Random Drugs stuff!

Question 1

MoA of Zolpidem and its use

Answer 1

• Potentiate GABA-A at same site as BZD.

- Used to treat insomnia

Question 2

Possible SEs of Pethidine

Answer 2

• N-demethylated in the liver to norpethidine: Hallucinogenic, convulsant
• Restlessness rather than sedation
• Parasympatholytic: Dry mouth, blur vision
• No miosis, less pasm of smooth muscle

Question 3

Possible disease modifying effect of Selegiline

Answer 3

Delay nigral brain cell degeneration in PD

Question 4

MoA of Pergolide, and one of its significant SE

Answer 4

• Dopamine agonist for PD

- Restrictive valvular heart disease

Question 5

Short term SEs of Levodopa

Answer 5

• Nausea
• Vomiting
• Postural Hypotension

Question 6

Describe the following for Nalmefene:

• MoA
• Dosage Route
• Duration of Action

Answer 6

• MoA: Opioid Antagonist
• Dosage route: IV
• Duration of Action: long-acting

Question 7

A unique SE of morphine that is not observed in other opioids

Answer 7

Trigger histamine release:

• Urticaria, itch
• Bronchoconstriction
• Hypotension

Question 8

MoA of Haloperidol

Answer 8

D2 antagonist

Question 9

MoA of Fluphenazine and its usage

Answer 9

D2 antagonist. Used as antipsychotic

Question 10

MoA of Trifluoperazine and its usage

Answer 10

D2 antagonist. Used as antipsychotic

Question 11

Core MoA of Olanzapine

Answer 11

Serotonin-Dopamine antagonism

Question 12

Significant SE of Carbamazepine

Answer 12

Aplastic Anemia

Question 13

Unlike Fluoxetine, what is the SE that Citalopram has, and why is this so?

Answer 13

• Citalopram can cause sedation

- Due to histamine receptor antagonism

Question 14

Effect of BZD overdose, and drug that can reverse the effect.

Answer 14

• Severe respiratory depression

- Antidote: Flumazenil

Question 15

Drug that can treat sexual dysfunction caused by Venlafaxine

Answer 15

Cyproheptidine

Question 16

Describe the selectivity of amisulpride. Hence what are its adverse effects?

Answer 16

Selectivity: D2/D3 receptors

Adverse effect: Increased prolactin secretion (blocked dopamine recetors in anterior pituitary gland:

• Breast swell, pain, lactate
• Males: Gynaecomastia

Question 17

MoA of Pregabalin and its use. What SE is it associated with?

Answer 17

• MoA: GABA analogue + Ca channel antagonist
• Use: GAD, anticonvulsant
• Associated with emergence of worsening of suicidal thoughts

Question 18

MoA of Valproate

Answer 18

• Block Na and Ca channels

- GABA transaminase inhibitor

Question 19

How does Clozapine produce less EPS?

Answer 19

High D4 to D2 antagonism: Favour actions on prefrontal cortex over striatum

Question 20

MoA of Tolcapone

Answer 20

COMT inhibitor

Question 21

Bupivacaine is more _____ than most other LAs

Answer 21

Cardiotoxic

Question 22

Purpose of using Propanolol in GAD

Answer 22

Treat performance anxiety and social phobias

Question 23

MoA of Bupropion

Answer 23

NDRI (NA-Dopamine reuptake inhibitor)

Question 24

MoA of Buspirone. Onset of anxiolytic effect?

Answer 24

• Serotonin 5-HT1A partial agonist
• Dopamine receptor antagonist

Onset: 1-2 weeks

Question 25

What is O-toluidine? What is its effect? How to reverse?

Answer 25

- Metabolite of Prilocaine - Causes MetHb - Reverse via IV methylene blue/ascorbic acid

Question 26

Which inhaled GA cannot be used in anaesthetic machines? Why?

Answer 26

- Sevoflurane | - Degrades when exposed to CO2 absorbents in machines to a nephrotoxic metabolite

Question 27

Major concern of Clozapine

Answer 27

Clozapine-induced agranulocytosis

Question 28

SEs of Propofol. Hence what are its cautions in use?

Answer 28

- Decrease BP, Negative inotropic -- Hypotension Caution in: - Elderly patients - CV dysfunctions - Hypovolemic patients

Question 29

MoA of Bupropion. What is it used for?

Answer 29

NDRI (norepinephrine-dopamine reuptake inhibitor) | - Used as an antidepressant

Question 30

Why does Risperidone produce less EPS compared to typical antipsychotics?

Answer 30

High D2:D1 antagonism ratio - Reduces impact of antagonism in striatum - Actions by inhibiting negative feedback loop

Question 31

Possible adverse effects of reboxetine

Answer 31

- Anticholinergic effects - Insomnia (increased NA in CNS) - Tachycardia (increased NA)

Question 32

SEs of Amantadine

Answer 32

1. Cognitive impairment 2. Livedo reticularis 3. Hallucination 4. Insomnia 5. Nightmares

Question 33

Unlike other IV GAs, what is unique about ketamine?

Answer 33

Produces Dissociative anaesthesia

Question 34

Examples of D2 agonists that may cause fibrosis

Answer 34

1. Bromocriptine 2. Pergolide (these are ergot derivatives)

Question 35

What is the caution when using vecuronium as an NMJ blocker with anaesthetics

Answer 35

Barbiturates may precipitate when mixed with muscle relaxants - Allow clearance from IV line prior to muscle relaxant injection

Question 36

What does procaine have a higher risk of causing allergic reactions compared to etidocaine?

Answer 36

- Procaine is Ester LA - Hydrolysed to PABA derivatives - PABA derivatives may induce allergy

Question 37

Atypical Antipsychotics that exhibit better mood stabilisation and negative symptoms than typical antipsychotics

Answer 37

1. Clozapine 2. Olanzapine 3. Risperidone

Question 38

MoA of phenytoin and its use

Answer 38

Blockade of voltage-dependent Na channels for epilepsy

Question 39

MoA of Aripiprazole and its use

Answer 39

D2 & D3 partial agonist, used as an antipsychotic

Question 40

What is Dexmedetomidine and what is it used for?

Answer 40

a2 adrenergic, used for sedation and analgesia as an anaesthetic adjunct

Question 41

The LA most often used for ENT procedures

Answer 41

Cocaine

Question 42

SEs that is especially evident for risperidone. What is the cause?

Answer 42

- Postural hypotension - Reflex tachycardia Cause: a1-adrenoceptor antagonism

Question 43

The only IV GA that has analgesic property

Answer 43

Ketamine

Question 44

The IV GA that does not cause post-operative nausea and vomiting

Answer 44

Propofol

Question 45

Example of Barbiturate used as Anticonvulsant

Answer 45

Phenobarbital

Question 46

Metabolite of Thiopentone. What is its AE and where is thiopentone metabolised at?

Answer 46

- Metabolite: Pentobarbital - AE: Liver Cirrhosis Metabolised in the liver