes a cross-side aileron/spoileron relationship

Question 455

455. (150). If YD 1 fails, the autopilot will disengage. (A). True (B). False

Answer 455

B). False

Question 456

456. (600). The spoilerons operate on both wings in a turn. (A). True (B). False

Answer 456

B). False

Question 457

457. (80). In the event of a dual engine failure with the APU off, how are the primary flight controls powered? (A). Hydraulic system 2 via ACMP 2B (B). Hydraulic system 3 via ACMP 3B (C). Hydraulic systems 1 and 3 (D). Hydraulic systems 2 and 3

Answer 457

B). Hydraulic system 3 via ACMP 3B

Question 458

458. (30). VFE for flaps 1 and 8 is: (A). 250 KIAS (B). 230 KIAS (C). 235 KIAS (D). 185 KIAS

Answer 458

B). 230 KIAS

Question 459

459. (550). Flutter dampers are installed on each aileron to: (A). Aid in gust lock protection on the ground (B). Prevent aileron control surface flutter when all hydraulic fluid is lost in flight (C). Provide artificial feel force loads (D). Both A and B

Answer 459

D). Both A and B

Question 460

460. (250). In flight the purpose of aileron and elevator flutter dampeners is: (A). To provide flight gust lock when hydraulics are not applied (B). To prevent control surface flutter when hydraulic power is lost to the PCU's (C). To eliminate the onset of MACH tuck (D). To prevent over extension of the control surfaces in excess of their stops

Answer 460

(B). To prevent control surface flutter when hydraulic power is lost to the PCU's

Question 461

461. (560). Each aileron and spoileron is powered by three hydraulic systems. (A). True (B). False

Answer 461

B). False

Question 462

462. (420). Pulling the ROLL DISC handle separates the control wheel interconnect and establishes a cross side aileron/spoileron relationship. (A). True (B). False

Answer 462

A). True

Question 463

463. (140). How many PCUs actuate the rudder? (A). 1 (B). 2 (C). 3 (D). 4

Answer 463

C). 3

Question 464

464. (430). Each elevator is actuated: (A). By 3 PCU(s) (B). Mechanically through cables (C). By 2 PCU(s) (D). By 1 PCU(s)

Answer 464

(A). By 3 PCU(s)

Question 465

465. (110). Pulling the roll disconnect handle isolates the left control wheel and associated cable system from the right aileron system. (A). True (B). False

Answer 465

A). True

Question 466

466. (590). The flaps are electronically controlled by the: (A). SFECUs (B). FCCs (C). PDUs (D). IRSs

Answer 466

A). SFECUs

Question 467

467. (330). If the horizontal stabilizer is in motion at the high rate of trim for more than___, a clacker will activate. (A). 2 seconds (B). 3 seconds (C). 4 seconds (D). 5 seconds

Answer 467

B). 3 seconds

Question 468

468. (100). What is the purpose of the flutter dampers? (A). Prevent control surface flutter with a hydraulic fluid is loss at the PCU in flight (B). Assist with turn coordination (C). Provide gust lock protection (D). Both A and C are correct

Answer 468

D). Both A and C are correct

Question 469

469. (120). Selecting the ROLL SEL switch on the controlling side following the memory items associated with an aileron jam will provide: (A). Off side multi-function spoilers (B). Control of all spoilerons (C). Restoration of all aileron control (D). Only a reminder that the captain is controlling the ailerons

Answer 469

B). Control of all spoilerons

Question 470

470. (370). The auto trim function of the horizontal stabilizer occurs: (A). At all times during flight operations (B). Only when the autopilot is on (C). When the flaps are moving between 0-20 degrees (D). Above 250 KIAS

Answer 470

(C). When the flaps are moving between 0-20 degrees

Question 471

471. (60). VFE for flaps 45 is: (A). 230 KIAS (B). 220 KIAS (C). 185 KIAS (D). 170 KIAS

Answer 471

D). 170 KIAS

Question 472

472. (200). The flaps are actuated by: (A). Hydraulic systems 1 and 2 (B). A dual motor power drive unit (C). Hydraulically through a mechanical linkage (D). Secondary flight control PCUs

Answer 472

B). A dual motor power drive unit

Question 473

473. (400). The 'clacker' associated with the stabilizer trim will sound: (A). If the mach trim has run for more than 5 seconds (B). If the elevator is jammed (C). To alert the pilot to a potential trim runaway (D). All of the above

Answer 473

(C). To alert the pilot to a potential trim runaway

Question 474

474. (610). Utilizing the stab trim with the autopilot engaged will disconnect the autopilot. (A). True (B). False

Answer 474

A). True

Question 475

475. (70). The second spoiler inboard from the wingtip is: (A). A roll spoiler (B). A flight spoiler (C). A ground spoiler (D). A multi-function spoiler

Answer 475

(D). A multi-function spoiler

Question 476

476. (210). If a single flap PDU channel fails, the flaps will still operate but at a reduced speed. (A). True (B). False

Answer 476

A). True

Question 477

477. (540). The ground lift dumping system is controlled by: (A). FCC 1 and 2 (B). SFECU 1 and 2 (C). SSCU 1 and 2 (D). IRS 1 and 2

Answer 477

(C). SSCU 1 and 2

Question 478

478. (440). Use of the slats/flaps is prohibited: (A). Above 15,000 feet (B). When a FLAP HALFSPEED message is displayed (C). En-route (D). Both A and C

Answer 478

D). Both A and C

Question 479

479. (320). The flutter dampers installed on each aileron prevent: (A). Surface flutter when all hydraulic fluid is lost on the ground (B). Surface flutter when all hydraulic fluid is lost in flight (C). Surface flutter when all hydraulic fluid is lost on the ground or in flight (D). Prevent surface flutter when all hydraulic fluid is lost in flight and provide a gust lock function on the ground

Answer 479

(D). Prevent surface flutter when all hydraulic fluid is lost in flight and provide a gust lock function on the ground

Question 480

480. (20). The selecting the EMER FLAP switch to DEPLOY will: (A). Extend the slats/flaps regardless of airspeed (B). Extend the slats and flaps to 20 degrees (C). Fully extend the slats and not move the flaps (D). Leave the slats retracted and extend the flaps to 20 degrees

Answer 480

(B). Extend the slats and flaps to 20 degrees

Question 481

481. (360). The stabilizer trim priority is: (A). Manual trim, autopilot trim, auto trim, mach trim (B). Autopilot, manual trim, auto trim, mach trim (C). Autopilot, auto trim, mach trim, manual trim (D). Auto trim, mach trim, manual trim, autopilot.

Answer 481

(A). Manual trim, autopilot trim, auto trim, mach trim

Question 482

482. (340). A "STALL FAIL" caution message indicates: (A). The stall protect pusher is deactivated or failed (B). One channel of the stall protection computer has failed (C). An angle of attack sensor has failed (D). All of the above

Answer 482

D). All of the above

Question 483

483. (380). In flight, the purpose of the elevator flutter dampeners is: (A). To eliminate the onset of MACH tuck (B). To prevent over extension of the control surfaces in excess of their stops (C). To provide gust lock protection in moderate or greater turbulence (D). To prevent control surface flutter when hydraulic power is lost to the PCU's

Answer 483

(D). To prevent control surface flutter when hydraulic power is lost to the PCU's

Question 484

484. (530). Both STALL PTCT PUSHER switches must be in the "ON" position for stick pusher activation. (A). True (B). False

Answer 484

A). True

Question 485

485. (310). In the event of a jammed rudder: (A). The bungee breakout will aid the pilots control inputs (B). The anti-jam breakout mechanism allows for rudder control requiring additional pedal force (C). 2 of the 3 PCU's will overpower jammed condition (D). There is no jam protection

Answer 485

(B). The anti-jam breakout mechanism allows for rudder control requiring additional pedal force

Question 486

486. (300). The rudder and elevators are powered by all three hydraulic systems. (A). True (B). False

Answer 486

(A). True

Question 487

487. (90). Movement of the primary flight controls is through: (A). Cable and/or pushrods to the PCUs which hydraulically move the flight controls (B). Exclusively through fly-by-wire technology (C). Hydraulic lines running from the control column to the control surface (D). Electric signals sent by the FECU

Answer 487

(A). Cable and/or pushrods to the PCUs which hydraulically move the flight controls

Question 488

488. (260). What aides the crew in directional control during a jammed rudder condition? (A). Bungee cord breakout (B). Rudder cable input summing mechanism (C). Anti-jam mechanism (D). Spoileron and rudder anti-jam interconnect

Answer 488

C). Anti-jam mechanism

Question 489

490. (10). When the flap lever is set to 1: (A). The slats will move to 20 degrees and the flaps will remain at 0 degrees (B). The slats will move to 1 degree and the flaps will move to 1 degree. (C). Inboard slats will move to 20 degrees and outboard slats will move to 10 degrees. Flaps will remain at 0 degrees. (D). Electrically activated flap/slat brakes disengage. Flaps and slats will not move until lever is greater than 8.

Answer 489

(A). The slats will move to 20 degrees and the flaps will remain at 0 degrees

Question 490

491. (500). A SPOILERON ROLL caution message indicates: (A). ROLL DISC handle is pulled with both ROLL SEL pushed (B). ROLL DISC handle is pulled with no ROLL SEL pushed (C). Spoileron fault (D). Both A and B

Answer 490

D). Both A and B

Question 491

492. (170). How many PCUs actuate each elevator? (A). 1 (B). 2 (C). 3 (D). 4

Answer 491

C). 3

Question 492

493. (290). Deployment of the ADG will provide hydraulic pressure for: (A). The primary flight controls (B). The secondary flight controls (C). Aileron and rudder only (D). Both A and B

Answer 492

(A). The primary flight controls

Question 493

494. (490). Choose the correct statement regarding the EMER FLAP switch: (A). Selecting NORM will restore normal flap operation using the Slats/Flaps control lever (B). Selecting DEPLOY will extend the slats/flaps to 30° (C). Selecting DEPLOY will extend only the flaps to 20° (D). Selecting DEPLOY will not override the flap selection of the Slats/Flaps control lever

Answer 493

(A). Selecting NORM will restore normal flap operation using the Slats/Flaps control lever

Question 494

495. (220). The stick pusher cannot be overridden or disabled. (A). True (B). False

Answer 494

(B). False

Question 495

496. (240). The rudder is hydraulically powered by: (A). 1 PCU(s) (B). 2 PCU(s) (C). 3 PCU(s) (D). 4 PCU(s)

Answer 495

(C). 3 PCU(s)

Question 496

497. (160). If the pitch disconnect is pulled, the captain's control wheel controls: (A). The left elevator (B). The right elevator (C). Both elevators (D). Neither elevator

Answer 496

A). The left elevator

Question 497

498. (460). Two gates are associated with the slat/flap lever quadrant at: (A). Slats/Flaps 1 & 8° (B). Slats/Flaps 8 & 20° (C). Slats/Flaps 20 & 30° (D). Slats/Flaps 30 & 45°

Answer 497

B). Slats/Flaps 8 & 20°

Question 498

499. (350). The flaps can be retracted following a "FLAPS FAIL" caution message: (A). True (B). False

Answer 498

B). False

Question 499

500. (450). The POM prohibits the use of flight spoilers at altitudes below: (A). 1500' AGL (B). The FAF (C). 300' AGL (D). 1000' AGL

Answer 499

(D). 1000' AGL

Question 500

501. (510). How many PCUs are installed on each aileron? (A). 1 (B). 2 (C). 3 (D). 4

Answer 500

(B). 2

Question 501

502. (410). The yaw damper responds to inputs from the: (A). DCU (B). FCCs (C). IAPS (D). AHRS

Answer 501

(B). FCCs

Question 502

503. (270). After pulling the ROLL DISC handle, selecting the illuminated ROLL SEL switchlight provides the controlling pilot with: (A). The on-side aileron and ground spoilers (B). Control of all spoilerons (C). The on-side aileron (D). The cross-side aileron

Answer 502

(B). Control of all spoilerons

Question 503

504. (520). Mach Trim is active when: (A). MACH TRIM is selected on (B). At or above 31,600' (C). When hand flying the aircraft (D). Both A and C

Answer 503

(D). Both A and C

Question 504

505. (40). VFE for flaps 20 is: (A). 250 KIAS (B). 230 KIAS (C). 220 KIAS (D). 200 KIAS

Answer 504

(C). 220 KIAS

Question 505

506. (130). During an aileron PCU runaway, the SSCU will command the spoilerons on both sides to respond to control wheel inputs. (A). True (B). False

Answer 505

(A). True

Question 506

507. (480). In cruise flight at 290 KIAS, the EMER FLAP switch is inadvertently selected to DEPLOY. The flaps will: (A). Deploy to 45° (B). Deploy to 20° (C). Not deploy unless the aircraft is slowed to 230 KIAS or less (D). Not deploy unless the aircraft is slowed to 250 KIAS or less

Answer 506

(C). Not deploy unless the aircraft is slowed to 230 KIAS or less

Question 507

508. (570). Moving the aileron trim will cause control wheel rotation. (A). True (B). False

Answer 507

(A). True

Question 508

509. (190). What is the purpose of clacker activation with trim movement exceeding 3 seconds? (A). Trimming must be stopped momentarily or the stab trim motor will overheat (B). To warn the pilot that the stab trim is operating at half speed (C). To alert the pilot of a possible stab trim runaway (D). To warn of a possible trim overspeed condition

Answer 508

(C). To alert the pilot of a possible stab trim runaway

Question 509

510. (50). The pitot static system provides input to: (A). ADC 1 and ADC 2 (B). Cabin pressure control panel (C). Integrated standby instrument (D). All of the above

Answer 509

(D). All of the above

Question 510

511. (10). Which of the following navigation formats may be selected on the Multifunction Display (MFD)? (A). HSI (B). NAV sector (C). FMS map (D). FMS plan map (E). All of the above

Answer 510

(E). All of the above

Question 511

512. (120). What is the purpose of the DSPL CONT switch on the Source Sector Panel? (A). Selects one DCP to control both EFIS displays in the event of a DCP failure (B). Selects the active MFD in the event of a failure (C). Selects one ADC in the event of a failure (D). Both a and c are correct

Answer 511

(A). Selects one DCP to control both EFIS displays in the event of a DCP failure

Question 512

513. (300). An amber GS flag on the PFD indicates: (A). That the glideslope signal has been lost (B). That the glideslope has not been captured (C). That there is a difference between the glideslope indications (D). That the aircraft has deviated from the glideslope

Answer 512

(C). That there is a difference between the glideslope indications

Question 513

514. (320). In the event of a Display Control Panel (DCP) failure, an alternate source for the failed unit can be selected via the: (A). Source Select Panel (B). EFIS Reversionary Panel (C). Display Control Panel (D). Air Data Reference Panel

Answer 513

(A). Source Select Panel

Question 514

515. (30). How can cross-side NAV source be displayed on the MFD? (A). Through the format knob on the Display Control Panel (B). By pressing the X-Side button on the Air Data Reference Panel (C). By pressing the NAV Source knob on the Display Control Panel (D). Cross-side NAV data cannot be displayed

Answer 514

(C). By pressing the NAV Source knob on the Display Control Panel

Question 515

516. (60). The ADCs calculate vertical speed. (A). True (B). False

Answer 515

(A). True

Question 516

517. (70). The digital readout for radio altitude displays: (A). 0 to 2,500 ft MSL (B). 0 to 2,500 ft AGL (C). 0 to 1,100 ft AGL (D). 50 to 200ft AGL

Answer 516

(B). 0 to 2,500 ft AGL

Question 517

518. (180). Pressing the center of the BARO knob located on the FCP will: (A). Select either hPA or Hg display on the PFD

Answer 517

(B). Change the altimeter setting to

Question 518

29.92 inches of mercury (C). Clear the altimeter readout on the PFD (D). Cause the altimeter readout to indicate what the ADC senses

Answer 518

(B). Change the altimeter setting to 29.92 inches of mercury

Question 519

519. (230). The low speed awareness indicator (green line) informs the flight crew that: (A). They have a 25% margin above the stick shaker activation speed that is based on the current flight conditions (B). The stick shaker will activate below that green line (C). They are at the recommended cruise speed for that altitude (D). The onside ADC has failed

Answer 519

(A). They have a 25% margin above the stick shaker activation speed that is based on the current flight conditions

Question 520

520. (250). A flashing amber "PIT" flag on the PFD indicates: (A). A difference of more than 4 degrees before glideslope capture and 4 degrees after glideslope capture (B). A difference of more than 3 degrees before glideslope capture and 4 degrees after glideslope capture (C). A difference of more than 4 degrees before glideslope capture and 3 degrees after glideslope capture (D). A difference of 4 degrees before glideslope capture and less than 3 degrees after glideslope capture

Answer 520

(C). A difference of more than 4 degrees before glideslope capture and 3 degrees after glideslope capture

Question 521

521. (280). In the event of a Display Control Panel failure (DCP), both MFDs can be controlled by one DCP by making a selection on the Source Selector Panel. (A). True (B). False

Answer 521

(A). True

Question 522

522. (150). EFIS COMP INOP caution message indicates: (A). A computer failure in EFIS system (B). Comparator information for one or both PFDs is not available (C). A data process has failed to compute (D). EFIS failure in compensation

Answer 522

(B). Comparator information for one or both PFDs is not available

Question 523

523. (260). IRS initialization takes approximately: (A). 70 seconds (B). 10 minutes (C). 10 seconds (D). 7 minutes

Answer 523

(D). 7 minutes

Question 524

524. (20). Weather Radar can be displayed over the HSI format on the MFD. (A). True (B). False

Answer 524

(B). False

Question 525

525. (210). The airspeed trend vector indicates the predicted airspeed in: (A). 10 seconds (B). 20 seconds (C). 5 seconds (D). 15 seconds

Answer 525

A). 10 seconds

Question 526

526. (350). An EFIS COMP MON caution message coupled with an amber HDG flag on the PFD indicates: (A). A difference of more than 6 degrees between the two heading indicators (B). A difference of 6 degrees between the two heading indicators (C). A difference of 3 degrees between the two heading indicators (D). A difference of 2 degrees between the two IRUs

Answer 526

A). A difference of more than 6 degrees between the two heading indicators

Question 527

527. (140). A flashing then steady amber "ROL" flag on the PFD indicates: (A). A difference of more than 4 degrees before glideslope capture and 4 degrees after glideslope capture (B). A difference of more than 3 degrees before glideslope capture and 4 degrees after glideslope capture (C). A difference of more than 4 degrees before glideslope capture and 3 degrees after glideslope capture (D). A difference of 4 degrees before glideslope capture and less than 3 degrees after glideslope capture

Answer 527

(C). A difference of more than 4 degrees before glideslope capture and 3 degrees after glideslope capture

Question 528

528. (160). With an EFIS COMP MON caution message coupled with an amber IAS flag on the PFD indicates: (A). A difference of more than 10 knots with the IAS of more than 90 KIAS exists (B). A difference of more than 15 knots between each PFD (C). An IRS has failed (D). A difference of more than 7 knots between each PFD

Answer 528

(A). A difference of more than 10 knots with the IAS of more than 90 KIAS exists

Question 529

529. (270). Should IRS 1 fail, attitude information from IRS 2 can be displayed on both PFDs by: (A). Selecting IRS 1 with the ATTD HDG knob on the source select panel (B). Selecting IRS 2 with the ATTD HDG knob on the source select panel (C). Selecting "PUSH X-SIDE" button in the NAV SOURCE knob on the side with the failed IRS (D). Selecting "PFD" on the Display Reversionary Panel on the side with the failed IRS

Answer 529

(B). Selecting IRS 2 with the ATTD HDG knob on the source select panel

Question 530

530. (170). An amber YD on the PFD indicates: (A). That one of the yaw dampers has disengaged (B). That both of the yaw dampers are disengaged (C). That the FCC has detected a rudder mistrim (D). A fault has been detected in the yaw damp system

Answer 530

(B). That both of the yaw dampers are disengaged

Question 531

531. (80). In what condition will the PFD declutter? (A). As a load shedding function if a generator fails (B). During unusual attitudes (C). During windshear warnings (D). During ILS approaches

Answer 531

(B). During unusual attitudes

Question 532

532. (330). In the event that a PFD fails, the PFD information can be displayed on the MFD using the Source Selector Panel. (A). True (B). False

Answer 532

(B). False

Question 533

533. (190). In the event of a Display Control Panel failure (DCP), both MFDs can be controlled by one DCP by making a selection on the Display Reversionary Panel. (A). True (B). False

Answer 533

(B). False

Question 534

534. (220). An EFIS COMP MON caution message coupled with an amber ROL flag on the PFD indicates: (A). A difference of more than 4 degrees before glideslope capture and 4 degrees after glideslope capture (B). A difference of more than 3 degrees before glideslope capture and 4 degrees after glideslope capture (C). A difference of more than 4 degrees before glideslope capture and 3 degrees after glideslope capture (D). A difference of 4 degrees before glideslope capture and less than 3 degrees after glideslope capture

Answer 534

(C). A difference of more than 4 degrees before glideslope capture and 3 degrees after glideslope capture

Question 535

535. (110). How are captured/active modes and armed modes displayed on the FMA? (A). Active modes are indicated in green, armed modes are indicated in white (B). Active and armed modes are indicated in white (C). Active modes flash continuously; armed modes are indicated in white (D). Active modes are in blue, armed modes are in white

Answer 535

(A). Active modes are indicated in green, armed modes are indicated in white

Question 536

536. (380). Weather radar can be overlaid on the MFD in which of the following modes: (A). Nav Sector (B). FMS Map (C). TCAS (D). All of the above

Answer 536

D). All of the above

Question 537

537. (40). What is the purpose of the DSPL CONT knob on the Source Select Panel? (A). Permits the operable DCP to control both EFIS displays in the event of a DCP failure (B). Permits the operable ARP to control both EFIS displays in the event of an ARP failure (C). Permits the operable FCP to control both EFIS displays in the event of a FCP failure (D). None of the above

Answer 537

A). Permits the operable DCP to control both EFIS displays in the event of a DCP failure

Question 538

538. (340). The Radio Altitude tape indicates altitudes from 0 to: (A). 2500 ft. (B). 1225 ft. (C). 1100 ft. (D). 999 ft.

Answer 538

(B). 1225 ft.

Question 539

539. (240). The standby attitude indicator has both localizer and glideslope indications: (A). True (B). False

Answer 539

(A). True

Question 540

540. (360). An amber ALT flag on the PFD indicates: (A). An altitude difference exists between the primary altimeters (B). An altitude difference between the IRS (C). A failure of the ALTS capture mode (D). That the aircraft is 300' below the selected altitude

Answer 540

A). An altitude difference exists between the primary altimeters

Question 541

541. (310). Radio Altitude will be displayed on the PFD below: (A). 2500 ft. AGL (B). 2500 ft. MSL (C). 1500 ft. AGL (D). 1500 ft. AFL

Answer 541

(A). 2500 ft. AGL

Question 542

542. (130). An EFIS screen that is dark with a red DISPLAY TEMP message on it indicates that the screen has overheated. (A). True (B). False

Answer 542

(A). True

Question 543

543. (90). What is the significance of a red boxed "ATT" annunciation on the PFD? (A). Determines the selected heading reference (B). The heading source is invalid (C). The onside or both inertial reference systems have failed (D). The alternate push to talk has been activated

Answer 543

(C). The onside or both inertial reference systems have failed

Question 544

544. (290). The Mach number will be displayed when the aircraft speed increases above: (A). 200 kts. (B). 250 kts. (C). .5 Mach (D). .45 Mach

Answer 544

(D). .45 Mach

Question 545

545. (370). Operating the IRS in ATT mode can allow the heading to drift over time. To correct this: (A). Select NAV mode on the MSU then reselect ATT mode (B). Update the heading in the FMS (C). Update the heading in the EICAS Control Panel if the FMS's are not available (D). Both B & C

Answer 545

(D). Both B & C

Question 546

546. (20). The FMS uses only the signal from satellites to update its own position. (A). True (B). False

Answer 546

(B). False

Question 547

547. (140). Adding a pilot waypoint such as a VDP between two GPS approach waypoints is encouraged to enhance pilot situational awareness during a GPS non-precision approach. (A). True (B). False

Answer 547

(B). False

Question 548

548. (40). The HOLD function key of the FMS control display unit will: (A). Bring up the HOLD pages, where holds can be displayed or modified (B). Command the airplane to enter a hold (C). Command the airplane to exit a hold (D). Place a hold on the active flight plan

Answer 548

(A). Bring up the HOLD pages, where holds can be displayed or modified

Question 549

549. (70). On which FMS page would we disable a GPS receiver if the MEL directed us to? (A). FMS Control page (B). GPS Control page (C). IRS Control page (D). VOR Control page

Answer 549

(B). GPS Control page

Question 550

550. (120). The FMS provides an automatic transition to an ILS course. (A). True (B). False

Answer 550

(B). False

Question 551

551. (110). ILS, LOC, LOC-BC, LDA, SDF and MLS approaches are prohibited using the FMS. (A). True (B). False

Answer 551

(A). True

Question 552

552. (30). When AUTOTUNE is selected on the FMS radio page: (A). The FMS is assigned control of the navigational radios (B). The FMS is assigned control of the CDU (C). The FMS is assigned control of the audio control panels (D). All of the above

Answer 552

(A). The FMS is assigned control of the navigational radios

Question 553

553. (10). Should both FMSs be unavailable, a flex thrust takeoff can still be performed by: (A). Manually setting the flex N1 during the takeoff roll without N1 carets (B). Setting the flex N1 setting on the ARP (C). Setting the assumed temperature via the EICAS MENU page on the EICAS control panel (D). None of the above

Answer 553

(C). Setting the assumed temperature via the EICAS MENU page on the EICAS control panel

Question 554

554. (90). FMS range and fuel management information is advisory only. (A). True (B). False

Answer 554

(A). True

Question 555

555. (80). Within 2NM of the FAF on a GPS approach we must verify: (A). TERM is depicted on the Navigation Source / Course Display on the PFD (B). GPS APPR is depicted on the Navigation Source / Course Display on the PFD (C). MSG is depicted on the Navigation Source / Course Display on the PFD (D). The associated ground based NAVAID is tuned and identified

Answer 555

(B). GPS APPR is depicted on the Navigation Source / Course Display on the PFD

Question 556

556. (130). The pilot must verify FMS approach waypoints for accuracy by referencing current publications: (A). True (B). False

Answer 556

(A). True

Question 557

557. (100). During the initialization process of the FMS, database currency is verified on the: (A). STATUS 1/2 page (B). PERF INIT page (C). POS INIT 1/2 page (D). POS INIT 2/2 page

Answer 557

(A). STATUS 1/2 page

Question 558

558. (50). The FMS tune inhibit switch on the backup tuning unit can: (A). Disable the use of the backup tuning unit (B). Disable the use of RTU 1 and RTU 2 (C). Disable the remote tuning function of the FMS only when the ATC transponder is selected to ADC 1 (D). Disable the remote tuning function of the FMS

Answer 558

(D). Disable the remote tuning function of the FMS

Question 559

559. (60). We are required to verify the SCID number during FMS initialization to ensure the proper performance database is installed. (A). True (B). False

Answer 559

(A). True

Question 560

560. (280). Fuel transfer begins automatically when the wing tank quantity falls to ________ and stops when it reaches ________. (A). 97%, 93% (B). 93%, 97% (C). 97%, 50 lbs above the opposite wing tank (D). 93%, 50 lbs above the opposite wing tank

Answer 560

(B). 93%, 97%

Question 561

561. (40). The main ejectors: (A). Supply fuel to the APU (B). Move fuel from the center tank to the wing tanks (C). Provide fuel to the engines (D). Provide motive flow for the scavenge and transfer ejectors

Answer 561

(C). Provide fuel to the engines

Question 562

562. (460). The boost pumps move fuel from the: (A). Center tank to the wing tank (B). Collector tank to the engines (C). Wing tank to the center tank (D). Main ejectors to the engines

Answer 562

(B). Collector tank to the engines

Question 563

563. (430). If the fuel imbalance is greater than 200 lbs., but less than 800 lbs., the gravity crossflow can be open for takeoff. (A). True (B). False

Answer 563

(B). False

Question 564

564. (10). A FUEL IMBALANCE caution message will appear when an imbalance between wing tanks exceeds: (A). 600 lbs. (B). 800 lbs. (C). 200 lbs. (D). 1000 lbs

Answer 564

(B). 800 lbs.

Question 565

565. (70). Takeoff with the engine fuel temperatures below _____ is prohibited: (A). +5C (B). -5C (C). -40C (D). -30C

Answer 565

(A). +5C

Question 566

566. (160). The boost pumps: (A). Are used only in starting the APU (B). Create motive flow (C). Back up the main ejectors during engine starts and main ejector failures (D). Back up the scavenge ejectors during engine starts and ejector failures

Answer 566

C). Back up the main ejectors during engine starts and main ejector failures

Question 567

567. (250). Choose the correct statement: (A). If the powered crossflow system fails, the boost pumps can maintain wing tank fuel balance (B). If the powered crossflow system fails, the main ejectors can maintain wing tank fuel balance (C). If the powered crossflow system fails, gravity crossflow must be selected to OPEN for the duration of the flight to maintain wing fuel balance. (D). If the powered crossflow system fails, gravity crossflow can be used to maintain wing tank fuel balance

Answer 567

(D). If the powered crossflow system fails, gravity crossflow can be used to maintain wing tank fuel balance

Question 568

568. (320). Only the right boost pump will operate on battery power. (A). True (B). False

Answer 568

(B). False

Question 569

569. (220). The minimum fuel for go- around per wing tank is: (A). 400 lbs. (B). 450 lbs. (C). 600 lbs. (D). 800 lbs.

Answer 569

(C). 600 lbs

Question 570

570. (80). How many magnetic level indicators are there and where are they located? (A). 3, one under each tank (B). 7, two under each wing tank, one under the center tank, and one under each collector tank (C). 5, two for each wing and one under the center tank (D). 6, two under each wing tank, one under the center tank, and one under collector tank

Answer 570

(C). 5, two for each wing and one under the center tank

Question 571

571. (380). In the event of an APU fuel pump failure: (A). The APU will perform an auto shutdown (B). The APU will continue to run using suction feed (C). The APU will continue to run using fuel from the left main ejector (D). The APU will shut down unless the left boost pump is manually selected on

Answer 571

(B). The APU will continue to run using suction feed

Question 572

572. (350). What EICAS message alerts you that a fuel asymmetry condition exists between the main tanks? (A). FUEL IMBALANCE (B). L/R XFLOW SOV (C). L/R AUTO XFLOW ON (D). AUTO XFLOW INHIB

Answer 572

(A). FUEL IMBALANCE

Question 573

573. (410). Either the left or the right boost pump will operate on battery power. (A). True (B). False

Answer 573

(B). False

Question 574

574. (120). In the event of an APU pump failure, how will be supplied to the APU? (A). The APU has a suction feed capability (B). The left of right engine main ejector pump (C). The right engine fuel line (D). The right engine scavenge ejector pump

Answer 574

(A). The APU has a suction feed capability

Question 575

575. (330). Takeoff with engine fuel temperatures below ___ is prohibited. (A). -5 degrees C (B). +5 degrees C (C). -40 degrees C (D). -29 degrees C

Answer 575

B). +5 degrees C

Question 576

576. (360). The APU's source of fuel is: (A). The left wing tank (B). The right wing tank (C). The APU collector tank (D). The center tank

Answer 576

(A). The left wing tank

Question 577

577. (170). The boost pumps are driven by: (A). AC power (B). DC power (C). Both AC and DC power (D). Motive flow

Answer 577

(B). DC power

Question 578

578. (50). Takeoff with a fuel load in excess of 500 lbs in the center tank is not permissible unless each wing tank has: (A). 4200 lbs. .(B). 4400 lbs (C). 4760 lbs. (D). 4488lbs.

Answer 578

(B). 4400 lbs

Question 579

579. (230). Bulk fuel temperature is detected by a sensor in the: (A). Left wing tank (B). Right wing tank (C). Center tank (D). Engine fuel filter

Answer 579

(B). Right wing tank

Question 580

580. (440). The scavenge ejectors transfer fuel: (A). From the wing tank to the collector tank (B). From the collector tank to the main tank (C). From the main tank to the engine (D). From wing tank to wing tank

Answer 580

(A). From the wing tank to the collector tank

Question 581

581. (310). An amber depiction of the powered crossflow pump on the fuel synoptic page would indicate: (A). The pump is not selected on (B). The pump is operating normally (C). The pump has failed (D). Invalid data to determine pump function

Answer 581

(C). The pump has failed

Question 582

582. (100). Transfer ejectors are operated by: (A). Electric boost pumps (B). Motive flow (C). Main ejectors (D). Gravity feed

Answer 582

B). Motive flow

Question 583

583. (20). The GRAVITY/XFLOW switch turns on the crossflow fuel pump automatically. (A). True (B). False

Answer 583

(B). False

Question 584

584. (190). What maintains fuel symmetry between the main tanks? (A). Automatically controlled transfer ejector pumps (B). Automatically controlled scavenge ejector pumps (C). Automatically controlled transfer/APU pump and associated shut-off valves (D). Automatically or manually controlled powered crossflow pump

Answer 584

(D). Automatically or manually controlled powered crossflow pump

Question 585

585. (240). What component in the fuel system carries fuel from the center tank to the wing tanks? (A). Main ejectors (B). Scavenge ejectors (C). Transfer ejectors (D). Boost pumps

Answer 585

(C). Transfer ejectors

Question 586

586. (260). The boost pumps operate continuously in flight to serve as a back up to the main ejectors in the event of a failure. (A). True (B). False

Answer 586

(B). False

Question 587

587. (150). If fuel is carried in the center tank, fuel is transferred directly to the collector tanks until the center tank is empty. (A). True (B). False

Answer 587

(B). False

Question 588

588. (200). The minimum fuel for go- around per wing tank is: (A). 450 lbs. (B). 400 lbs. (C). 800 lbs. (D). None of the above

Answer 588

(D). None of the above

Question 589

589. (400). The APU fuel feed shutoff can be closed by the: (A). APU FIRE PUSH switchlight (B). PWR/FUEL switchlight (C). APU SOV switchlight (D). Both A and B are correct

Answer 589

(D). Both A and B are correct

Question 590

590. (390). High level detectors located at the top of each fuel tank prevent overfilling the fuel tanks during refueling operations. (A). True (B). False

Answer 590

(A). True

Question 591

591. (290). Both the powered crossflow and the gravity crossflow must be inhibited for takeoff. (A). True (B). False

Answer 591

(A). True

Question 592

592. (370). The APU will shut down if its dedicated fuel pump fails. (A). True (B). False

Answer 592

(B). False

Question 593

593. (130). The engines cannot be started if the engine fuel temp is less than 5C. (A). True (B). False

Answer 593

(B). False

Question 594

594. (90). What source is the APU fuel supplied from? (A). From the right engine fuel feed line (B). Directly from the left collector tank by the APU fuel pump (C). Gravity feed from the main fuel tanks (D). The right main tank through the APU fuel pump

Answer 594

(B). Directly from the left collector tank by the APU fuel pump

Question 595

595. (270). The left boost pump is available with battery power only. (A). True (B). False

Answer 595

(B). False

Question 596

596. (450). The fuel synoptic page shows valve position. Should a valve appear in amber it indicates that the valve: (A). Did not attain the commanded position (B). Is not closed (C). Is open (D). All of the above

Answer 596

(A). Did not attain the commanded position

Question 597

597. (140). How are the collector tanks kept full? (A). By the main ejectors and gravity feed lines (B). Two electric fuel boost pumps and gravity feed lines (C). Scavenge ejectors utilizing motive flow (D). Cross-feed lines and the main ejectors from the main wing tanks

Answer 597

(C). Scavenge ejectors utilizing motive flow

Question 598

598. (420). The fuel temp sensor that monitors bulk fuel temperature is located: (A). In the left wing tank (B). In the right wing tank (C). In the center wing tank (D). In the left and right wing tank

Answer 598

(B). In the right wing tank

Question 599

599. (340). A GRAVITY XFLOW FAIL message indicates: (A). That the valve has failed to its default position (closed) (B). That the valve is not in its selected position (C). That the valve has failed to its default position (open) (D). That there is insufficient data to determine valve position

Answer 599

(B). That the valve is not in its selected position

Question 600

600. (300). Transfer ejector pumps: (A). Transfer fuel from main tanks to collector tanks (B). Transfer fuel from center tank to wing tanks (C). Move fuel from the collector tanks to engine driven fuel pumps (D). Transfer fuel during defueling procedures

Answer 600

(B). Transfer fuel from center tank to wing tanks

Question 601

601. (60). The scavenger ejector: (A). Maintains motive flow (B). Moves fuel from the center tanks to the main wing tanks (C). Transfers fuel from the wing tanks to the collector tanks (D). Supplies the engine driven fuel pump with fuel pressure

Answer 601

(C). Transfers fuel from the wing tanks to the collector tanks

Question 602

602. (110). The minimum engine fuel temperature for takeoff is -5°. (A). True (B). False

Answer 602

(B). False

Question 603

603. (30). The powered crossflow must be off for takeoff. (A). True (B). False

Answer 603

(A). True

Question 604

604. (180). What is used to backup the main ejectors? (A). Two electric boost pumps (B). Motive flow from the APU fuel pump (C). Gravity feed lines (D). Scavenge ejectors

Answer 604

(A). Two electric boost pumps

Question 605

605. (300). Should a loss of all generated power occur followed by ADG deployment the: (A). ACMP 3A will be powered by the ADG BUS (B). ACMP 3B will automatically be powered by the ADG BUS (C). ACMP 3B will be powered only if selected to ON following ADG deployment (D). None of the above

Answer 605

(B). ACMP 3B will automatically be powered by the ADG BUS

Question 606

606. (70). In cruise flight, failure of the left engine will: (A). Activate pump 1B (B). Activate pump 2B (C). Activate pump 3A (D). None of the above

Answer 606

(D). None of the above

Question 607

607. (210). System 3 hydraulic components are not in close proximity to any appreciable heat source and have no provision for cooling. (A). True (B). False

Answer 607

(A). True

Question 608

608. (130). Indications shown on the hydraulic synoptic page include: (A). Reservoir quantity and temperature (B). Inboard and outboard brake pressure (C). System pressure and available systems (D). All of the above

Answer 608

(D). All of the above

Question 609

609. (240). Hydraulic Low Press message appears when the system pressure drops below (A). 1500 psi. (B). 800 psi. (C). 2950 psi. (D). 1800 psi.

Answer 609

(D). 1800 psi.

Question 610

610. (290). Which hydraulic pump(s) is associated with the ADG? (A). 3A (B). 3B (C). 1B (D). 2B

Answer 610

(B). 3B

Question 611

611. (80). The anti skid system becomes active when the wheels spin up to: (A). 25 knots (B). 35 knots (C). 20 knots (D). 40 knots

Answer 611

(B). 35 knots

Question 612

612. (30). Upon landing, the anti-skid system becomes active: (A). Once a 35 kt. wheel spin-up signal has been generated (B). Once the thrust reversers have been deployed (C). 5 seconds after the WOW switch has been activated (D). Either A or C

Answer 612

(D). Either A or C

Question 613

613. (110). After the detection of an overheated brake, the temperature readout and the box around it will remain red even after the temperature has cooled. (A). True (B). False

Answer 613

(A). True

Question 614

614. (140). Loss of either Hydraulic system 2 or 3 will result in a ___ reduction in braking capability. (A). 25% (B). 10% (C). 75% (D). 50%

Answer 614

(D). 50%

Question 615

615. (40). Maximum gear extension speed is: (A). 200 KIAS (B). 185 KIAS (C). 220 KIAS (D). 250 KIAS

Answer 615

C). 220 KIAS

Question 616

616. (170). The max rated tire speed in knots for the CRJ 900 is: (A). 182 (B). 192 (C). 195 (D). 210

Answer 616

(C). 195

Question 617

617. (160). The landing gear and nosewheel steering are actuated by: (A). Hydraulic system 1 (B). Hydraulic system 2 (C). Hydraulic system 3 (D). Hydraulic system 1 and

Answer 617

C). Hydraulic system 3

Question 618

618. (100). The manual landing gear extension handle, when pulled: (A). Releases the landing gear uplocks & manual release actuator (B). Releases hydraulic pressure from extension and retraction circuits (C). Powers the MLG auxiliary actuators (D). All of the above

Answer 618

D). All of the above

Question 619

619. (120). EICAS messages display the status of the emergency lights but do not display the status of passenger signs. (A). True (B). False

Answer 619

(B). False

Question 620

620. (30). External emergency lighting provides for illumination of: (A). The passenger door area (B). The service door area (C). The exit window area (D). All of the above

Answer 620

D). All of the above

Question 621

621. (70). With the emergency lights selected OFF in the cockpit, they will illuminate if they are selected on at the flight attendant panel. (A). True (B). False

Answer 621

(A). True

Question 622

622. (110). The flight attendant can turn the emergency lights on and override the flight deck switch if it were selected OFF. (A). True (B). False

Answer 622

(A). True

Question 623

623. (150). Which of the following controls the operation of the flight data recorder? (A). Beacon (B). Navigation lights (C). Taxi lights (D). Either A or C

Answer 623

(A). Beacon

Question 624

624. (40). EICAS messages display the status of the emergency lights and passenger signs. (A). True (B). False

Answer 624

(A). True

Question 625

625. (80). In the AUTO position, the seat belt signs will illuminate when: (A). The landing gear is extended (B). The slats/flaps are greater than 0 (C). The cabin altitude exceeds 8,500 ft. (D). Any of the above

Answer 625

(D). All of the above

Question 626

626. (130). With the EMER LTS switch on the overhead panel in the ARM position, the interior and exterior emergency lights will illuminate: (A). With the loss of essential AC power (B). With the loss of essential DC power (C). When selected ON at the forward flight attendant panel, regardless of the cockpit panel switch position (D). All of the above

Answer 626

(D). All of the above

Question 627

627. (160). Which of the following will cause the emergency lights to illuminate if they are armed? (A). Power switching from generators to external AC (B). Selecting the external AC and battery switches to OFF at the gate (C). Operating with only battery power in flight (D). None of the above

Answer 627

(B). Selecting the external AC and battery switches to OFF at the gate

Question 628

628. (10). Turning on either the BEACON or STROBE light will activate the cockpit voice recorder. (A). True (B). False

Answer 628

(B). False

Question 629

629. (60). What will cause the emergency lights to illuminate when armed? (A). Loss of essential AC power (B). Loss of essential DC power (C). Impact deceleration (D). Either A or B

Answer 629

D). Either A or B

Question 630

630. (100). Independent rechargeable battery packs are capable of powering the emergency lights for: (A). 10 minutes (B). 15 minutes (C). 30 minutes (D). 20 minutes

Answer 630

(A). 10 minutes

Question 631

631. (20). An EMER LTS OFF caution message indicates that the EMER LTS switch is in the OFF position. (A). True (B). False

Answer 631

(A). True

Question 632

632. (90). What is required to illuminate the NO PED lights? (A). Extension of the landing gear with the switch in the AUTO position (B). Extension of the slats/flaps out of the 0 position (C). Manually selecting them ON (D). Both B and C

Answer 632

(C). Manually selecting them ON

Question 633

633. (140). The taxi lights must be off whenever the airplane is stationary for more than: (A). 12 minutes (B). 20 minutes (C). 10 minutes (D). 5 minutes

Answer 633

(C). 10 minutes

Question 634

634. (50). With the emergency lights selected OFF in the cockpit, the lights will illuminate: (A). If smoke is detected in the lavatory (B). If smoke is detected in the cargo bay (C). When selected on at the flight attendant panel (D). None of the above

Answer 634

C). When selected on at the flight attendant panel

Question 635

635. (190). The proper flight guidance display configuration for a VOR approach is: (A). PF FMS with PNF bearing pointer, PNF VOR (B). PF FMS with bearing pointer, PNF FMS with bearing pointer (C). PF FMS with PNF bearing pointer, PNF VOR with PF bearing pointer (D). None of the above

Answer 635

A). PF FMS with PNF bearing pointer, PNF VOR

Question 636

636. (140). The Terrain Clearance Floor Database includes worldwide coverage of all airports with runways longer than: (A). 3500 feet (B). 4000 feet (C). 4500 feet (D). 5000 feet

Answer 636

(A). 3500 feet

Question 637

637. (240). To display the cross side NAV data the pilot will have to select the: (A). BRG pointer button (B). FORMAT knob (C). 1/2 button on RTU (D). Push button in the center of the NAV SOURCE selector

Answer 637

D). Push button in the center of the NAV SOURCE selector

Question 638

638. (10). A PAC alert is a yellow arc on the radar display that informs the crew of an area of severe attenuation. (A). True (B). False

Answer 638

A). True

Question 639

639. (180). Windshear Alert of Caution (increasing performance) will provide escape guidance. (A). True (B). False

Answer 639

(B). False

Question 640

640. (20). Selecting both ABOVE and BELOW on the TCAS main page sets an altitude range of: (A). 5,500 feet above and below (B). 5,700 feet above and below (C). 5,500 feet above and below (D). 9,900 feet above and below

Answer 640

(D). 9,900 feet above and below

Question 641

641. (230). The RTU's can be tuned through the FMS radio page. (A). True (B). False

Answer 641

(A). True

Question 642

642. (310). When receiving a PAC alert, the crew should avoid flight into the area between the displayed weather and the yellow PAC alert arc. (A). True (B). False

Answer 642

(A). True

Question 643

643. (150). The use of VS mode is prohibited during approaches. (A). True (B). False

Answer 643

B). False

Question 644

644. (160). During normal operations, the FMS TUNE INHIBIT switch is in the off (forward) position. (A). True (B). False

Answer 644

(A). True

Question 645

645. (290). A windshear encounter on an ILS approach that occurs at a radio altitude of 2000' will not be detected by the alert system. (A). True (B). False

Answer 645

(A). True

Question 646

646. (260). A yellow PAC alert arc on the radar display informs the crew that the radar beam is being seriously attenuated. (A). True (B). False

Answer 646

(A). True

Question 647

647. (220). A Windshear Caution will disengage the autopilot. (A). True (B). False

Answer 647

(B). False

Question 648

648. (270). In response to an RA with "adjust vertical speed" annunciated, the pilot should: (A). Pitch to nose level (B). Adjust climb or descent to the rate indicated on the VSI (C). Adjust climb rate to 1000 fpm. (D). None of the above

Answer 648

B). Adjust climb or descent to the rate indicated on the VSI

Question 649

649. (200). The FMS can auto tune the navigation radios when DME hold is active. (A). True (B). False

Answer 649

(B). False

Question 650

650. (50). A "sink rate" alert requires an immediate go-around. (A). True (B). False

Answer 650

(B). False

Question 651

651. (280). The NORM range key on the TCAS main page sets an altitude range of: (A). 2,500 feet above and below (B). 2,700 feet above and below (C). 3,500 feet above and below (D). 4,000 feet above and below

Answer 651

(B). 2,700 feet above and below

Question 652

652. (170). Sector scan on the radar control panel will allow for 2 selections: (A). 60 degrees or 20 degrees (B). 60 degrees or 45 degrees (C). 45 degrees or 15 degrees (D). 60 degrees or 30 degrees

Answer 652

(D). 60 degrees or 30 degrees

Question 653

653. (120). If an additional corrective TCAS resolution advisory is issued (ex. a reversal), the maneuver must be initiated within: (A). 3 seconds (B). 2 seconds (C). 2.5 seconds (D). 5 seconds

Answer 653

(C). 2.5 seconds

Question 654

654. (60). Weather radar and terrain information cannot be displayed at the same time. (A). True (B). False

Answer 654

(A). True

Question 655

655. (210). A "Terrain" warning can be ignored when the aircraft is established on a valid glideslope. (A). True (B). False

Answer 655

(B). False

Question 656

656. (80). When a conflicting terrain or obstacle is detected, the terrain overlay automatically appears on the MFD. (A). True (B). False

Answer 656

(A). True

Question 657

657. (110). The auto tuning function of the FMS ceases to function when: (A). Selecting "Green" needles (B). When DME hold has been selected (C). Selecting a manually tuned frequency in the RTU (D). All of the above

Answer 657

(D). All of the above

Question 658

658. (130). Windshear Detection and Recovery system monitors for windshear during the approach from: (A). 1500 to 10 feet AGL (B). 1500 to 10 feet radio altitude (C). 2500 to 0 feet radio altitude (D). At all altitudes

Answer 658

(B). 1500 to 10 feet radio altitude

Question 659

659. (300). Using the FMS TUNE INHIBIT switch allows the pilot to cross tune the RTU's. (A). True (B). False

Answer 659

B). False

Question 660

660. (70). There are ___ DME transceivers in the CRJ 900 and each one can track ____ DME stations simultaneously. (A). 2, 2 (B). 2, 3 (C). 3, 2 (D). 3, 3

Answer 660

B). 2, 3

Question 661

661. (90). Pressing GCS (ground clutter suppression) on the radar control panel will activate the mode for: (A). 10 seconds (B). 20 seconds (C). Until its deselected (D). 12 seconds

Answer 661

(D). 12 seconds

Question 662

662. (100). The ADF can only be tuned on the RTU. (A). True (B). False

Answer 662

(B). False

Question 663

663. (250). Traffic advisories alert the crew to aircraft within____ seconds of intrusion. (A). 20 (B). 30 (C). 35 (D). 60

Answer 663

(C). 35

Question 664

664. (40). Windshear detection is active at all altitudes. (A). True (B). False

Answer 664

(B). False

Question 665

665. (30). When the EGPWS computer detects a windshear warning the autopilot will disengage. (A). True (B). False

Answer 665

A). True

Question 666

666. (130). If for any reason at any time it is necessary for one pilot to leave his station at the controls of the airplane when operating at flight altitudes above flight level 250, the remaining pilot at the controls shall put on and use his oxygen mask until the other pilot has returned to his duty station. (A). True (B). False

Answer 666

A). True

Question 667

667. (70). The external gauge for the flight deck oxygen should be checked on the preflight. (A). True (B). False

Answer 667

(B). False

Question 668

668. (80). The passenger oxygen system will deploy the masks automatically when: (A). Cabin altitude is above 12,500 feet (B). Cabin altitude is above 8,000 feet (C). Cabin altitude is above 10,000 feet (D). Cabin altitude is above 14,000 feet

Answer 668

(D). Cabin altitude is above 14,000 feet

Question 669

669. (100). The ACMP 3B automatically starts after ACMP 3A failure. (A). True (B). False

Answer 669

(B). False

Question 670

670. (200). With the ACMP 3B switch in AUTO; the 3B pump is normally not active during what phase of flight? (A). Taxi (B). Takeoff and landings (C). Approach (D). Cruise

Answer 670

(D). Cruise

Question 671

671. (180). System 3 is powered by ____ EDP(s). (A). 0 (B). 1 (C). 2 (D). 3

Answer 671

(A). 0

Question 672

672. (220). A HYD SOV 1 OPEN caution message: (A). Indicates that we must manually close the hydraulic shutoff valve after a normal engine shutdown (B). Indicates that the shut off valve is open with a left engine fire indication (C). Indicates that the valve has been opened during an engine start (D). None of the above

Answer 672

B). Indicates that the shut off valve is open with a left engine fire indication

Question 673

673. (120). With the respective switches in the Auto mode, pumps 1B and 2B are: (A). Activated by gear operation (B). Activated by flap operation (C). Activated by stab trim operation (D). All of the above

Answer 673

(B). Activated by flap operation

Question 674

674. (140). Hydraulic system 1 and 2 are cooled by: (A). Ram air, fluid heat exchanger (B). Fuel heat exchanger (C). Ram air (D). Pack air over primary heat exchanger

Answer 674

(A). Ram air, fluid heat exchanger

Question 675

675. (190). System 1 is powered by ___ AC motor pump(s). (A). 1 (B). 2 (C). 3 (D). 4

Answer 675

A). 1

Question 676

676. (20). What ACMP can be powered directly from the ADG? (A). 1B (B). 2B (C). 3A (D). 3B

Answer 676

D). 3B

Question 677

677. (80). On the ground, the cooling of system 3 is assisted by a fan. (A). True (B). False

Answer 677

B). False

Question 678

678. (160). The outboard brake pressure readout will turn white to indicate pressure below 1800 psi. (A). True (B). False

Answer 678

B). False

Question 679

679. (50). On the ground, the cooling of systems 1 and 2 is assisted by a fan. (A). True (B). False

Answer 679

(A). True

Question 680

680. (10). What hydraulic pumps are engine driven? (A). 1A and 3A (B). 3A and 2A (C). 1A and 2A (D). 3B and 2A

Answer 680

(C). 1A and 2A

Question 681

681. (110). Hydraulic pump 1B or 2B will automatically start after an associated engine or EDP failure. (A). True (B). False

Answer 681

(B). False

Question 682

682. (90). A HYD SOV 1 OPEN caution message indicates: (A). That EDP 1 has failed and the valve did not close (B). That the left engine hydraulic shut off valve is open with an associated engine fire (C). That the left engine has been shut down and the valve did not close (D). That the interlock circuit has failed

Answer 682

(B). That the left engine hydraulic shut off valve is open with an associated engine fire

Question 683

683. (260). The hydraulic system 1 shutoff valve can be closed by: (A). Moving the engine thrust levers to SHUT OFF (B). Pressing the left ENG FIRE PUSH switchlight (C). Selecting the L/R HYD SOV switchlights to closed (D). Both B and C

Answer 683

D). Both B and C

Question 684

684. (60). Deployment of the ADG will cause pump 3B to operate regardless of switch position. (A). True (B). False

Answer 684

(A). True

Question 685

685. (250). The hydraulic system 1 or 2 shutoff valve can be closed by: (A). Moving the engine thrust levers to SHUT OFF (B). Selecting all ACMP switches to OFF (C). Selecting the L or R HYD SOV switchlight to closed (D). All of the above

Answer 685

(C). Selecting the L or R HYD SOV switchlight to closed

Question 686

686. (280). What is the normal range for the hydraulic reservoir quantity? (A). 60-100% (B). 35-85% (C). 45-85% (D). Above 40%

Answer 686

(C). 45-85%

Question 687

687. (170). The outboard brake pressure readout will turn amber to indicate inadequate pressure. (A). True (B). False

Answer 687

(A). True

Question 688

688. (270). All three hydraulic systems power: (A). The left ailerons, the elevator and the rudder (B). The elevator and rudder (C). Both spoilerons, the rudder and the elevator (D). None of the above

Answer 688

(B). The elevator and rudder

Question 689

689. (30). How are hydraulic systems 1 and 2 cooled? (A). Hydraulic lines running through fuel tanks (B). Independent air coolers (C). Heat exchanger in the fuel tanks (D). Ram air/hydraulic fluid heat exchanger

Answer 689

(D). Ram air/hydraulic fluid heat exchanger

Question 690

690. (150). On the ground, ACMPs 1B and 2B can be operated without engine driven generator power. (A). True (B). False

Answer 690

(A). True

Question 691

691. (40). System 3 is powered by ____ AC motor pump(s). (A). 1 (B). 2 (C). 3 (D). 4

Answer 691

(B). 2

Question 692

692. (60). Wing anti-icing ducts appearing in amber on the Anti-ice synoptic page with the wing anti-ice selected on indicate: (A). Low temperature (B). Low pressure (C). The wing anti-ice valve has failed closed (D). Either A or C

Answer 692

(D). Either A or C

Question 693

693. (150). How many Ice detectors are installed on the CRJ 900? (A). 1 (B). 2 (C). 3 (D). 4

Answer 693

(B). 2

Question 694

694. (50). When operating a cold- soaked aircraft, the thrust reversers must remain activated until they deploy and stow within: (A). 2 seconds (B). 5 seconds (C). 10 seconds (D). 15 seconds

Answer 694

(A). 2 seconds

Question 695

695. (170). At or above what indicated airspeed in icing conditions can we turn the wing anti-ice off? (A). 200 (B). 230 (C). 250 (D). 290

Answer 695

(B). 230

Question 696

696. (110). With the PROBE LH and RH switches in the OFF position, the air data probes are not heated in flight. (A). True (B). False

Answer 696

(B). False

Question 697

697. (220). With the wing anti-ice switch selected on, the valves: (A). Modulate open to maintain a constant temperature (B). Open and close on the command of the AILC (C). Remain fully open unless an overheat or bleed air leak is detected (D). None of the above

Answer 697

(B). Open and close on the command of the AILC

Question 698

698. (160). When operating at 290 kts with an ICE advisory message, the wing anti-ice can be off. (A). True (B). False

Answer 698

(B). False

Question 699

699. (210). The wing anti-icing system must be tested prior to every flight. (A). True (B). False

Answer 699

(B). False

Question 700

700. (300). One the ground with the engine generators online, which of the following is heated with the PROBES switches selected OFF? (A). LH & RH pitot probes (B). AOA vanes (C). TAT probe (D). Static ports

Answer 700

(A). LH & RH pitot probes

Question 701

701. (100). While the wing anti-ice is in use, N2 must remain above the amber arcs depicted on the N2 gauges. (A). True (B). False

Answer 701

(B). False

Question 702

702. (120). In flight, the cowl anti-ice system must be on: (A). When in icing conditions (B). When ICE is annunciated by the ice detection system (C). Both A and B (D). None of the above

Answer 702

C). Both A and B

Question 703

703. (140). In flight, the wing anti-ice system must be on: (A). When in icing conditions at any speed (B). When ICE is annunciated by the ice detection system (C). Both A and B (D). None of the above

Answer 703

(B). When ICE is annunciated by the ice detection system

Question 704

704. (70). POM guidance for dealing with a cracked windshield is located in: (A). 7.12 Doors and windows (B). 7.9 Ice and rain protection (C). 7.13 Emergency procedures (D). 7.7 Air conditioning and pressurization

Answer 704

(B). 7.9 Ice and rain protection

Question 705

705. (20). An ICE advisory message indicates: (A). Icing conditions are detected with the wing and cowl anti-ice selected on and operating normally (B). Icing conditions are detected with the wing or cowl anti-ice selected on and operating normally (C). Icing conditions are detected with the wing and cowl anti-ice selected off (D). Icing conditions are detected with the wing or cowl anti-ice selected off

Answer 705

(A). Icing conditions are detected with the wing and cowl anti-ice selected on and operating normally

Question 706

706. (260). When operating in icing conditions, the wing anti-icing system must be on when ICE is annunciated, or when operating at speeds below: (A). 220 kts. (B). 230 kts. (C). 250 kts. (D). 215 kts.

Answer 706

(B). 230 kts.

Question 707

707. (10). Selecting FROM RIGHT on the WING A/I CROSS BLEED selector will: (A). Open the wing cross bleed valve and close the right wing anti-ice valve (B). Close the left wing anti-ice valve leaving only the right wing heated (C). Open the wing cross bleed valve and close the left wing anti-ice valve (D). None of the above

Answer 707

(C). Open the wing cross bleed valve and close the left wing anti-ice valve

Question 708

708. (240). Wing and/or cowl anti-ice selection is prohibited with the APU selected as the bleed source in manual mode. (A). True (B). False

Answer 708

(A). True

Question 709

709. (30). An ICE caution message indicates: (A). Icing conditions are detected with the wing and cowl anti-ice selected on and operating normally (B). Icing conditions are detected with the wing or cowl anti-ice selected on and operating normally (C). Icing conditions are detected with the wing and cowl anti-ice selected off (D). Icing conditions are detected with the wing or cowl anti-ice selected off

Answer 709

(D). Icing conditions are detected with the wing or cowl anti-ice selected off

Question 710

710. (80). The following components are electrically heated: (A). Windows, windshields, and air data probes & sensors (B). Wing leading edges and engine cowls (C). Wing leading edges and air data probes and sensors (D). Windows, windshield and window wipers

Answer 710

(A). Windows, windshields, and air data probes & sensors

Question 711

711. (270). Electrical heating power to the T2 probe is controlled by: (A). The AILC (B). The FADEC (C). Cowl anti-ice switch (D). Ice detectors

Answer 711

(B). The FADEC

Question 712

712. (190). Choose the correct statement regarding the windshield wiper system: (A). If each wiper selector is set to a different setting, the captain's selection will override the first officer's (B). If each wiper selector is set to a different setting, the last selection will override the previous selection (C). If each wiper selector is set to a different setting, the lowest selection will override the other (D). If each wiper selector is set to a different setting, the higher speed selected will override the other

Answer 712

(B). If each wiper selector is set to a different setting, the last selection will override the previous selection

Question 713

713. (230). Wing and/or cowl anti-ice selection is allowed with the APU selected as the bleed source in manual mode. (A). True (B). False

Answer 713

(B). False

Question 714

714. (90). With the wing anti ice switch in the ON position: (A). The AILC will fully open the wing anti-ice valves to heat the wings (B). The AILC will fully open the wing anti-ice valves if ice is detected (C). The AILC will modulate the wing anti-ice valves open and closed as necessary to prevent ice formation (D). None of the above

Answer 714

C). The AILC will modulate the wing anti-ice valves open and closed as necessary to prevent ice formation

Question 715

715. (180). The wing anti-ice cross bleed valve allows: (A). Both wings to be heated by one engine (B). Both wings and cowls to be heated by one engine (C). The engines to be cross bleed started (D). Both A and C

Answer 715

(A). Both wings to be heated by one engine

Question 716

716. (310). Choose the correct statement regarding the windshield wiper system: (A). If each wiper selector is set to a different setting, the highest selection will override the other (B). If each wiper selector is set to a different setting, the lowest selection will override the other (C). If each wiper selector is set to a different setting, each side will operate at their selected speed (D). If each wiper selector is set to a different setting, the last selection will override the previous selection

Answer 716

D). If each wiper selector is set to a different setting, the last selection will override the previous selection

Question 717

717. (250). The ice detector probes are constantly heated during flight. (A). True (B). False

Answer 717

(B). False

Question 718

718. (200). The maximum airspeed for windshield wiper operation is: (A). 200 (B). 220 (C). 182 (D). 250

Answer 718

(D). 250

Question 719

719. (130). The wing and cowl anti-icing valve icons on the Anti-ice synoptic page: (A). Indicate the commanded position (B). Indicate the actual position (C). Appear in amber if the valve is not in the commanded position (D). Both B and C

Answer 719

(D). Both B and C

Question 720

720. (290). Which of the following are heated after takeoff with the PROBES switches selected OFF? (A). Pitot probes (B). TAT probe (C). AOA vanes (D). All of the above

Answer 720

(D). All of the above

Question 721

721. (280). Which of the following are heated on the ground with the probe switches selected on? (A). LH PROBES (B). RH PROBES (C). AOA vanes (D). All of the above

Answer 721

(D). All of the above

Question 722

722. (50). The fusible plugs protect the main wheel against a tire burst that could occur under heavy braking. (A). True (B). False

Answer 722

(A). True

Question 723

723. (90). Maximum gear retraction speed is: (A). 200 KIAS (B). 250 KIAS (C). 215 KIAS (D). 185 KIAS

Answer 723

(A). 200 KIAS

Question 724

724. (10). With the hydraulic systems selected off and the parking brake set, both the inboard and outboard brakes will hold for prolonged period of time. (A). True (B). False

Answer 724

(B). False

Question 725

725. (20). During a crew change, it is noticed that one of the brake temperatures is 3 in red, surrounded by a red box. This indicates: (A). That the brake had overheated but has now cooled (B). That the brake is hot regardless of the number (C). That there is a fault in the BTMS (D). That there is insufficient data available to determine the brake temp

Answer 725

(A). That the brake had overheated but has now cooled

Question 726

726. (70). The auxiliary actuator used in an alternate gear extension is hydraulically powered by system: (A). 1 (B). 2 (C). 3 (D). Both 1 and 3

Answer 726

B). 2

Question 727

727. (120). If the brake temperatures are normal, BTMS readout will be removed when the landing gear and slats/flaps position indications are removed. (A). True (B). False

Answer 727

A). True

Question 728

728. (180). The BTMS can only be reset if: (A). The brake overheat condition no longer exists (B). The BTMS OVHT WARN RESET button is pressed for more than 5 seconds (C). Both generators are offline and the passenger door is open (D). None of the above

Answer 728

(A). The brake overheat condition no longer exists

Question 729

729. (190). The PARKING BRAKE warning message indicates: (A). Pressure is adequate and parking brake is selected on (B). The park brake shutoff valve has failed to open (C). The parking brake or associated shut off valve has failed (D). The parking brake is set with the airplane configured for takeoff or in the air

Answer 729

(D). The parking brake is set with the airplane configured for takeoff or in the air

Question 730

730. (150). Tiller steering will deflect the nosewheel up to __ degrees on either side of center. (A). 50 (B). 60 (C). 70 (D). 80

Answer 730

D). 80

Question 731

731. (60). Green range on the BTMS scale is: (A). 00 to 05 (B). 00 to 06 (C). 00 to 07 (D). 00 to 10

Answer 731

(B). 00 to 06

Question 732

732. (200). Amber dashes in the brake pressure readout on the hydraulic synoptic page indicate: (A). The parking brake is on and system pressure is adequate (B). Pressure exceeds 3200 psi (C). Invalid data (D). Pressure is less than or equal to 1800 psi

Answer 732

(C). Invalid data

Question 733

733. (130). Rudder pedal movement will deflect the nosewheel up to __ degrees on either side of center: (A). 20 (B). 10 (C). 8 (D). 5

Answer 733

(C). 8

Question 734

734. (160). When in use, the oxygen generators can emit an odor similar to scorched cloth which does not affect the purity of the oxygen and is not a fire hazard. (A). True (B). False

Answer 734

(A). True

Question 735

735. (20). The flight attendant masks use oxygen from the compressed oxygen calendar located behind the entrance storage compartment. (A). True (B). False

Answer 735

(B). False

Question 736

736. (170). Passenger oxygen is supplied by the O2 cylinder that the flight deck crew utilizes. (A). True (B). False

Answer 736

(B). False

Question 737

737. (30). The flight attendants utilize the same type of oxygen system as the passengers. (A). True (B). False

Answer 737

(A). True

Question 738

738. (110). At cabin altitudes above 30,000 feet, the flight deck O2 masks supply pure oxygen regardless of the N/100% lever position. (A). True (B). False

Answer 738

(A). True

Question 739

739. (120). The oxygen generators located above the seats in the cabin will supply: (A). 13 minutes of oxygen (B). 20 minutes of oxygen (C). A variable amount of oxygen based on altitude (D). The amount of oxygen supplied varies with the number of masks being used

Answer 739

(A). 13 minutes of oxygen

Question 740

740. (10). The passenger drop down masks can be deployed: (A). By pressing the PASS OXY switchlight at the forward flight attendant station (B). With the loss of AC power with the emergency lights armed in the flight deck (C). With a key located in the Entrance Compartment (D). Automatically when cabin altitude exceeds 10,000'

Answer 740

(C). With a key located in the Entrance Compartment

Question 741

741. (50). The portable oxygen cylinders and masks are located in the: (A). Flight deck (B). Entrance compartment (C). Aft bulkhead (D). Both B and C

Answer 741

(D). Both B and C

Question 742

742. (150). If the flight deck oxygen bottle exceeds its pressure limit: (A). The over-pressure disc will turn red (B). The over-pressure disc will be missing (C). There will be an OXY LOW PRESS caution message (D). Both B and C

Answer 742

(D). Both B and C

Question 743

743. (90). An OXY LO PRESS caution message is displayed when: (A). Passenger oxygen is low (B). Flight deck O2 is at or below 1410 psi (C). A passenger mask has been deployed (D). Flight deck O2 is unusable

Answer 743

(B). Flight deck O2 is at or below 1410 psi

Question 744

744. (60). The flight deck oxygen system consists of one cylinder and three quick donning masks. (A). True (B). False

Answer 744

(A). True

Question 745

745. (40). Oxygen can be supplied to the passengers for _____ minutes. (A). 60 minutes (B). 30 minutes (C). 15 minutes (D). 13 minutes

Answer 745

(D). 13 minutes

Question 746

746. (100). When operating at altitudes above FL250, if at any point there is only one pilot on the flight deck, the remaining pilot must put on and wear the crew oxygen mask. (A). True (B). False

Answer 746

(A). True

Question 747

747. (230). What is the AT for a takeoff weight of 79,500 lbs? 30R 8200 FT DT H299 AT N1 FLAP 20 38 84.3 7525O36 36 85.0 7672O37 34/85.7 7824O38 32 86.3 7983O40 31 86.6 8059O40 HW/10KT 80 0 TW/10KT -423 -5 BLCL .7 112 1 (A). 36 (B). 34 (C). 32 (D). 31

Answer 747

(C). 32

Question 748

748. (240). Reference the TLR reduced thrust section below. You leave the gate at a weight of 75,300 lbs and burn 250 lbs of fuel on the way to the runway. What will your reduced N1 be? 18L/S4 7600 FT DT H178 AT N1 FLAP 20 42 87.0 6947O30 40 87.7 7100O31 38/88.4 7242O32 36 89.1 7378O34 34 89.8 7519O35 HW/10KT 108 1 TW/10KT -432 -5 BLCL .7 116 1 (A). 89.8 (B). 89.1 (C). 88.4 (D). 87.7

Answer 748

A). 89.8

Question 749

749. (30). The revision section of the TLR is used for last minute changes such as MEL/CDL items that were not included in the original TLR: (A). True (B). False

Answer 749

(A). True

Question 750

750. (250). Using the TRL report heading below, choose the correct statement: APT PRWY POAT PWIND PQNH PMRTW FLP MAXV1 PTOW MFPTW MEM 18C 30.0 000/00 29.67 8697 8 140 7183 78825 (A). You cannot takeoff with a weight greater than 78,825 lbs (B). You can load the airplane greater than 78,825 lbs as long as your MRTW is greater than 78,825 lbs (C). You cannot have a ramp weight greater than 78,825 lbs (D). All of the above

Answer 750

(A). You cannot takeoff with a weight greater than 78,825 lbs

Question 751

751. (190). Under normal conditions, all landing distance calculations are determined using factored distances. (A). True (B). False

Answer 751

(A). True

Question 752

752. (60). APU bleed air is controlled by a modulating LCV that allows air into the left side of the bleed air manifold. (A). True (B). False

Answer 752

(A). True

Question 753

753. (190). With the APU generator ON, and the APU supplying bleed air, the LCV modulates to ensure that there is adequate power to run the generator. (A). True (B). False

Answer 753

(A). True

Question 754

754. (200). A bleed air leak in the cowl anti-ice ducting: (A). Is detected using the same type dual loop sensors utilized elsewhere in the bleed air system (B). Would be detected by the AILC if at least one loop sensor detected the overheat condition (C). Requires both sensing loops to detect the bleed air leak (D). None of the above

Answer 754

(D). None of the above

Question 755

755. (210). The ISOL valve is not automatically commanded open and closed during engine starts. (A). True (B). False

Answer 755

(B). False

Question 756

756. (10). The bleed air pneumatic ducting utilizes a dual loop sensing system. The purpose of a dual loop system is to: (A). Provide redundancy (B). Minimize false overheat indications (C). Provide an increased ability to dispatch the aircraft (D). All of the above

Answer 756

D). All of the above

Question 757

757. (90). If both electrical and bleed air demand on the APU increase above its capacity to handle both at the same time, the APU will sacrifice _______ to maintain __________. (A). Electrical output, bleed air output (B). Bleed air output, electrical output (C). Electrical and bleed air output, fuel flow (D). None of the above

Answer 757

(B). Bleed air output, electrical output

Question 758

758. (120). The PRSOV closes when the associated ENG FIRE PUSH switchlight is pressed. (A). True (B). False

Answer 758

(A). True

Question 759

759. (50). In a dual loop bleed air detection system, only one loop needs to detect a leak for a warning to be generated. (A). True (B). False

Answer 759

(B). False

Question 760

760. (130). A BLEED MISCONFIG caution message indicates: (A). That the bleed air system is in manual mode (B). An overheat condition exists in the bleed air system (C). That the HPV failed to open when commanded (D). An impossible bleed configuration is selected in manual mode

Answer 760

(D). An impossible bleed configuration is selected in manual mode

Question 761

761. (230). With the isolation valve closed, the right side of the bleed air manifold can be pressurized by: (A). The APU (B). An external air source (C). The right engine (D). B and C

Answer 761

(C). The right engine

Question 762

762. (250). Cowl anti-ice bleed air leaks would be detected by a ________ . (A). Single sensing loop (B). Dual sensing loop (C). Pressure sensor (D). Temperature sensor

Answer 762

(C). Pressure sensor

Question 763

763. (110). A bleed air pressure displayed in amber on the ECS synoptic page: (A). Indicates bleed pressure is normal (B). Indicates bleed pressure is high or low (C). Indicates invalid data (D). Indicates the bleed source is not on

Answer 763

B). Indicates bleed pressure is high or low

Question 764

764. (140). The amber arcs that appear on the N2 gauges when the WING anti-ice switch is ON are not an indication of anti-ice valve operation. (A). True (B). False

Answer 764

(A). True

Question 765

765. (220). The left side of the bleed air manifold can be pressurized by: (A). The left engine (B). The APU (C). An external air source (D). All of the above

Answer 765

(D). All of the above

Question 766

766. (170). A DUCT MON FAULT status message indicates: (A). A normal indication following an overheat caused the system to close a shut off valve (B). Loss of redundancy in the bleed air leak detection system (C). Failure of the bleed air leak detection system (D). Failure of the AIRINC system linking the detection loops to the AILC

Answer 766

(B). Loss of redundancy in the bleed air leak detection system

Question 767

767. (180). The APU LCV interlock protection: (A). Maintains positive flow through the cabin air distribution system (B). Prevents bleed air manifold pressure from damaging the APU compressor (C). Is overridden in MANUAL mode (D). Both B and C

Answer 767

(B). Prevents bleed air manifold pressure from damaging the APU compressor

Question 768

768. (70). If the APU and engines are running on the ground, what is the bleed source for the packs with the system in AUTO mode? (A). The APU (B). The left engine (C). The right engine (D). Both engines will provide bleed air for their respective pack

Answer 768

(A). The APU

Question 769

769. (150). The wing anti-icing ducts are: (A). Monitored by single loop system (B). Monitored by dual loop system (C). Monitored by thermal probes located in strategic locations (D). Not monitored within the fuselage

Answer 769

(B). Monitored by dual loop system

Question 770

770. (40). When the 6th stage air pressure is high enough to satisfy the requirements of the pneumatic system: (A). The active pressurization controller will command the HPV closed (B). The ACSC will command the HPV open (C). The ACSC will command the HPV closed (D). The ACSV will command the associated PRSOV closed

Answer 770

(C). The ACSC will command the HPV closed

Question 771

771. (20). To open the ISOL valve in the bleed air manifold: (A). Select the ISOL switch to OPEN (B). The BLEED VALVES must be in MANUAL (C). The BLEED VALVES must be in CLSD (D). Both A and B

Answer 771

(D). Both A and B

Question 772

772. (30). An ANTI-ICE DUCT warning indicates: (A). A wing overheat condition (B). A bleed leak has been detected in the wing anti-ice ducting or piccolo tubes (C). A loss of heating ability on the leading edge of the wing (D). An overpressure condition exists in the anti-icing ducts

Answer 772

(B). A bleed leak has been detected in the wing anti-ice ducting or piccolo tubes

Question 773

773. (240). The amber arcs that appear on the N2 gauges when the WING anti-ice switch is ON: (A). Indicate that the switch is in the ON position (B). Indicate that the associated valves are operating (C). Remind the crew to never reduce thrust in to the amber arcs under any icing condition (D). A and B

Answer 773

A). Indicate that the switch is in the ON position

Question 774

774. (140). To operate the Air Turbine Starter, the following power requirements need to be met: (A). DC power, and pneumatic pressure (B). 115VAC and pneumatic pressure (C). Pneumatic pressure (D). DC power

Answer 774

(A). DC power, and pneumatic pressure

Question 775

775. (50). After 'dry motoring' the engine for 90 seconds, a cooling time of __ must be observed before a start attempt can be made. (A). 1 minute (B). 5 minutes (C). 30 seconds (D). 2 minutes

Answer 775

(B). 5 minutes

Question 776

776. (470). Reverse thrust is accomplished by redirecting the core airflow forward through a series of cascade vanes. (A). True (B). False

Answer 776

(B). False

Question 777

777. (420). For N1 synchronization to be enabled, the left engine N1 must be within 2% of the right engine N1. (A). True (B). False

Answer 777

(B). False

Question 778

778. (70). The engine fuel system in addition to providing fuel for combustion is used to: (A). Control and actuate the VG compressor linkage (B). Cool the engine oil (C). Actuate and lubricate fuel system components (D). All of the above

Answer 778

(D). All of the above

Question 779

779. (120). On the ground, engine ITT must be below __ before fuel can be introduced during start. (A). 90C (B). 115C (C). 120C (D). 100c

Answer 779

(C). 120C

Question 780

780. (20). A second start attempt must be followed by __ of cooling before another start can be attempted. (A). 2 minutes (B). 1 minute (C). 10 seconds (D). 5 minutes

Answer 780

(C). 10 seconds

Question 781

781. (390). FADEC is powered by the aircraft electrical system until N2 reaches: (A). 50% (B). 55% (C). 20% (D). 79%

Answer 781

A). 50%

Question 782

782. (360). Ignition B system is powered by the: (A). Respective DC buses (B). DC essential bus (C). AC essential bus (D). Battery bus via a static inverter

Answer 782

(D). Battery bus via a static inverter

Question 783

783. (190). Automatic Performance Reserve System will become active if: (A). N1 decreases 10% below the takeoff thrust set (B). The thrust levers are pushed to the MAX POWER detent (C). N1 decreases 15% below the takeoff thrust set (D). Both B and C

Answer 783

(D). Both B and C

Question 784

784. (500). What drives the articulating cowls of the thrust reversers? (A). Hydraulic pressure from systems 1 and 2 (B). Electrical power from the ESS AC bus (C). Pneumatic power from the bleed air duct (D). Hydraulic pressure from system 3

Answer 784

A). Hydraulic pressure from systems 1 and 2

Question 785

785. (320). Continuous ignition must be used during: (A). Takeoff and landing on contaminated runways (B). Takeoff with crosswinds of 10 kts. or greater (C). Light rain and or turbulence (D). All of the above

Answer 785

(A). Takeoff and landing on contaminated runways

Question 786

786. (200). On approach, the APR system is armed when: (A). Slats/flaps are greater than 8 (B). Landing gear is down (C). APR ARM is selected on the Miscellaneous Test Panel (D). Both A and B

Answer 786

(B). Landing gear is down

Question 787

787. (280). If an engine failure occurs while the thrust levers are in the CRUISE detent: (A). Thrust will increase on the operative engine to APR power (B). Thrust will increase proportionately (C). Thrust will remain at climb power (D). None of the above

Answer 787

(B). Thrust will increase proportionately

Question 788

788. (30). Via a clutch assembly, the air turbine starter (ATS) rotates the: (A). Accessory gear box that in turn drives the N2 core section (B). Accessory gear box that in turn drives the N1 fan section (C). Main gear box that in turn rotates the impellor to start airflow (D). N2 compressor section and initiates airflow to the turbine section

Answer 788

(A). Accessory gear box that in turn drives the N2 core section

Question 789

789. (170). When a N1 vibration level exceeds a target value: (A). The gauge and pointer change from green to amber (B). VIB is displayed within the N1 gauge (C). The N1 gauge changes from green to red (D). There is a triple chime warning and VIB appears in the N1 gauge

Answer 789

(A). The gauge and pointer

Question 790

790. (440). In the event of an engine fire, pressing the FIRE PUSH switchlight will disable both ignition systems on the affected engine. (A). True (B). False

Answer 790

(A). True

Question 791

791. (350). The Automatic Performance Reserve can only be activated by FADEC should an engine fail and all arming parameters are met. (A). True (B). False

Answer 791

(B). False

Question 792

792. (450). The engine fuel/oil heat exchanger is used to warm the engine fuel and cool the engine oil. (A). True (B). False

Answer 792

(A). True

Question 793

793. (110). The CF34-8C5 is a dual assembly engine comprised of a fan rotor (N1), and a compressor rotor (N2). The N1 rotor is a: (A). Single stage fan connected through a shaft to a four stage low- pressure turbine (B). 10 stage axial flow compressor connected through a shaft to a two stage high pressure turbine (C). 10 stage axial flow compressor connected through a shaft to a two stage low pressure turbine (D). Single stage fan connected through a shaft to a single stage low pressure turbine

Answer 793

A). Single stage fan connected through a shaft to a four stage low-pressure turbine

Question 794

794. (370). A fuel flow with amber dashes instead of appropriate numbers indicates: (A). Engine fuel temps are < 5°C (B). A malfunction of the of the VG system (C). Fuel flow data is invalid (D). Low fuel pressure is sensed during an engine start

Answer 794

(C). Fuel flow data is invalid

Question 795

795. (90). The Air Turbine Starter (ATS) requires __ before another start can be attempted. (A). That N1 is less than 55% (B). That N2 is less than 55% (C). That engine rotation is completely stopped (D). That N2 is less than 45%

Answer 795

D). That N2 is less than 45%

Question 796

796. (380). Fuel flow to the engine can be interrupted by shut off valves that are closed by: (A). Pushing the ENG FIRE PUSH switch (B). Moving the thrust levers to the SHUT OFF position (C). Turning the fuel pumps off (D). Both A and B are correct

Answer 796

(D). Both A and B are correct

Question 797

797. (80). Reverse thrust is accomplished by blocking N1 bypass air and redirecting the airflow forward through a series of cascade vanes. (A). True (B). False

Answer 797

(A). True

Question 798

798. (250). If an N2 core vibration occurs a VIB indication is shown on the respective N2 gauge. (A). True (B). False

Answer 798

(A). True

Question 799

799. (260). The ATS disengages at approximately ____N2 during an engine start. (A). 45% (B). 50% (C). 55% (D). 20%

Answer 799

(B). 50%

Question 800

800. (220). During subsequent starts the ATS requires the engine to completely stop before another attempted start. (A). True (B). False

Answer 800

(B). False

Question 801

801. (180). If an engine failure occurs on a reduced thrust (Flex) takeoff: (A). Thrust will automatically increase to MCT (B). Thrust will automatically increase to APR power (C). The thrust levers must be pushed to the MAX POWER detent (D). None of the above

Answer 801

(B). Thrust will automatically increase to APR power

Question 802

802. (60). Maximum V1 is: (A). Max V1 as indicated on the TLR (B). V2 minus 4 knots (C). V1 as calculated on the speed card (D). The lower of answer A or C

Answer 802

(D). The lower of answer A or C

Question 803

803. (70). If the OAT is above the POAT the reduced thrust data must not be used: (A). If the OAT is greater than the AT (B). If the FMS and TLR thrust settings do not match (C). When the FMSs are inoperative (D). At any time

Answer 803

(C). When the FMSs are inoperative

Question 804

804. (200). The landing distances that would be shown below the --- LANDING FIELD LENGTH--- section are: (A). For emergency use only (B). Factored (C). Unfactored (D). Both A and C

Answer 804

(B). Factored

Question 805

805. (40). The MFPTW cannot be exceeded for takeoff (A). True (B). False

Answer 805

(A). True

Question 806

806. (160). Reduced thrust takeoff procedure must not be used when: (A). Wing and/or cowl anti-icing bleeds are in use (B). On contaminated runways (C). When the anti-skid system is inoperative (D). All of the above

Answer 806

(D). All of the above

Question 807

807. (210). Reference the TLR reduced thrust section below. You may take off at a weight of 79,600 lbs as long as an AT of 40 is programmed into the FMS and the flex N1 indicated is 83.6% or greater. 04 11006 FT DT H043 AT N1 FLAP 8 44 83.2 7624O45 42/83.4 7794O46 40 83.6 7960O48 38 84.3 8124O49 HW/10KT 119 1 TW/10KT -435 -5 BLCL .5 133 1 (A). True (B). False

Answer 807

(A). True

Question 808

808. (20). Engine failure procedures indicated as DT H118 for runway 12L means: (A). Turn right heading 118 (B). Do not turn past heading 118 (C). Direct turn heading 118 (D). None of the above

Answer 808

(C). Direct turn heading 118

Question 809

809. (50). In the reduced thrust section of a TLR, AT indicates: (A). Air temperature (B). Assumed Temperature (C). All temperatures (D). None of the above

Answer 809

(B). Assumed Temperature

Question 810

810. (130). When calculating V1 on the speed card for a reduced thrust takeoff: (A). Use the POAT depicted on the TLR header (B). Use the AT that will be used in the FMS for reduced thrust calculations (C). Use the actual OAT from the most recent ATIS/AWOS (D). None of the above

Answer 810

B). Use the AT that will be used in the FMS for reduced thrust calculations

Question 811

811. (110). When the FMS is inoperative, the reduced thrust data is not valid if the actual OAT is below the POAT. (A). True (B). False

Answer 811

(B). False

Question 812

812. (170). Except for the Actual Landing Distance section, all weights presented on the Landing Report section of the TLR are factored. (A). True (B). False

Answer 812

(A). True

Question 813

813. (10). MFPTW does not include the following: (A). Maximum takeoff weight (B). Maximum runway takeoff weight (C). Maximum enroute weight (D). Maximum landing weight

Answer 813

B). Maximum runway takeoff weight

Question 814

814. (150). Reduced thrust takeoff procedure must not be used when: (A). Wing and/or cowl anti-icing bleeds are in use (B). On dry runways (C). When the anti-skid system is operative (D). None of the above

Answer 814

(A). Wing and/or cowl anti-icing bleeds are in use

Question 815

815. (90). EWAI of the corrections section is an acronym for which of the following: (A). Engine with automatic ignition (B). Engine (cowl) and wing anti-ice - ON (C). Engine (cowl) and wing anti-ice - OFF (D). Engine (cowl) or wing anti-ice - OFF

Answer 815

(B). Engine (cowl) and wing anti-ice -ON

Question 816

816. (180). Unfactored (actual) landing distances should only be considered: (A). When landing on a dry runway (B). When wing/cowl anti-ice is not in use (C). During an abnormal or emergency situation when longer runways are not available (D). Upon ATC request to land and hold short of an intersection or runway

Answer 816

C). During an abnormal or emergency situation when longer runways are not available

Question 817

817. (140). Reduced thrust takeoff procedure must not be used when: (A). Wing and/or cowl anti-icing bleeds are not in use (B). On dry runways (C). When the anti-skid system is operative (D). None of the above

Answer 817

D). None of the above

Question 818

818. (220). Using the TLR report header below, which of following would make the report invalid: APT PRWY POAT PWIND PQNH PMRTW FLP MAXV1 PTOW MFPTW MSP 17 2.0 000/00 29.90 7781 20 123 7750 78000 (A). An OAT of 1.0 (B). Wind greater than 000/00 (C). A QNH of 29.79 (D). A flap setting of 20 degrees

Answer 818

(C). A QNH of 29.79

Question 819

819. (80). Reduced thrust takeoff must not be used when: (A). Wing and/or cowl anti-ice are in use (B). The runway is less than 25% wet (C). Crosswind in excess of 10 knots (D). All of the above are true

Answer 819

A). Wing and/or cowl anti-ice are in use

Question 820

820. (120). The TLR PQNH indicates 29.92. What altimeter setting will make the report invalid? (A). 29.81 (B). 29.82 (C). 30.02 (D). 30.03

Answer 820

A). 29.81

Question 821

821. (100). A contaminated runway report is only valid if the temperature is at or below the OAT on the report header. (A). True (B). False

Answer 821

(A). True

Question 822

822. (80). The APU LCV modulation is governed by: (A). Fuel flow (B). Electrical draw (C). EGT (D). All of the above

Answer 822

D). All of the above

Question 823

823. (160). The bleed air system utilizes a dual loop sensing system. The purpose of a dual loop system is to: (A). Provide positive identification of fire indications (B). Minimize false overheat indications (C). Increase the detection area (D). Increase the accuracy of temperature readouts

Answer 823

B). Minimize false overheat indications

Question 824

824. (100). The APU control system ensures that priority is given to ____________ by reducing ______________ as necessary. (A). Pneumatic loads, electrical output (B). Engine starting, electrical output (C). Electrical loads, bleed airflow (D). Cabin temperature control, generator load

Answer 824

(C). Electrical loads, bleed airflow

Question 825

825. (410). For N1 synchronization to be enabled, the right engine N1 must be within ______ of the ______. (A). 1.5%, left engine (B). 5%, target thrust setting calculated by the FMS (C). 1.5%, target thrust setting calculated by the FMS (D). 2.0%, left engine

Answer 825

A). 1.5%, left engine

Question 826

826. (60). When a N2 core vibration occurs a VIB indication is shown on the respective N2 gauge. (A). True (B). False

Answer 826

(A). True

Question 827

827. (240). Two independent AC ignition systems are provided for each engine. (A). True (B). False

Answer 827

(A). True

Question 828

828. (270). If an engine failure occurs while the thrust levers are in the CLIMB detent: (A). Thrust will increase on the operative engine to APR power (B). Thrust will increase proportionately (C). Thrust will remain at climb power (D). None of the above

Answer 828

(D). None of the above

Question 829

829. (430). Choose the correct statement regarding the ignition system: (A). The CONT switchlight continuously activates only the A ignition (B). Logic within the FADEC uses both igniters during engine starts (C). Logic within the FADEC alternates between both ignitions A and B on each successive start (D). Logic within the ATS uses the A ignition during battery and external air starts

Answer 829

C). Logic within the FADEC alternates between both ignitions A and B on each successive start

Question 830

830. (400). The APR is armed for takeoff when: (A). N1 of both engines are within 18% of the takeoff N1 reference value (B). N1 of either engine is within 8% of the takeoff N1 reference value (C). N1 of both engines are within 8% of the takeoff N1 reference value (D). N2 of both engines is greater than 80% and takeoff thrust has been achieved

Answer 830

C). N1 of both engines are within 8% of the takeoff N1 reference value

Question 831

831. (150). If an engine were to fail on a go-around, with the aircraft still in the landing configuration, the APR would not activate. (A). True (B). False

Answer 831

(B). False

Question 832

832. (310). The fuel pump is located on the accessory gear box and is used to generate motive flow for the ejector pumps. (A). True (B). False

Answer 832

(A). True

Question 833

833. (290). If an engine failure occurs while the thrust levers are in the TOGA detent: (A). Thrust will increase on the operative engine to APR power (B). Thrust will increase proportionately (C). Thrust will remain at climb power (D). None of the above

Answer 833

A). Thrust will increase on the operative engine to APR power

Question 834

834. (100). The vane angle of Variable Geometry System is controlled by the: (A). FADEC to protect against over temping (B). FADEC to prevent compressor stalls and surges (C). FADEC to provides thrust reverse upon landing (D). AILC to prevent compressor stalls and surges

Answer 834

B). FADEC to prevent compressor stalls and surges

Question 835

835. (160). Ignition system A is powered by the: (A). AC essential bus (B). DC essential bus (C). AC bus 2 (D). Battery bus

Answer 835

(A). AC essential bus

Question 836

836. (340). A green APR icon will appear in the N1 gauge(s) when it is active. (A). True (B). False

Answer 836

A). True

Question 837

837. (490). The thrust reversers will deploy when the thrust reverser levers are pulled up when: (A). Thrust reverser system is armed (B). Aircraft is on the ground (C). Wheel spin-up exceeds 20 kts (D). All of the above

Answer 837

(D). All of the above

Question 838

838. (130). An ENGINE OVERSPD warning indicates: (A). An overspeed of N1 for more than 2 seconds (B). An overspeed of N2 for more than 2 seconds (C). An N1 or N2 has exceeded redline for more than four seconds (D). None of the above

Answer 838

C). An N1 or N2 has exceeded redline for more than four seconds

Question 839

839. (300). When would we use the HIGH PWR SCHEDULE switch on the Miscellaneous Test Panel? (A). During single engine operations (B). When the thrust lever is in the CRUISE detent (C). There is no operational procedure in which the use of the HIGH POWER SCHEDULE is required (D). After reducing thrust to the CLIMB detent after takeoff

Answer 839

(C). There is no operational procedure in which the use of the HIGH POWER SCHEDULE is required

Question 840

840. (460). In the event of an engine failure the APR system increases thrust to: (A). 10000 lbs. (B). 9874 lbs. (C). 13,625 lbs. (D). 14,510 lbs.

Answer 840

D). 14,510 lbs.

Question 841

841. (210). On approach, the APR system is armed when: (A). Slats/flaps are greater than 20 (B). Landing gear is down (C). APR ARM is selected on the Miscellaneous Test Panel (D). Both A and B

Answer 841

D). Both A and B

Question 842

842. (480). A 'dry motoring' starter engagement is limited to: (A). 60 seconds (B). 90 seconds (C). 45 seconds (D). 2 minutes

Answer 842

B). 90 seconds

Question 843

843. (230). With engines running and bleeds configured for takeoff, the crew must verify that the target N1 values correspond to the data presented in the TLR: (A). ± 1.0% (B). ± 0.5 % (C). ± 1.5 % (D). None of the above

Answer 843

A). ± 1.0%

Question 844

844. (10). The variable geometry system changes the position of the guide vanes and: (A). The stator vanes on the all stages of the compressor (B). The position of the compressor section to obtain cooler airflow (C). The stator vanes on the first five stages of the compressor (D). None of the above

Answer 844

D). None of the above

Question 845

845. (40). A 'cold soaked' engine must be motored for __ seconds before a start attempt can be made. (A). 90 (B). 60 (C). 30 (D). 45

Answer 845

(B). 60

Question 846

846. (330). When the APR becomes active, 'red line' ITT becomes: (A). 1006 °C (B). 990 °C (C). 963 °C (D). 947 °C

Answer 846

A). 1006 °C

Question 847

847. (80). Children under the age of three are classified as infants (A). True (B). False

Answer 847

(B). False

Question 848

848. (120). Manual weight and balance is calculated on a: (A). Stab trim sheet (B). Load manifest / control form (C). Cargo trim sheet (D). Takeoff and landing report

Answer 848

B). Load manifest / control form

Question 849

849. (50). Ramp weight can be defined as: (A). Zero fuel weight plus fuel (B). Zero fuel weight plus payload (C). Zero fuel weight minus payload (D). Takeoff weight minus enroute burn

Answer 849

A). Zero fuel weight plus fuel

Question 850

850. (130). The weight of a passenger is counted as 200 lbs from: (A). May 1st - Oct 31st (B). Nov 1st - April 30th (C). Oct 31st - May 2nd (D). April 30th - May 1st

Answer 850

A). May 1st - Oct 31st

Question 851

851. (110). The weight of a heavy bag is:

Question 852

852. (30). A jumpseat crewmember occupying the flight deck jumpseat weights:

Question 853

853. (10). The weight of a standard bag is: (A). 10 lbs (B). 19 lbs (C). 34 lbs (D). 58 lbs

Answer 853

C). 34 lbs

Question 854

854. (260). Takeoff Gross Weight is defined as: (A). Ramp weight minus ramp fuel (B). Ramp weight minus taxi fuel (C). Ramp weight minus Zero fuel weight (D). MRTW minus taxi fuel

Answer 854

B). Ramp weight minus taxi fuel

Question 855

855. (180). Automatic weight and balance calculations on the CRJ 900 are performed using: (A). 2 zones (B). 3 zones (C). 4 zones (D). 6 zones

Answer 855

D). 6 zones

Question 856

856. (290). When calculating the PAX INDEX PER ZONE on the Load Manifest / Control Form: (A). Count children and adults seated in that zone (B). Count only adults seated in that zone (C). Count adults, children, and infants seated in that zone (D). None of the abov

Answer 856

A). Count children and adults seated in that zone

Question 857

857. (300). When calculating the stab trim setting on the Load Manifest / Control Form with a takeoff weight of 57,000 lbs and flaps 20°: (A). Round up to 58,000 lbs and use that stab trim setting (B). Round down to 55,000 lbs and use that stab trim setting (C). Interpolate between stab trim settings for less than or equal to 55,000 lbs and greater than or equal to 58,000 lbs (D). None of the above

Answer 857

C). Interpolate between stab trim settings for less than or equal to 55,000 lbs and greater than or equal to 58,000 lbs

Question 858

858. (60). What age group classifies children? (A). 2-14 years (B). 2-12 years (C). All passengers under 12 years (D). Passengers that have not yet reached their 15th birthday

Answer 858

(B). 2-12 years

Question 859

859. (230). The CRJ 900 does not allow carry-on baggage (A). True (B). False

Answer 859

(B). False

Question 860

860. (170). Manual weight and balance is calculated on the CRJ 900 using: (A). 2 zones (B). 3 zones (C). 4 zones (D). 6 zones

Answer 860

(C). 4 zones

Question 861

861. (190). The weight of a standard passenger from May 1st - October 31st is: (A). 170 lbs (B). 184 lbs (C). 189 lbs (D). 200 lbs

Answer 861

D). 200 lbs

Question 862

862. (90). Infants are considered the same weight as children for weight and balance computations: (A). True (B). False

Answer 862

(B). False

Question 863

863. (140). The weight of a passenger is counted as 205 lbs from: (A). May 1st - Oct 31st (B). Nov 1st - April 30th (C). Oct 31st - May 2nd (D). April 30th - May 1st

Answer 863

B). Nov 1st - April 30th

Question 864

864. (20). The weight of a planeside checked bag is: (A). 10 lbs (B). 20 lbs (C). 30 lbs (D). 40 lbs

Answer 864

(B). 30 lbs

Question 865

865. (220). The weight of a planeside checked bag is: (A). 19 lbs (B). 30 lbs (C). 40 lbs (D). 50 lbs

Answer 865

(A). 19 lbs

Question 866

866. (210). Maximum Zero Fuel Weight is a limitation that must not be exceeded (A). True (B). False

Answer 866

A). True

Question 867

867. (70). When calculating manual weight and balance for non-standard groups of passengers: (A). No carryon luggage is allowed (B). 16 lbs must be added for carry-on luggage if not weighed with the passenger (C). All carry-on luggage must be weighed individually (D). None of the above

Answer 867

B). 16 lbs must be added for carry-on luggage if not weighed with the passenger

Question 868

868. (240). Choose the correct statement regarding weight and balance data received via radio: (A). Passenger count, takeoff gross weight, and stab trim setting must be read back (B). Tail number, takeoff gross weight, stab trim setting, and passenger count must be read back (C). Flight number, passenger count, stab trim setting, and % MAC must be read back (D). Passenger count, takeoff gross weight, stab trim setting, and % MAC must be read back

Answer 868

(A). Passenger count, takeoff gross weight, and stab trim setting must be read back

Question 869

869. (280). The captain is responsible for ensuring that the Load Manifest / Control Form is accurate and the aircraft is loaded within the approved envelope. (A). True (B). False

Answer 869

(A). True

Question 870

870. (40). Basic operating weight can be defined as: (A). The weight of the airplane for revenue flight plus usable fuel and payload (B). Zero fuel weight plus payload (C). The weight of the airplane for revenue flight minus usable fuel and payload (D). Maximum takeoff weight minus enroute burn

Answer 870

(C). The weight of the airplane for revenue flight minus usable fuel and payload

Question 871

871. (250). Choose the correct statement: (A). Structural MTOW is always the limiting maximum takeoff weight (B). MRTW is always the limiting maximum takeoff weight (C). MRTW or MFPTW, whichever is less, will be the limiting maximum takeoff weight (D). MFPTW or MRTW, whichever is less, will be the limiting maximum takeoff weight

Answer 871

D). MFPTW or MRTW, whichever is less, will be the limiting maximum takeoff weight

Question 872

872. (160). During manual weight and balance calculations, the cabin is separated into two zones: (A). True (B). False

Answer 872

(B). False

Question 873

873. (100). Choose the correct statement: (A). Children weights are not counted as part of the ZFW but noted as souls on board (B). Children weights are counted as part of the ZFW but are not noted for souls on board (C). Infant weights are not counted as part of the ZFW but noted as souls on board (D). Infant weights are counted as part of the ZFW but are not noted as souls on board

Answer 873

(C). Infant weights are not counted as part of the ZFW but noted as souls on board

Question 874

874. (200). Standard passenger weights include an allowance for personal items: (A). True (B). False

Answer 874

(A). True

Question 875

875. (270). Non-standard passengers that weigh less than standard weight passengers may be incorporated as standard weight passengers. (A). True (B). False

Answer 875

(A). True

Question 876

876. (150). Choose the correct statement regarding weight and balance data received via radio: (A). Tail number, takeoff gross weight, stab trim setting, and passenger count must be read back (B). Passenger count, takeoff gross weight, and stab trim setting must be read back (C). Flight number, passenger count, stab trim setting, and % MAC must be read back (D). Passenger count, takeoff gross weight, stab trim setting, and % MAC must be read back

Answer 876

(B). Passenger count, takeoff gross weight, and stab trim setting must be read back

Question 877

877. (30). The aft potable water system supplies water to: (A). Aft sink and aft toilet (B). Aft sink only (C). Aft sink and galley (D). None of the above

Answer 877

(B). Aft sink only

Question 878

878. (70). Water drain masts are not heated on the ground. (A). True (B). False

Answer 878

(B). False

Question 879

879. (80). How is the lavatory sink basin water heated? (A). Hot bleed air (B). Electric heaters which heat both potable water tanks (C). Electric heaters located under each lavatory cabinet (D). Warm air from the ECS system

Answer 879

C). Electric heaters located under each lavatory cabinet

Question 880

880. (90). The ON/OFF switches on the potable water system panel power: (A). Electric heaters (B). Compressor (C). Tank level indicators (D). All of the above

Answer 880

D). All of the above

Question 881

881. (100). The diagnostic light will come on when the potable water/wash system: (A). Overheats (B). Is not selected on (C). A fault is detected in the system (D). A drain mast fault has occurred

Answer 881

(C). A fault is detected in the system

Question 882

882. (60). How do we determine the water level of the potable water tanks? (A). There is no way to check the potable water tank levels in the CRJ 900 (B). A sight gauge located below each lavatory sink basin shows the water tank level (C). Indicator lights indicate the tank quantities when the system switches are on (D). Both B and C

Answer 882

C). Indicator lights indicate the tank quantities when the system switches are on

Question 883

883. (40). The forward and aft potable water systems are independent except: (A). A common control panel located in the galley (B). The pressurization source from a common air supply or compressor (C). They are serviced from a single servicing panel on the right side of the fuselage (D). Both A and B

Answer 883

(D). Both A and B

Question 884

884. (120). When flushed, contents of the toilet tank assembly are dumped overboard in flight via heated drain masts. (A). True (B). False

Answer 884

(B). False

Question 885

885. (50). All components of the potable water system likely to freeze are heated or insulated to maintain temperatures above freezing. (A). True (B). False

Answer 885

(A). True

Question 886

886. (10). The forward potable water system supplies water to: (A). Forward lavatory sink (B). Aft toilet (C). Aft sink (D). Both A and C

Answer 886

(A). Forward lavatory sink

Question 887

887. (20). The forward potable water system supplies water to: (A). Forward toilet (B). Coffee maker (C). Forward lavatory sink (D). All of the above

Answer 887

D). All of the above

Question 888

888. (110). What has occurred when a Drain Fault light illuminates in the forward galley? (A). A drain mast fault has occurred (B). The potable water service panel selector is in the drain position (C). This is a normal indication on the ground with full potable water tanks (D). None of the above

Answer 888

(A). A drain mast fault has occurred