Random Questions

Question 1

Which of the following would be a common intraoral condition found in a patient with diabetes?

-Geographic tongue
-Papillary hyperplasia
-Lichen planus
-Candida infection
-Leukoplakia

Answer 1

-Candida infection

Elevated glucose in diabetic saliva fosters Candida growth, leading to common thrush

-Papillary hyperplasia is related to denture use
-Lichen planus involves mucosal inflammation
-Leukoplakia white oral mucosal patches correlate to tobacco use

Question 2

During the periodontal assessment of this patient, a 4 mm pocket is detected on the distal surface of tooth #27. The gingival margin is located 2 mm occlusal to the cementoenamel junction (CEJ).

Which of the following correctly identifies the periodontal condition of this tooth?

-Pseudopocket
-Periodontal necrosis
-Periodontal abscess
-Clinical attachment loss

Answer 2

Pseudopocket

Result from gingival inflammation, with the margin above the CEJ, not from attachment loss

-Periodontal necrosis refers to tissue death

Periodontal abscess is an infection caused by pus pocket

Clinical attachment loss quantifies the depth from the CEJ to the pocket base, indicating tissue or bone loss

Question 3

The recession noted on the facia of the mandibular anterior teeth can be caused by all of the following EXCEPT one. Which is the EXCEPTION?

-Tooth position
-Decay
-Dehiscence
-Age

Answer 3

Decay

A demineralization process of enamel and dentin

-Abnormal tooth position can create tension on the gingiva

-Dehiscence exposed tooth roots by loss of overlying bone

-Age changes in gingival tissue can increase the likelihood of recession over time

Question 4

While treating this patient, he suddenly complains of a headache. You note that his pulse is racing, his skin feels clammy, and he begins to sweat across his forehead. Which of the following best describes what the patient is most likely experiencing?

-Diabetic coma
-Hyperglycemia
-High blood sugar
-Hypoglycemia

Answer 4

Hypoglycemia

Identify hypoglycemia by sudden symptoms headache,
sweating, racing pulse.

Diabetic coma arises from severe, prolonged hyperglycemia, not the rapid onset of symptoms described.

Hyperglycemia symptoms such as polyuria and polydipsia develop slowly, unlike the sudden symptoms in the scenario

High blood sugar results in gradual symptom onset

Question 5

Patient
Male, 57-year-old
Chief Complaint
“My wife says I have bad breath.”
Background/Patient History
Type 1 diabetes (under control)
Hypertensive
Allergic to penicillin
Current medications: Insulin 4 times per day, 30 minutes before each meal and
hydrochlorothiazide 25 mg BID
Current Findings
Poor oral hygiene, heavy plaque and calculus buildup
Has not been to a dentist in 8 years
Generalized BOP with probing depths ranging from 4-9 mm
Numerous carious lesions causing occasional pain.
Which of the following is the primary reason the dental hygienist plans to apply Atridox to treat the patient’s periodontal condition?

-To reduce plaque accumulation
-To prevent further bone loss
-Because elimination of infection is extremely important in patients with diabetes
-To promote tissue regeneration

Answer 5

Because elimination of infection is extremely important in patients with diabetes

Patients with diabetes are at higher risk for complications due to impaired immune function, making infection control crucial to prevent further complications in periodontal health.

Atridox can help control infection, but its main role is in infection elimination rather than directly promoting tissue regeneration.

While treating infection helps prevent bone loss, the primary reason for applying Atridox in this case is infection elimination, not bone preservation

Atridox can help control infection, but its main role is in infection elimination rather than directly promoting tissue regeneration.

Question 6

Which of the following pathogens is MOST prevalent in a periodontal abscess?

-Bacillus fusiformis
-Streptococcus viridans
-Treponema
-Prevotella intermedia

Answer 6

Streptococcus viridans

Streptococcus viridans is the main pathogen in periodontal abscesses.

B. fusiformis may be present in oral infections but is not the primary pathogen in

Treponema contributes to periodontal disease pathology but is not the main cause of periodontal abscesses.

P. intermedia is implicated in periodontal disease but less commonly in the etiology of periodontal abscesses

Question 7

Patient
Male, 57-year-old
Chief Complaint
“My wife says I have bad breath.”
Background/Patient History
Type 1 diabetes (under control)
Hypertensive
Allergic to penicillin
Current medications: Insulin 4 times per day, 30 minutes before each meal and
hydrochlorothiazide 25 mg BID
Current Findings
Poor oral hygiene, heavy plaque and calculus buildup
Has not been to a dentist in 8 years
Generalized BOP with probing depths ranging from 4-9 mm
Numerous carious lesions causing occasional pain.

Which of the following peridontal classifications would BEST describe this patient’s periodontal status?

-Advanced
-Refractory
-Moderate
-Early

Answer 7

Advanced

Advanced periodontitis is marked by extensive bone
loss, probing depths ≥6 mm, and tooth

Refractory periodontitis denotes disease that continues despite treatment, which is not indicated in this patient’s description.

Moderate periodontitis presents with 4-5 mm probing depths and 3-4 mm clinical attachment loss. mobility.

Early periodontitis features slight bone loss and normal probing depths, signaling the start of periodontal disease progression.

Question 8

Which of the following is NOT utilized to fluoridate community water supplies?

-Stannous fluoride
-Sodium silicoflouride
-Sodium fluoride
-Hydrofluorosilic acid

Answer 8

Stannous fluoride

Stannous fluoride is not used in water fluoridation; it’s chemically unstable in water, leading to insoluble compounds

Sodium silicofluoride is used in water fluoridation for its ability to release fluoride ions, essential for reducing tooth decay.

Sodium fluoride is a common fluoridating agent due to its solubility and cost-effectiveness in caries prevention.

Hydrofluorosilicic acid, a liquid agent, is easily incorporated into water systems for fluoridation purposes

Question 9

A continuous antimicrobial effect, or substantivity, is maintained by which of the following?

-Quaternary ammonium compound
-Alcohol
-Anionic detergent
-Chlorhexidine gluconate
-Cationic detergent

Answer 9

Chlorhexidine gluconate stands out for its substantivity, a term describing an antimicrobial agent’s ability to adhere to tissues and maintain its effect over time.

Specifically, chlorhexidine gluconate maintains its antimicrobial action for up to 12 hours, targeting both Gram-positive and Gram-negative bacteria. This dual-action antiseptic disrupts bacterial cell membranes, leading to cell death (bactericidal) and inhibiting bacterial growth (bacteriostatic).

Quaternary ammonium compounds disrupt microbial cell membranes but are not substantive; they are removed upon rinsing

Alcohol rapidly evaporates, providing potent but short-lived antimicrobial activity without substantivity.

Anionic detergents help in microbial removal but do not maintain antimicrobial effects after being rinsed off

Cationic detergents remove microbes effectively but lack substantivity and are rinsed away, ending their action

Question 10

Which of the following fluorides continues to react with enamel for 24–48 hours following administration?

-Strontium chloride
-Sodium fluoride varnish
-Acidulated phosphate
-Stannous fluoride

Answer 10

Sodium fluoride varnish is distinguished by its ability to continue reacting with tooth enamel for 24–48 hours after application. This property is crucial for providing extended protection against caries and for the desensitization of exposed roots.

Strontium chloride, used for sensitivity, does not provide the enamel-reactive fluoride benefits of varnishes.

Acidulated phosphate fluoride offers a high fluoride concentration but lacks extended enamel interaction and can damage restorations.

Stannous fluoride provides immediate fluoride release but lacks the prolonged enamel interaction characteristic of varnishes.

Question 11

Patient
Male, 57-year-old
Chief Complaint
“My wife says I have bad breath.”
Background/Patient History
Type 1 diabetes (under control)
Hypertensive
Allergic to penicillin
Current medications: Insulin 4 times per day, 30 minutes before each meal and
hydrochlorothiazide 25 mg BID
Current Findings
Poor oral hygiene, heavy plaque and calculus buildup
Has not been to a dentist in 8 years
Generalized BOP with probing depths ranging from 4-9 mm
Numerous carious lesions causing occasional pain.

Given his medical history, which of the following would be contraindicated for this patient?

-Rubber cup polishing
-Ultrasonic polishing
-Air polishing
-Selective polishing

Answer 11

For patients with hypertension or on sodium-restricted diets, air polishing with sodium-based powders is contraindicated due to the potential exacerbation of their condition.

Rubber cup polishing is generally safe and does not introduce systemic sodium

Ultrasonic polishing is effective for heavy deposits and does not involve sodium, posing no risk to hypertensive patients

Selective polishing avoids unnecessary abrasion and is not contraindicated by sodium intake concerns.

Question 12

Patient
Male, 57-year-old
Chief Complaint
“My wife says I have bad breath.”
Background/Patient History
Type 1 diabetes (under control)
Hypertensive
Allergic to penicillin
Current medications: Insulin 4 times per day, 30 minutes before each meal and
hydrochlorothiazide 25 mg BID
Current Findings
Poor oral hygiene, heavy plaque and calculus buildup
Has not been to a dentist in 8 years
Generalized BOP with probing depths ranging from 4-9 mm
Numerous carious lesions causing occasional pain.
Which of the following radiographic techniques would be recommended to assess this patient?

-Panoral
-Vertical bite wings
-Occlusal
-Horizontal bite wings

Answer 12

Vertical bitewings are optimal for periodontal assessment, offering clear visualization of alveolar bone levels and patterns of bone loss.

Occlusal radiographs capture extensive areas of the jaw but do not provide the detail needed for precise periodontal bone level analysis.

Occlusal radiographs capture extensive areas of the jaw but do not provide the detail needed for precise periodontal bone level analysis.

Horizontal bitewings excel in identifying interproximal decay but may not fully reveal the vertical extent of periodontal bone loss

Question 13

Which of the following is the correct composition of normal gingival crevicular plaque?

-Decrease in cervicular fluid, desquamation of epithelial cells, and bacterial acid products
-Increase in cervicular fluid, desquamation of epithelial cells, and bacterial acid products
-Prescence of gram-positive, facultative aerobic rods
-Prescence of gram-negative, facultative anaerobic organisms

Answer 13

Crevicular fluid increase, epithelial cell turnover, and bacterial acid production are characteristic of healthy gingival plaque.

Decreased crevicular fluid contradicts the typical increase seen in healthy gingival plaque environments

Gram-positive facultative aerobic rods are present in the oral cavity but do not singularly represent normal gingival plaque.

Gram-negative facultative anaerobes are part of the complex oral microbiota but not exclusive to normal gingival plaque

Question 14

Which of the following statements concerning the junctional epithelium is INCORRECT?

-the junctional epithelium is easily penetrated by the periodontal probe
-the junctional epithelium serves as the route for the passage of fluid and cells from the connective tissue into sulcus
-the length of the junctional ranges from 1.25 mm to 1.35 mm
-the junctional epithelium is more permeable to cells and fluid than oral epithelium

Answer 14

The junctional epithelium typically measures between 0.25 mm and 1.35 mm, not 1.25 mm to 1.35 mm.

Penetration of the junctional epithelium by a periodontal probe can indicate periodontal disease presence.

Fluid and cells pass through the junctional epithelium from the connective tissue to the sulcus, aiding in periodontal defense.

The junctional epithelium’s increased permeability allows for the movement of defensive cells and gingival crevicular fluid.

Question 15

Patient
Male, 57-year-old
Chief Complaint
“My wife says I have bad breath.”
Background/Patient History
Type 1 diabetes (under control)
Hypertensive
Allergic to penicillin
Current medications: Insulin 4 times per day, 30 minutes before each meal and
hydrochlorothiazide 25 mg BID
Current Findings
Poor oral hygiene, heavy plaque and calculus buildup
Has not been to a dentist in 8 years
Generalized BOP with probing depths ranging from 4-9 mm
Numerous carious lesions causing occasional pain.
Which of the following shows the correct sequence of dental plaque formation in this patient’s poor oral hygiene?

-matrix forms, bacteria adhere to the tooth surface, and acquired pellicle form
-bacteria multiply and colonize, bacteria adhere to the tooth surface, and adhered pellicle forms
-bacteria adhere to the tooth surface, acquired pellicle forms, and bacteria multiply and colonize
-acquired pellicle forms, bacteria adhere to the tooth surface, and bacteria multiply and colonize

Answer 15

The acquired pellicle, a protein layer, is the initial stage of plaque formation, providing a surface for bacterial adhesion and subsequent colonization.

The matrix, or biofilm, develops after bacteria adhere to the acquired pellicle, not before its formation.

Bacterial multiplication and colonization require prior adhesion to the tooth surface, which is facilitated by the presence of the acquired pellicle.

Bacterial adhesion cannot precede pellicle formation; the pellicle provides the necessary substrate for bacteria to adhere and form plaque.

Question 16

Patient
Female, 26-year-old
Chief Complaint
“I want my teeth to be whiter.”
Background/Patient History
Patient has cerebral palsy and sees her primary care physician every six months.
Current medications: trihexiphenidyl (Artane) 15 mg every 6 hours.
Current Findings
Numerous Class V carious lesions.
Marginal gingiva appears red and inflamed.
Generalized bleeding on probing.
Tooth # 30 is missing.

Utilizing the canines for occlusal classification, which of the following would accurately identify that the distal part of the maxillary canine is mesial to the mandibular canine?

-class III
-class II
-class I
-class IV

Answer 16

Class II malocclusion indicates a forward position of the maxillary canine relative to the mandibular canine.

Class III malocclusion involves the mandibular canine positioned anteriorly to the maxillary canine, opposite of the scenario described.

In Class I malocclusion, the maxillary canine aligns with the mandibular canine-first premolar space, not applicable here.

Class IV is not a valid classification in Angle’s system; the system includes only Classes I, II, and III.

Question 17

Patient
Female, 26-year-old
Chief Complaint
“I want my teeth to be whiter.”
Background/Patient History
Patient has cerebral palsy and sees her primary care physician every six months.
Current medications: trihexiphenidyl (Artane) 15 mg every 6 hours.
Current Findings
Numerous Class V carious lesions.
Marginal gingiva appears red and inflamed.
Generalized bleeding on probing.
The patient’s cerebral palsy results in unpredictable head movements. To provide effective care, the clinician asks the dental assistant to help stabilize the patient’s head during treatment.

Of which of the following could the dental hygienist and assistant potentially be accused?

-battery
-implied contract
-unintentional tort
-abandonment

Answer 17

Battery occurs when a healthcare provider makes contact with a patient without their consent

Implied contracts are non-verbal agreements inferred from a patient’s conduct.

Unintentional torts result from a failure to meet the standard of care, not deliberate action

Abandonment is the premature termination of patient care without ensuring continued treatment

Question 18

Patient
Female, 26-year-old
Chief Complaint
“I want my teeth to be whiter.”
Background/Patient History
Patient has cerebral palsy and sees her primary care physician every six months.
Current medications: trihexiphenidyl (Artane) 15 mg every 6 hours.
Current Findings
Numerous Class V carious lesions.
Marginal gingiva appears red and inflamed.
Generalized bleeding on probing.

Which of the following is NOT a treatment modification for this patient?

-softly cradle the patient’s head during treatment
-do not force the arms and legs in unnatural positions
-minimize precipitating factors for seizures
-the patient may need sedation or muscle relaxants for extensive treatment

Answer 18

Seizure precautions aren’t standard for cerebral palsy unless a seizure disorder is also diagnosed.

Gently supporting the head provides comfort and stability for patients with cerebral palsy during dental procedures.

Avoiding unnatural limb positions prevents discomfort or injury in patients with cerebral palsy, who may have increased muscle tone.

Sedation and muscle relaxants may be necessary to manage spasticity and anxiety during extensive dental treatments for cerebral palsy patients.

Question 19

After an automobile accident, a patient’s chin deviates to the left when he opens his mouth widely. At which of the following points is the mandible MOST LIKELY fractured?

-Left condylar neck
-Left mental foramen
-Right condylar neck
-Right mental foramen
-Genial tubercle

Answer 19

The left condylar neck is fractured, causing the chin to deviate to the left when the patient opens their mouth due to the impaired function of the left lateral pterygoid muscle.

The left mental foramen is also an opening in the mandible for nerves and blood vessels, but a fracture at this location would not result in the observed chin deviation.

The right condylar neck is not fractured in this case, as the patient’s chin deviates to the left when opening the mouth, indicating a fracture on the left side

The right mental foramen is an opening in the mandible that allows the passage of nerves and blood vessels, but a fracture here would not cause the chin to deviate to the left.

The genial tubercle is a bony protuberance on the inner surface of the mandible, and a fracture here would not cause the chin to deviate to the left when opening the mouth.

Question 20

Patient
Female, 26-year-old
Chief Complaint
“I want my teeth to be whiter.”
Background/Patient History
Patient has cerebral palsy and sees her primary care physician every six months.
Current medications: trihexiphenidyl (Artane) 15 mg every 6 hours.
Current Findings
Numerous Class V carious lesions.
Marginal gingiva appears red and inflamed.
Generalized bleeding on probing.

During exploration, the clinician notes a moderate amount of burnished calculus on #15 distal. Which of the following instruments would be utilized to prepare the deposit for removal?

-Posterior sickle scaler
-Periodontal file
-Area-specific curet
-Universal curet

Answer 20

Periodontal files are uniquely designed to fracture and roughen the surface of burnished calculus, preparing it for removal with a curet.

Posterior sickle scalers are effective for removing large calculus deposits but may not adequately scratch the surface of burnished calculus

Area-specific curets are designed for root planing and scaling specific to the anatomy of certain teeth, not for fracturing burnished calculus.

Universal curets are versatile for calculus removal but lack the specific design to roughen the surface of burnished deposits

Question 21

Patient
Female, 26-year-old
Chief Complaint
“I want my teeth to be whiter.”
Background/Patient History
Patient has cerebral palsy and sees her primary care physician every six months.
Current medications: trihexiphenidyl (Artane) 15 mg every 6 hours.
Current Findings
Numerous Class V carious lesions.
Marginal gingiva appears red and inflamed.
Generalized bleeding on probing.
A dense, scar-like connective tissue lesion is noted on the right buccal mucosa.

The lesion is most likely a:

-dental granuloma
-pyogenic granuloma
-irritation fibroma
-hematoma

Answer 21

Irritation fibroma, a benign proliferation of fibrous connective tissue, results from chronic irritation, presenting as a dense nodule.

Dental granuloma, an inflammatory lesion at a tooth’s root apex, arises from chronic pulpitis, not presenting as dense connective tissue

Pyogenic granuloma is a vascular proliferation, often related to hormonal influences or trauma, presenting as a red, easily bleeding lesion.

Hematoma results from trauma, leading to a localized collection of blood outside vessels, often appearing as a bruise

Question 22

Patient
Female, 26-year-old
Chief Complaint
“I want my teeth to be whiter.”
Background/Patient History
Patient has cerebral palsy and sees her primary care physician every six months.
Current medications: trihexiphenidyl (Artane) 15 mg every 6 hours.
Current Findings
Numerous Class V carious lesions.
Marginal gingiva appears red and inflamed.
Generalized bleeding on probing.

The patient reports taking ibuprofen occasionally for pain caused by her condition. Which of the following compounds is inhibited from being produced when taking ibuprofen?

-leukotrienes
-lipoxins
-prostaglandin
-resolvins

Answer 22

Ibuprofen blocks COX enzymes, reducing prostaglandin synthesis and inflammation

Leukotrienes induce bronchoconstriction and are not directly targeted by ibuprofen

Lipoxins facilitate the resolution phase of inflammation and are not inhibited by ibuprofen

Resolvins modulate the immune response to promote resolution of inflammation.

Question 23

Patient
Female, 26-year-old
Chief Complaint
“I want my teeth to be whiter.”
Background/Patient History
Patient has cerebral palsy and sees her primary care physician every six months.
Current medications: trihexiphenidyl (Artane) 15 mg every 6 hours.
Current Findings
Numerous Class V carious lesions.
Marginal gingiva appears red and inflamed.
Generalized bleeding on probing.

Which of the following radiographic series would BEST be utilized to effectively diagnose this patient’s class V caries?

-panoral
-none
-periapical
-bite wings radiographs

Answer 23

Class V caries, located on the cervical third of the tooth, are best identified through direct clinical examination rather than radiographic imaging.

Panoral, or panoramic radiographs, are used for assessing overall jaw structure, growth, and development, as well as detecting widespread dental pathology.

Periapical radiographs focus on the tooth’s apex and surrounding bone structure, essential for diagnosing periapical conditions and periodontal disease.

Bitewing radiographs are optimal for detecting interproximal decay and assessing the crestal bone level, not for diagnosing class V caries

Question 24

Patient
Female, 26-year-old
Chief Complaint
“I want my teeth to be whiter.”
Background/Patient History
Patient has cerebral palsy and sees her primary care physician every six months.
Current medications: trihexiphenidyl (Artane) 15 mg every 6 hours.
Current Findings
Numerous Class V carious lesions.
Marginal gingiva appears red and inflamed.
Generalized bleeding on probing.

Which of the following is NOT a common oral manifestation of a patient with cerebral palsy?

-periodontal disease
-weakness in masticatory muscle
-enamel dysplasia and malocclusion
-dental caries

Answer 24

Cerebral palsy often presents with specific oral manifestations, but not masticatory muscle weakness.

Increased risk of periodontal disease in cerebral palsy is linked to difficulties with oral hygiene practices.

Enamel dysplasia and malocclusion in cerebral palsy result from neuromuscular imbalances and developmental disturbances.

Patients with cerebral palsy face a higher incidence of dental caries, often stemming from oral care challenges.

Question 25

Which of the following is NOT an indirect effect of radiation exposure? -production of free radical -radiolysis of water -reactive molecules -ionization

Answer 25

Reactive molecules can cause cellular damage but are not produced by radiation exposure; they are more associated with oxidative stress Free radicals, often produced by radiolysis of water, are highly reactive and can cause significant biological damage during radiation exposure Radiolysis of water, where radiation splits water molecules, leads to free radical production and subsequent indirect cellular damage. Ionization, a direct radiation effect, involves an atom losing an electron and can lead to cellular damage through disrupted molecular bonds.

Question 26

Which of the following is NOT true concerning the Fordyce granules? -they appear as yellow clusters of lobules -they are most common found on the lips and buccal mucosa -they are most commonly found in dark skinned individuals -they are asymptomatic

Answer 26

The prevalence of Fordyce granules is not linked to skin color or ethnic background. Characterized by their yellowish hue, Fordyce granules often cluster on oral mucosa Fordyce granules predominantly manifest on the lips and buccal mucosa Fordyce granules are usually asymptomatic, presenting without discomfort or pain.

Question 27

Patient Female, 26-year-old Chief Complaint “I want my teeth to be whiter.” Background/Patient History Patient has cerebral palsy and sees her primary care physician every six months. Current medications: trihexiphenidyl (Artane) 15 mg every 6 hours. Current Findings Numerous Class V carious lesions. Marginal gingiva appears red and inflamed. Generalized bleeding on probing. During the intraoral examination, the clinician notices that the apex portion of the patient’s tongue is red and inflamed. Upon examination, the patient reports accidentally biting the tongue the day before. Which of the following lymph nodes would be involved in the inflammatory process? -submandibular -submental -cervical -lingual

Answer 27

Submental lymph nodes, positioned beneath the chin, drain the apex of the tongue, becoming involved when trauma such as biting occurs Submandibular lymph nodes drain the mouth's floor and are not typically involved in inflammation at the tongue's apex. Cervical lymph nodes, while extensive, are not the primary drainage points for the apex of the tongue following trauma. Lingual lymph nodes, not distinctly categorized in lymphatic drainage, do not directly drain the tongue's apex

Question 28

Which of the following cells are found within the lacunae of cellular cementum? -cementocytes -enamel spindles -enamel tufts -rests of malassez

Answer 28

Cementocytes, residing in lacunae, maintain cellular cementum and regulate the exchange of nutrients and waste through canaliculi. Enamel spindles, odontoblastic process extensions, are located at the dentinoenamel junction, not within cementum lacunae Enamel tufts, structural defects at the dentinoenamel junction, are unrelated to the cellular composition of cementum. Rests of Malassez, epithelial cell remnants in the periodontal ligament, do not reside within the lacunae of cellular cementum

Question 29

All of these structures are derived from the pouch of a pharyngeal arch EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION? -thymus -crypts of palatine tonsil -cervical sinus -tympanic membrane -parafollicular cells of thyroid

Answer 29

The cervical sinus originates from the ectodermal grooves of arches II, III, and IV, NOT from a pharyngeal pouch The thymus is derived from the third pharyngeal pouch, playing a crucial role in the development of the immune system. Crypts of the palatine tonsil are derived from the second pharyngeal pouch, forming part of the lymphatic system in the oral cavity. The tympanic membrane, or eardrum, is derived from the first pharyngeal pouch, playing a key role in the process of hearing Parafollicular cells of the thyroid are derived from the third pharyngeal pouch, which contributes to the formation of the thyroid gland

Question 30

During periodontal assessment of a patient, a hygienist notes bleeding upon probing on more than 30% of the sites. What is the MOST likely cause of bleeding? -migration of antibodies -destruction of collagen fibers -ulcerated sulcular lining -infiltration of inflammatory cells

Answer 30

Ulceration of the gingival sulcular lining exposes blood vessels, leading to bleeding upon probing. Antibody migration is an immune response and does not directly result in bleeding upon probing. Destruction of collagen fibers undermines periodontal integrity but does not cause bleeding upon probing Inflammatory cell infiltration indicates gingival inflammation but is not the direct cause of bleeding

Question 31

A raised, circumscribed vesicle with a bluish hue is noted on a patient’s mandibular lip. What is the MOST likely diagnosis? -ranula -varix -amalgam tattoo -hemangioma -mucocele

Answer 31

Mucoceles, caused by trauma to salivary glands, typically present as raised, bluish vesicles on the lower lip, matching the case description Ranulas manifest as mucus-filled swellings on the floor of the mouth, not as raised vesicles on the lip as described. Varices are dilated veins that appear as bluish masses, distinct from the vesicular presentation noted on the patient's lip Amalgam tattoos appear as flat, bluish-gray lesions due to embedded amalgam particles, differing from the raised vesicular presentation in question Hemangiomas consist of proliferating blood vessels and present as red, not bluish lesions, unlike the clinical description provided.

Question 32

A patient has a probing depth measurement of 6 mm on the buccal of tooth #3, with 2 mm of recession. What is the CORRECT calculation of clinical attachment loss (CAL)? -4 mm -6 mm -2 mm -5 mm -8 mm

Answer 32

CAL equals probing depth plus recession when gingival margin is not at CEJ. An 8 mm CAL correctly combines the 6 mm probing depth with the 2 mm recession for accurate attachment loss.

Question 33

Patient Female, 60-year-old Chief Complaint "My teeth seem to be more yellow than before." Background/Patient History History of hypothyroidism Current medication: Synthroid 100 mg once daily Regular dental care Current Findings Implant present at the site of tooth 19, which was congenitally missing. Implant shows signs of failure and needs to be replaced. Which of the following is NOT a criterion for implant replacement that would be included in the patient’s treatment plan case presentation? -success rate -radiographic appearance -pain -bleeding

Answer 33

Implant failure criteria: pain, bleeding, radiographic changes, biofilm, calculus, soft tissue infection, not success rate. Success rate reflects long-term performance, not an immediate criterion for implant replacement. Radiographic appearance is key for evaluating bone-implant interface and detecting peri-implant bone loss Pain suggests complications like infection or failed osseointegration, warranting implant reassessment Bleeding indicates peri-implant inflammation, often a precursor to implant failure requiring intervention

Question 34

Patient Female, 60-year-old Chief Complaint "My teeth seem to be more yellow than before." Background/Patient History History of hypothyroidism Current medication: Synthroid 100 mg once daily Regular dental care Current Findings Implant present at the site of tooth 19, which was congenitally missing. On examination, plaque buildup is noted around the existing implant; patient also reports occasional pain and bleeding from the implant site. The patient wishes to take a more conservative approach to managing her existing implant. The dentist prescribes chlorhexidine gluconate. Which of the following is the recommended regimen? -one 2 oz., 60-second rinse three times per day for four weeks -one 2 oz., 30-second rinse three times per day for three months -one 2 oz., 60-second rinse twice daily for six months -one 2 oz., 30-second rinse twice daily for four weeks

Answer 34

Twice-daily, 30-second chlorhexidine rinses for four weeks balance efficacy with minimal side effect risk. Extended use or excessive frequency of chlorhexidine can lead to staining and calculus buildup A three-month chlorhexidine regimen increases risks of staining and calculus, contrary to short-term use guidelines. Six months of chlorhexidine use exceeds short-term recommendations and heightens side effect risks.

Question 35

Which of the following is NOT part of safely handling mercury in dental amalgam? -utilize a high volume vacuum -dispose of scrap amalgam in a medical waste container -utilize covers on amalgamators -do not touch mercury with bare skin

Answer 35

Scrap amalgam must be disposed of in dedicated containers, not medical waste bins, to avoid mercury pollution. High-volume vacuums capture mercury vapors, minimizing inhalation risks during dental procedures. Covers on amalgamators prevent mercury vapor escape, a critical containment measure. Mercury exposure through skin contact can result in toxicity; protective gloves are essential.

Question 36

A patient presents with a communicable disease. Which of the following statements regarding air polishing is true? -air polishing has no impact on the transmission of communicable diseases -air polishing can be safely performed on patients with communicable diseases if proper infection control measures are followed -air polishing is recommended for patients with communicable diseases to reduce bacterial load -air polishing is contraindicated for patients with communicable diseases due to the risk of aerosol transmission

Answer 36

Air polishing procedures generate aerosols that can contain microorganisms from the oral cavity, posing a risk of transmitting communicable diseases to both patients and dental healthcare providers. Air polishing can impact the transmission of communicable diseases by generating aerosols that may contain infectious agents While infection control measures are essential, performing air polishing on patients with communicable diseases still poses a risk of aerosol transmission, making it contraindicated Air polishing is not recommended for patients with communicable diseases; other methods should be considered to reduce bacterial load without generating aerosols

Question 37

Which of the following would be contraindicated for performing selective polishing procedure? -demineralized tooth surface -visible plaque -clinically evident extrinsic stain -implant porcelain abutment

Answer 37

Avoid polishing demineralized enamel to prevent further enamel loss Visible plaque can be mechanically removed through polishing, aiding in oral hygiene maintenance Extrinsic stains can be removed by polishing without damaging the underlying tooth structure Porcelain abutments are designed to withstand polishing procedures without compromising the implant integrity.

Question 38

Patient Female, 60-year-old Chief Complaint "My teeth seem to be more yellow than before." Background/Patient History History of hypothyroidism Current medication: Synthroid 100 mg once daily Regular dental care Current Findings Implant present at the site of tooth 19, which was congenitally missing. Use of which of the following may interfere with the patient’s prescription drug? -NSAID -antacid -opioid analgesics -acetaminophen

Answer 38

Antacids can inhibit thyroid medication absorption; separate intake by 4-6 hours NSAIDs may cause gastrointestinal side effects but do not generally affect thyroid medication absorption. Opioids manage pain without affecting the pharmacokinetics of thyroid medications. Acetaminophen, used for pain and fever, does not inhibit thyroid medication absorption

Question 39

Patient Female, 60-year-old Chief Complaint "My teeth seem to be more yellow than before." Background/Patient History History of hypothyroidism Current medication: Synthroid 100 mg once daily Regular dental care Current Findings Implant present at the site of tooth 19, which was congenitally missing. Extraoral examination revealed one dark nevus opposite the left ala area. Which of the following should NOT be included when documenting the dark nevus near the left side of this patient’s nose? -size of the lesion -final diagnosis -shape and contours of the tissue -surface color and texture

Answer 39

Final diagnosis is reached after comprehensive evaluation and is not part of initial lesion documentation

Question 40

What movement does the lateral pterygoid induce? -initial closure of the mandible -superior movement of the mandible -forward motion of the condyle from the articular fossa -posterior motion of the condyle from the articular fossa

Answer 40

The lateral pterygoid is the only muscle of mastication that protracts the mandible, pulling the condylar head forward onto the articular eminence during mouth opening Initial closure is achieved by the medial pterygoid, not the lateral pterygoid. The lateral pterygoid’s role is centered on mandibular protrusion. Elevation of the mandible (closing the jaw) is done by the masseter, temporalis, and medial pterygoid, not the lateral pterygoid The lateral pterygoid causes protraction, not retraction. Posterior movement is mainly performed by the posterior fibers of temporalis

Question 41

Patient Female, 43-year-old Chief Complaint "My gums bleed when I brush and I have a bad taste in my mouth." Background/Patient History History of heartburn with irregular medical care Current medication: Prilosec 2 mg 3x/day Current Findings Generalized gingival marginal redness, blunted papillae and rolled gingival margins. Probing depths range from 3-8 mm with generalized BOP. Purulent exudate noted from tooth #9. Which of the following would be a radiographic indicator of the presence of periodontal breakdown when seen on this patient’s bitewings? -Radiopaque lamina dura outline -Radiolucent outline near the periodontal ligament space -Fuzziness of the interproximal alveolar crest -Breakdown of the facial and lingual cortical plates

Answer 41

Fuzziness at interproximal alveolar crests on bitewings is an early sign of periodontal breakdown, suggesting bone loss Radiopaque lamina dura suggests healthy periodontium; its presence does not indicate periodontal breakdown. Radiolucency near the PDL space often points to pathology like abscesses, not initial periodontal breakdown. Cortical plate breakdown indicates advanced periodontal disease, typically seen after the interproximal alveolar crest changes.

Question 42

Tooth #30 demonstrates a class II furcation involvement. Which of the following BEST describes this condition? -evidence of bone and tissue loss in furca area with entrance are clearly visible, and a Nabers probe can pass between the roots through the entire furca -there is evidence of severe bone loss in the furca area, where there is through-and-through involvement with complete loss of bone between the roots, with gingiva covering the area -there is evidence of loss of some bone between the roots and a nabers probe can enter the furca but cannot pass between the roots -there is evidence of early bone loss where a nabers probe can enter the depression leading to the furca

Answer 42

Class II furcation involvement is indicated by a Nabers probe's ability to enter but not pass through the furca, signifying moderate bone loss Visible furca entrance and a Nabers probe passing between the roots suggest Class IV furcation, which is more advanced than Class II. Severe bone loss with through-and-through involvement and gingival coverage characterizes Class III, not Class II furcation. Early bone loss where a Nabers probe enters the depression but does not pass is indicative of Class I furcation, not Class II.

Question 43

Which of the following instruments would be appropriate for removal of a deposit on the mesial surface of the mesiobuccal root of tooth #2? -Gracey 7/8 -Gracey 13/14 -Gracey 1/2 -Gracey 11/12

Answer 43

Gracey 11/12 curette is specific for mesial surfaces of posterior teeth Gracey 7/8 targets facial and lingual surfaces, not the required mesial surface. Gracey 13/14 is specific for distal surfaces, not the mesial surface required here. Gracey 1/2 is specific for anterior teeth, unsuitable for posterior mesial surfaces.

Question 44

During intraoral assessment, a clinician notes a small (less than 1 cm), raised growth present on the retromolar pad distal to tooth #31. Which of the following descriptions would be correct when documenting this discovery? -Nodule -Pustule -Papule -Vesicle

Answer 44

Papules are elevated lesions that do not exceed 1 cm, commonly found in dermatological conditions such as acne. Nodules are growths up to 1 cm that may extend deeper into the dermis, unlike the more superficial papule Pustules are characterized by pus content, which is not a feature of the solid, smaller papule Vesicles contain serous fluid and are less than 1 cm, differentiating them from the solid elevation of a papule

Question 45

Patient Female, 43-year-old Chief Complaint "My gums bleed when I brush." Background/Patient History History of heartburn with irregular medical care Current medication: Prilosec 2 mg 3x/day Current Findings Full-mouth series of radiographs reveals a supernumerary tooth distal to tooth 16. -cap stage -bell stage -initiation stage -bud stage

Answer 45

During the initiation stage, the dental lamina initiates tooth development, setting the blueprint for tooth number and type In the cap stage, cells differentiate to establish the future shape of the tooth, unrelated to the occurrence of extra teeth The bell stage sees the development of tooth structure and hard tissues, which is a later process not linked to supernumerary tooth formation The bud stage is characterized by the proliferation of cells to form a tooth bud, which is not responsible for supernumerary teeth

Question 46

Patient Female, 43-year-old Chief Complaint "My gums bleed when I brush and I have a bad taste in my mouth." Background/Patient History History of heartburn with irregular medical care. Current medication: Prilosec 2 mg 3x/day Current Findings Probing depths range from 3-8 mm with generalized BOP. Additional Information During the appointment, the patient asks how menopause may affect her oral health. The dental hygienist references a recent article about periodontal pathogens in menopausal patients and now wants to assess the article's credibility. When evaluating the credibility of this article, which of the following should NOT be considered? (Select the EXCEPTION.) -the author has appropriate credentials -the article appears in a journal affiliated with a professional group -the article is published in a popular mainstream magazine -the article is peer reviewed

Answer 46

Mainstream magazines may not undergo rigorous peer review, compromising scientific accuracy

Question 47

Patient Female, 43-year-old Chief Complaint "My gums bleed when I brush and I have a bad taste in my mouth." Background/Patient History History of heartburn with irregular medical care Current medication: Prilosec 2 mg 3x/day Current Findings Generalized gingival redness with blunted papillae and rolled margins. Probing depths range from 3-8 mm. Generalized oral dryness and fissured tongue noted. Which of the following should be encouraged during oral hygiene instruction to address this patient’s xerostomia? -increase the consumption of raw vegetables -drink plenty of fluids throughout the day -utilize lemons to increase salivary secretion -eat softer foods to protect delicate oral tissues

Answer 47

Chewing raw vegetables naturally stimulates salivary secretion, aiding xerostomia. Hydration supports overall health but doesn't directly increase saliva production Lemons may temporarily increase saliva but risk dental erosion due to citric acid. Softer foods minimize oral tissue damage but don't stimulate salivary flow.

Question 48

Which of the following microorganisms are predominantly found on interproximal surfaces? -campylobacter rectus and lactobacillus -fusobacterium and treponema -streptococcus salivarius and actinomyces -veillonella and prevotella

Answer 48

Veillonella and Prevotella are anaerobic bacteria that thrive in the low-oxygen environment of interproximal surfaces, contributing to caries. Campylobacter rectus and Lactobacillus are more commonly associated with chronic periodontitis, not the predominant flora of interproximal spaces Fusobacterium and Treponema are linked to aggressive periodontitis rather than the typical bacterial profile of interproximal plaque Streptococcus salivarius predominantly colonizes the tongue, while Actinomyces is associated with root caries, not interproximal surfaces.

Question 49

The patient chooses not to accept the proposed treatment for the crowns on her first and second molars. Which of the following should be included in an informed refusal? -future financial obligations -reason for refusal -oral health risk -correct dental terminology

Answer 49

Documenting oral health risks in an informed refusal clarifies the potential consequences of declining treatment Capturing the patient's reason for refusal respects their decision-making autonomy and is essential for legal documentation.

Question 50

The first type of inflammatory cell to leave the vascular bed and stay at the site of injury through the acute phase is the -eosinophil -lymphocyte -monocyte -plasma cell -neutrophil

Answer 50

Neutrophils are the primary cells in the acute inflammatory response, rapidly mobilized to phagocytize pathogens Eosinophils escalate in allergic reactions and parasitic infections, not first-line defense in acute inflammation Lymphocytes, involved in adaptive immunity and antibody production, are not the first responders to acute injury. Monocytes, which differentiate into macrophages for long-term defense, are not the initial responders in acute inflammation. Plasma cells, originating from B-lymphocytes to produce antibodies, are not involved in the immediate acute inflammatory response.

Question 51

Which of the following would NOT be an oral manifestation of an injury sustained from a tongue piercing? -mobility -chipping of fractured tooth -recession -neoplasm

Answer 51

Neoplasms, or abnormal tissue growths, are unrelated to the mechanical trauma caused by tongue piercings The presence of a tongue piercing can lead to increased tooth mobility due to stress on the surrounding bone and tissue Tongue piercings can lead to tooth damage when they come into contact with teeth during normal oral functions. Tongue jewelry can cause gum tissue to recede from the tooth, exposing roots and increasing sensitivity

Question 52

Patient Female, 20-year-old Chief Complaint “My front tooth feels loose.” Background/Patient History Patient sees MD yearly for routine physical examination. Current medications: Yaz 7 mg once per day. Current Findings Patient has had a tongue piercing since age 18. Generalized marginal gingival inflammation is noted. Tooth # 26 has evident gingival recession and Class I mobility. All of the permanent molars have sealants. Which of the following is the reason for the patient’s marginal gingiva progressing to an inflamed state? -adherence of planktonic bacteria -attachment of gram positive cocci -maturation of plaque to an increase in gram negative anaerobic rods -colonization of plaque to an increase of spirochetes

Answer 52

Plaque maturation to Gram-negative anaerobic rods, more pathogenic than early colonizers, directly contributes to gingival inflammation Planktonic bacteria adherence is an early plaque stage and less indicative of the inflammatory changes seen with mature plaque Gram-positive cocci, typically initial colonizers in plaque, are less virulent compared to later-appearing Gram-negative anaerobic rods. Spirochetes in plaque signify progression but are not the primary cause of the shift to gingival inflammation

Question 53

What type of cells encircle foreign bodies in granulomatous inflammation -T cells -macrophages -PMNS -B cells -Dendritic cells

Answer 53

Macrophages are immune cells that phagocytose harmful antigens and play a key role in granulomatous inflammation by encircling foreign bodies. T cells are lymphocytes that play a role in cell-mediated immunity, but they do not directly encircle foreign bodies in granulomatous inflammation. PMNs (polymorphonuclear leukocytes) are a type of white blood cell involved in the immune response, but they do not encircle foreign bodies in granulomatous inflammation. B cells are lymphocytes that produce antibodies, but they do not directly encircle foreign bodies in granulomatous inflammation. Dendritic cells are antigen-presenting cells that activate T cells, but they do not encircle foreign bodies in granulomatous inflammation.

Question 54

You first met your current patient while you were delivering an educational program on the importance of fluoride for geriatric patients. Which of the following dental hygiene roles is identified by this activity? -clinician -advocate -educator -researcher

Answer 54

In the Educator role, dental hygienists develop and deliver educational programs, such as those emphasizing the benefits of fluoride, especially for vulnerable populations like geriatric patients Advocates focus on influencing public health policy and legislation to improve oral health outcomes, distinct from the direct educational efforts of the Educator role

Question 55

Which of the following is NOT a classification of epidemiologic research? -descriptive research -clinical trials -analytic research -experimental research

Answer 55

Clinical trials, a subset of experimental research, rigorously test new treatments in controlled settings. Descriptive research records health-related data to reveal patterns in disease incidence and distribution Analytic research observes diseases to identify risk factors and how they relate to health outcomes. Experimental research tests hypotheses in controlled environments to establish causality

Question 56

Patient Male, 75-year-old Chief Complaint “I have lots of broken teeth and they cut my tongue.” Background/Patient History Patient is a recovering alcoholic. Current medications: percodan once every 6 hours when needed. Current Findings Patient has multiple broken teeth which are cutting into his tongue and cheek. Poor oral hygiene with plaque and calculus build up. Patient complains of throbbing pain and generalized heat sensitivity. Which instrument design is best suited for subgingival debridement in this patient? -curettes with no difference between area-specific and universal -universal curette with a blade facing offset at 60-70 degrees to terminal shank -Gracey curette with a blade facing offset at 60-70 degrees to terminal shank -Gracey curette with a blade facing 90 degrees to terminal shank

Answer 56

-Gracey curette with a blade facing 90 degrees to terminal shank

Question 57

A patient calls the day after treatment, threatening to sue the hygienist for giving nitrous oxide—even though it’s legal in the state. The dentist explains that four elements must be present to prove malpractice. Which of the following lists those elements correctly? -fraud, slander, legality, tort -duty, derelict, direct cause, damage, -damage, due care, abandonment, negligence -res gestae, tort, res ipsa loquitur, abandonment

Answer 57

-duty, derelict, direct cause, damage

Question 58

Patient Male, 57-year-old Chief Complaint "My wife says I have bad breath.” Background/Patient History Patient sees his physician twice per year to monitor his Type 1 diabetes and hypertension. Current Medications: Insulin 4x/day, 30 minutes before each meal and hydrochlorothiazide 25 mg BID. Current Findings Moderate bone loss with recession present on teeth #23, 24, 25, and 26. Probing depths range from 4–9 mm. Generalized BOP Numerous carious lesions which cause pain on occasion. On the basis of the intraoral assessment information reported, which of the following would be the BEST preliminary periodontal diagnosis for this patient? -stage III Grade C periodontitis -stage IV Grade C periodontitis -plaque induced gingivitis -necrotizing ulcerative

Answer 58

-stage III Grade C periodontitis This diagnosis best matches the clinical findings, including deep probing depths (4-9 mm), generalized BOP, moderate bone loss, and a systemic risk factor (Type 1 diabetes), indicating a rapid disease progression

Question 59

During the periodontal assessment of this patient, a 4 mm pocket is detected on the distal surface of tooth #27. The gingival margin is located 2 mm occlusal to the cementoenamel junction (CEJ). Which of the following correctly identifies the periodontal condition of this tooth? -periodontal abscess -clinical attachment loss -periodontal necrosis -pseudopocket

Answer 59

A pseudopocket occurs when the gingival margin is positioned coronal (occlusal) to the CEJ due to gingival enlargement, without attachment or bone loss.

Question 60

Which of the following is the correct composition of normal gingival crevicular plaque? -increased fluid with shed epithelial cells and bacterial by products -decreased fluid with no cellular components -mostly gram negative anaerobic bacteria

Answer 60

-increased fluid with shed epithelial cells and bacterial by products Healthy gingival crevicular plaque contains GCF, desquamated epithelial cells, and bacterial metabolites, reflecting normal sulcular turnover and mild host response.

Question 61

Which of the following statements concerning the junctional epithelium is INCORRECT? -junctional epithelium serves as a route for the passage of fluid and cells from the connective tissue into the sulcus -length of the junctional epithelium is 1.25-2.35mm -junctional epithelium is more permeable to cells and fluids than oral epithelium -junctional epithelium is easily penetrated by periodontal probe

Answer 61

-length of the junctional epithelium is 1.25-2.35mm Junctional epithelium: non-keratinized, 0.25–1.35 mm length, high permeability, probe penetrable

Question 62

Patient Male, 78-year-old Chief Complaint "My mouth feels dry all the time and I have black spots on my teeth.” Background/Patient History Patient had a transient ischemic attack three months ago. Visits physician monthly to monitor progress and medications. Current medications: Plavix 75 mg once daily, Lopressor 50 mg twice per day and Zoloft 25 mg daily. Current Findings Numerous root caries lesions. Evident xerostomia and clinically and radiographically evident subgingival calculus. Moderate bleeding on probing. The patient is taking metoprolol. Which of the following is an appropriate category for this medication? -beta blocker -antidepressant -anti platelet -angiotensin- converting enzyme inhibitor

Answer 62

Beta blockers, like metoprolol, inhibit sympathetic stimulation of the heart by blocking epinephrine's action on B1 receptors. Metoprolol is a beta blocker that inhibits B1-receptors, reducing heart rate and blood pressure.

Question 63

Patient Male, 78-year-old Chief Complaint "My mouth feels dry all the time and I have black spots on my teeth.” Background/Patient History Patient had a transient ischemic attack three months ago. Visits physician monthly to monitor progress and medications. Current medications: Plavix 75 mg once daily, Lopressor 50 mg twice per day and Zoloft 25 mg daily. Current Findings Numerous root caries lesions. Evident xerostomia and clinically and radiographically evident subgingival calculus. Moderate bleeding on probing. Which of the following vitamins should be recommended to this patient to prevent cheilosis? -vitamin C -folic acid -riboflavin -thiamin

Answer 63

Riboflavin, or vitamin B2, is necessary for skin health and preventing cheilosis, glossitis, and anemia. Riboflavin (B2) is key to preventing cheilosis, found in milk and leafy greens.

Question 64

Patient Male, 78-year-old Chief Complaint "My mouth feels dry all the time and I have black spots on my teeth.” Background/Patient History Patient had a transient ischemic attack three months ago. Visits physician monthly to monitor progress and medications. Current medications: Plavix 75 mg once daily, Lopressor 50 mg twice per day and Zoloft 25 mg daily. Current Findings Numerous root caries lesions. Evident xerostomia and clinically and radiographically evident subgingival calculus. Moderate bleeding on probing. While reviewing this patient’s previous dental charting, the clinician notes that tooth #19 has a filled triangle depicted on the roots on the dental charting page. Which of the following is the CORRECT pathology present on tooth #19? -class III furcation involvement -food impaction -deficient contact -class II furcation involvement -class III mobility

Answer 64

Class III furcation involvement signifies complete exposure of the furcation area, often necessitating advanced periodontal therapy.

Question 65

Patient Male, 78-year-old Chief Complaint "My mouth feels dry all the time and I have black spots on my teeth.” Background/Patient History Patient had a transient ischemic attack three months ago. Visits physician monthly to monitor progress and medications. Current medications: Plavix 75 mg once daily, Lopressor 50 mg twice per day and Zoloft 25 mg daily. Current Findings Numerous root caries lesions. Evident xerostomia and clinically and radiographically evident subgingival calculus. Moderate bleeding on probing. Which of the following materials would BEST be utilized to restore the carious root lesions? -polycarboxylate cement -glass ionomer cement -zinc oxide eugenol cement -zinc phosphate cement

Answer 65

Glass ionomer cement is the material of choice for carious root lesions due to its fluoride release and strong chemical bond to dentin Polycarboxylate cement is preferred for cementing permanent prosthetics due to its enamel adhesion, not for direct carious lesion restoration Zinc oxide eugenol cement provides temporary relief due to its sedative effect on the pulp but lacks the fluoride release and adhesion needed for root caries Zinc phosphate cement's exothermic reaction upon mixing can be detrimental to pulp health and lacks the fluoride-releasing property for root caries.

Question 66

Which of the following instruments is best suited for removing a calculus deposit from the distal surface of the mesial root in the furcation area of tooth #19? -Gracey 13/14 -Gracey 11/12 -Gracey 15/16 -Gracey 7/8

Answer 66

Gracey 13/14 curettes are specifically crafted for the distal surfaces of posterior teeth, ensuring precise debridement in furcations

Question 67

Patient Male, 78-year-old Chief Complaint "My mouth feels dry all the time and I have black spots on my teeth.” Background/Patient History Patient had a transient ischemic attack three months ago. Visits physician monthly to monitor progress and medications. Current medications: Plavix 75 mg once daily, Lopressor 50 mg twice per day and Zoloft 25 mg daily. Current Findings Numerous root caries lesions. Evident xerostomia and clinically and radiographically evident subgingival calculus. Moderate bleeding on probing. Which of the following would be an appropriate dental hygiene treatment modification for this patient? -wait until 6 months post transient ischemic attack -begin prophylactic premedication -utilize anti anxiety protocol with nitrous oxide/oxygen sedation -schedule for short appointments

Answer 67

When treating a patient who has experienced a transient ischemic attack (TIA), dental hygienists must implement specific treatment modifications to ensure patient safety and optimal care outcomes. The primary modification is to postpone elective dental procedures for at least six months following a TIA. This precautionary measure allows time for the patient's condition to stabilize and for any necessary medical management to take place.

Question 68

Patient Male, 78-year-old Chief Complaint "My mouth feels dry all the time and I have black spots on my teeth.” Background/Patient History Patient had a transient ischemic attack three months ago. Visits physician monthly to monitor progress and medications. Current medications: Plavix 75 mg once daily, Lopressor 50 mg twice per day and Zoloft 25 mg daily. Current Findings Numerous root caries lesions. Evident xerostomia and clinically and radiographically evident subgingival calculus. Moderate bleeding on probing. Open interdental embrasure spaces. Which of the following oral physiotherapy aids would be MOST beneficial for this patient? -floss holders -interdental brushes -powered toothbrush -dental floss

Answer 68

Interdental brushes effectively clean open embrasure spaces and are particularly useful for patients with diastemas or implants.

Question 69

To increase the number of electrons available at the cathode filament during X-ray production, which setting should be increased? -milliamps -filtration -exposure time -kilovoltage peak

Answer 69

Milliamps directly influence the quantity of electrons at the cathode filament, crucial for x-ray generation

Question 70

A patient presents with sinus-related symptoms. Which radiographic projection would best help evaluate the paranasal sinuses for abnormalities? -panoral -cephalometric projection -lateral oblique -CT scan

Answer 70

CT scans provide the most accurate and detailed evaluation of paranasal sinus abnormalities

Question 71

Which of the following may be prescribed for the treatment of the patient’s angular cheilitis? -nystatin -aciclovir -trimethoprim/sulfamethoxazole -metronidazole

Answer 71

Nystatin is an antifungal agent effective against Candida infections, such as angular cheilitis

Question 72

The pathological process sometimes called “lumpy jaw” refers to which of the following? -actinomycosis -sialadenitis -marfan syndrome

Answer 72

Actinomycosis is characterized by chronic, indolent abscess formation in the jaw and neck regions with the presence of yellow sulfur granules and filamentous, branching bacteria Marfan syndrome is a genetic connective tissue disorder characterized by cardiovascular and skeletal features, not chronic jaw abscesses