Random Information Flashcards

(51 cards)

1
Q

Measuring IOP is also called

A

Tonometry

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2
Q

The higher the IOP of an eye, the _____ the eye.

A

Harder

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3
Q

Applanation tonometry displaces less than _____ of aqueous.

A

0.5 microliters

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4
Q

When recording IOP, the reading on the Goldmann applanation tonometer scale should be multiplied by _____.

A

Ten

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5
Q

While assessing visula acuity, the assistany notes the patient consistently misses the optotypes on the temporal side of the chart, indicating a possible _____.

A

Visual field defect

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6
Q

In visual acuity assessment, the brightness acuity tester (BAT) is used to evaluate _____ when there are opacities in the ocular media.

A

Glare

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7
Q

In patients with nystagmus, visual acuity often improves dramatically when vision is assessed _____.

A

binocularly

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8
Q

At what distance are adult near visual acuity charts designed to be read?

A

14-16 inches

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9
Q

Normal visual acuity in a two-month old infant may be estimated by?

A

Fixation (follow at 3 months)

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10
Q

Blockages of the central retinal artery by an embolus, which stops blood flow and causes acute loss of vision and a cherry red spot in the retina, is termed?

A

CRAO (Central retinal artery occlusion)

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11
Q

What is the visual symptom, and its cause, often experienced by diabetic patients during episodes of increased blood sugar?

A

Blurred vision caused by temporary myopia or hyperopia due to changes in the refractive index

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12
Q

What instructions would be given over the phone to a patient who had splashed a chemical into the eyes?

A

Immediately flush the eyes with water for 15-20 minutes and then report to the ER or ophthalmologist’s office

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13
Q

The most common type of glaucoma is ______.

A

POAG (Primary open angle glaucoma)

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14
Q

Aqueous drains out of the eye through this net-like structure.

A

Trabecular meshwork

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15
Q

What is the name of the instrument used to measure extension of the anterior surface of the cornea beyond the lateral orbital rim?

A

Exopthalmometer

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16
Q

Name at least one example of a glare testing device.

A

TVA, BAT (Brightness acuity test), or Eye Con

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17
Q

Name the two measurements required to determine the dioptric power of the IOL.

A

A-Scan (Axial length of the eye) and keratometry (corneal curvature)

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18
Q

When preforming A-Scan biometry, a 1mm error in axial length may result in a _____ diopter calculated IOL power error.

A

Three

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19
Q

What is the term for the amount of time it takes for dry spots to form on the cornea when the eye is in a staring position?

A

BUT (Break up time)

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20
Q

Which ocular condition is commonly associated with Sjogren’s Syndrome?

A

Dry eyes (dry mouth is another finding in Sjogren’s syndrome)

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21
Q

Which systemic disease can cause temporary fluctuations in refractive errors?

A

Diabetes mellitus (DM)

22
Q

Name the virus that causes a dendritic pattern of keratitis.

A

Herpes simplex

23
Q

What is the ideal position for a patient who feels faint?

A

Head lower than the heart

24
Q

Where do you check pulse on an adult CPR patient?

A

Neck (carotid artery)

25
Why is it important to specifically ask a patient about the medications that they are taking?
Certain medications can affect the eyes
26
What is the proper response to a patient's request from the ophthalmic tech for medical advice or a diagnosis?
Refer the patient to the ophthalmologist
27
What is the term used for the reason for the patient's visit?
Chief complaint
28
What elements are important in social history taking?
Smoking, alcohol and drug use
29
_____ _____ is a red dye useful in evaluating the integrity of the corneal epithelium.
Rose bengal
30
Name the tear deficiency test which uses strips of filter paper into the lower fornix.
Schirmer test
31
In terms of lens thickness, the greater the refractive index, the _____ the lens.
Thinner
32
The distance from the center of the pupil of one eye to the center of the pupil of the other eye is termed _____?
Interpupillary distance
33
What is measured to obtain a monocular measurement of the IPD (interpupillary distance)?
The distance from the bridge of the nose to the center of the pupil
34
If dust accumulates on the mirror of the slit lamp, the technician may clean it by using what cleaning methods?
A lint free cloth, a lens brush, or a blast of air
35
Who should repair and maintain equipment such as a laser?
A qualified service technician
36
Which accessories are used to check the calibration of an opthalmometer/keratometer?
Three test balls made of steel, also called "Lensco Meter"
37
What should be used to clean the accessible lenses of a phoropter?
Photographic lens cleaner and lens tissue
38
What size letters (optotypes) are typically used to calibrate visual acuity projectors?
20/200
39
The absence of a lens in an eye is called _____.
Aphakia
40
The presence of an IOL is called
Pseudophakia
41
_____ is a chronic inflammation of the eye lid margin.
Blepharitis
42
Name the retinal receptors that function best in dim lighting, number about 125 million and are found in the periphery of the retina.
Rods
43
Name the retinal receptors that are responsible for color vision, number about 6 million and are found in the macula.
Cones
44
What normally determines the strength of an add power for near correction?
The age of the patient
45
What is the distance from the back surface of a lens to the front surface of the eye called?
Vertex distance
46
What is the term used when there is a difference in pupil size?
Anisocoria
47
What is the term for the spasmodic, rhythmic dilating, and contracting pupillary movements during pupil function testing?
Hippus
48
What is the name of the test used for detecting a relative afferent pupillary defect?
Swinging flashlight test
49
Which muscle of the iris constricts in bright light?
Sphincter
50
What is pupil dilation termed?
Mydriasis
51