Random PSA Facts Flashcards

(47 cards)

1
Q

Which medications can lower the seizure threshold?

A
  • Quinolone antibiotics (e.g. Ciprofloxacin)
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2
Q

Paracetamol antedote

A

Acetylcysteine

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3
Q

Factors which may contribute towards lithium toxicity

A
  • dehydration
  • renal failure
  • medications
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4
Q

Name some medications which can increase the risk of lithium toxicity if taken together

A
  • Thiazide diuretics
  • ACE inhibitors / ARBS
  • NSAIDs
  • Metronidazole
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5
Q

Features of lithium toxicity

A
  • Coarse tremor
  • Hyperreflexia
  • Acute confusion
  • Polyuria
  • Seizure
  • Coma
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6
Q

First line / important early intervention in management of bleach consumption

A

Early endoscopy and risk stratification

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7
Q

Which TB drug reduces INR?

A

Rifampicin (P450 enzyme inductor)

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8
Q

Common reaction to N-acetylcystine

A

Anaphylactoid reaction (from non-IgE mediated mast cell release)

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9
Q

Medications contraindicated in the use of Sildenafil

A

Contraindicated by nitrates and nicorandil (PDE 5 inhibitors)

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10
Q

What investigation result is the main factor for determining liver transplant in paracetamol overdose patients?

A

pH

pH < 7.3 more than 24 hours after ingestion

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11
Q

Name some drugs that can cause urinary retention

A
  • Tricyclic antidepressants
  • anticholinergics
  • opioids
  • NSAIDs
  • disopyramide
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12
Q

Lorazepam antidote

A

Flumazenil

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13
Q

Methanol antidote

A

Ethanol

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14
Q

Digoxin antidote

A

Specific antibody fragments

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15
Q

What type of medications can reduce platelet count?

A

anticoagulants

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16
Q
A
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17
Q

Name some types of nephrotoxic drugs

A
  • Aminoglycazides (gentamicin)
  • ## NSAIDs
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18
Q

What does the DoTS classification system assess about ADRs?

A

The dose relationship
Time dependency
Patient susceptibility

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19
Q

What should be included in a valid report to the yellow card scheme?

A
  • identifiable patient
  • suspected reason for the ADR
  • a suspected drug
  • a reporter
20
Q

The Ywllow card scheme recieves reports about _______

A

suspected ADRs in the UK

21
Q

Name some clinical signs of rhabdomyalysis

A
  • muscle swelling
  • tenderness
  • weakness
  • brown urine (myoglobin)
  • elevated CK values (10 - 100 x normal value)
22
Q

Rhabdomyalysis can cause which electrolyte imbalance?

A

Hyperkalaemia (raised K+)

23
Q

Name some factors which increase the risk of rhabdomyalysis

A
  • pre-existing renal impairement
  • sex of patient
  • statins
24
Q

What is an adverse event?

A

any harmful or unpleasant event that the patient experiences while using a drug, whether or not it is related to the ddrug

25
What is an adverse drug reaction (ADR)?
An adverse event where it is suspected to be caused by the drug
26
What are the 3 types of dose reactions?
- hypersusceptibility reactions - collateral effects - toxic effects
27
What do time dependent and independent mean?
dependent: those which are dependent on the time the patient has been taking the drug independent: those which occur at any time during drug treatment, regardless of how long the patient has been taking the drug (may be that their kideys are deteriorating and could increase conc of drug, causing toxicity...)
28
What is a rapid reaction? Give an example
When a drug is administered too quickly Vancomycin flushing syndrome, following rapid infusion of vancomycin
29
What is an early reaction? Give an example
Occurs in early treatment the abates with continuous treatment (tolerance) Nitrate induced headache
30
What is a first dose recation? Give an example
Occurs after the first dose Hypotension with ACE-inhibitors
31
What is an intermediate reaction? Give an example
Occurs after some delay, if a reaction does not occur after a certain time, then little to no risk exists Some allergic reactions
32
What is a late reaction? Give an example
Risk of ADR increases with continued or repeated exposure, including withdrawl reactions Withdrawing long term steroids
33
What is a delayed reaction?
Occurs some time after exposure, even if the drug is withdrawn e.g. Teratogenicity
34
Name some susceptibilities which can increase the risk of ADRs (IGASPED)
I GASPED - Immunological reactions (e.g. allergies) - Genetics (e.g. G6PD deficiency) - Age - Sex - Physiology (e.g. pregnancy) - Exogenous (e.g. other drugs the patient may already be taking, foods, temperatures) - Disease states affecting the patient (e.g. renal dysfunction, liver disease)
35
What is the Rawlins-Thompson system of classifying ARDs?
Type A: Augmented / common and predictable Type B: Bizzare Type C: Chronic Type D: Delayed Type E: End of treatment Type F: Failure
36
Why are children more susceptible to ADRs?
- Higher body water content - Lower albumin and total protein levels - An immature blood-brain barrier
37
Name some chronic conditions which elevate risk of ADRs
- COPD - Congestive cardiac failure - Diabetes - Rheum and malignant diseases
38
Why are females often more susceptible to ADRs?
- on average smaller than males, standardised dosing
39
Name some drugs females are more likely to have ARDs from?
- Mefloquine (malarial drug), psych effect - Drug induced torsades de point - Hyponatraemia associated with diuretics
40
Patients of African-Caribbean origin are more likely to experience angioedema when prescribed ____________
ACE inhibitors
41
What gene is associated with a higher risk of Stevens-Johsnon syndrome? Name some of the common causative drugs
HLA-B*1502 - lamotrigine - carbamazepine - phenytoin - oxcarbazepine
42
G6PD increases risk of drug induced _________________
haemolytic anaemia
43
Standard monitoring on Clozapine
WBCs Platelets Neutrophils (agranulocytosis risk)
44
Standard monitoring on Warfarin
- FBC - U&E - LFTs
45
Standard warfarin monitoring
- INR
46
Name 2 drugs that require plasma drug concentration monitoring
- Lithium (every 3 months) - Aminoglycosides
47