RATIONALIZATION BB F Flashcards by Zyr Kirsty

(1) 0:47
The minimum hemoglobin concentration in a fingerstick from a male blood donor is:

a. 12.0 g/dL (120 g/L)
b. 12.5 g/dL (125 g/L)
c. 13.0 g/dL (130 g/L)
d. 13.5 g/dL (135 g/L)

c. 13.0 g/dL (130 g/L)

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(1) 3:40
A causative for indefinite deferral from blood donation is:

a. a reactive test for Babesia species
b. residence in an endemic malaria region for 5 years
c. positive test for Trypanosoma cruzi (Chagas Disease)
d. history of chicken pox vaccination

c. positive test for Trypanosoma cruzi (Chagas Disease)

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(1) 8:19
Which of the following prospective donors would be accepted for blood donation?

a. a 62-year old female with a blood pressure of 210/80
b. 18-year old female who weighs 100 lb
c. 40-year old male with a pulse of 115
d. 82-year old male with a hemoglobin of 13.5 g/dL

d. 82-year old male with a hemoglobin of 13.5 g/dL

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(1) 9:01
Which one of the following constitutes permanent deferral status of a donor?

a. a tattoo 5 months previously
b. recent close contact with a patient with viral hepatitis
c. 2 units of blood transfused 4 months previously
d. confirmed positive test for HBsAg 10 years previously

d. confirmed positive test for HBsAg 10 years previously

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(1) 11:04
A prospective donor with which of the following health histories would be accepted for blood donation?

a. hepatitis B immune globulin 2 months ago
b. HIV prevention drugs 6 months ago
c. blood transfusion 2 months ago
d. travel to malaria endemic country 1 month ago

b. HIV prevention drugs 6 months ago

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(1) 11:46
In order to be a plateletpheresis donor, the platelet count must be at least:

a. 150,000/uL
b. 200,000/uL
c. 250,000/uL
d. 300,000/uL

a. 150,000/uL

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(1) 12:31
Prior to blood donation, the intended venipuncture site must be cleaned with a scrub solution containing:

a. hypochlorite
b. green soap
c. 10% acetone
d. povidone iodine

d. povidone iodine

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(1) 13:44
A donor who has just donated 2 units of apheresis red blood cells will be deferred from further blood donation for a minimum of how many weeks?

a. 8
b. 12
c. 16
d. 24

c. 16

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(1) 14:12
Which of the following infectious agents relies solely on donor questioning to avoid transmission from transfused blood products?

a. Trypanosoma cruzi
b. Plasmodium falciparum
c. HCV
d. CMV

b. Plasmodium falciparum

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(1) 14:58
Which of the following practices at the time of blood collection helps minimize bacterial contamination of platelet products?

a. use of 18 gauge needle
b. diversion pouch
c. green soap scrub
d. UV irradiation

b. diversion pouch

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(1) 16:15
According to AABB standards, what is the minimum hemoglobin level for an autologous donor?

a. 11.0 g/dL
b. 12.0 g/dL
c. 12.5 g/dL
d. 13.0 g/dL

a. 11.0 g/dL

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(1) 16:53
All donor blood testing must include:

a. complete Rh phenotyping
b. anti-CMV testing
c. direct antiglobulin test
d. serological test for syphilis

d. serological test for syphilis

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(1) 19:03
Which of the following practices has been useful in reducing the incidence of transfusion related acute lung injury (TRALI)?

a. use of fresh frozen plasma from male donors
b. use of fresh frozen plasma from female donors
c. pathogen reduction treatment of fresh frozen plasma
d. leukocyte-reduced fresh frozen plasma

a. use of fresh frozen plasma from male donors

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(1) 19:55
What is the primary reason that infectious agents can be transmitted following blood transfusion?

a. pathogen reduction technology failure
b. donor in the window period of early infection
c. leukocyte-reduction failure
d. donor history questionnaire not completed

b. donor in the window period of early infection

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(1) 21:33
The results in this table are obtained on a blood donor sample at immediate spin:

Anti-A: 0
Anti-B: 0
A1 cell: 4+
B cell: 4+
Anti-D: 0
Rh control: 0

Before labelling blood components from this donation, what additional testing must be completed?

a. test donor RBCs with Anti-A, B
b. test donor RBCs with Anti-H
c. perform weak D testing on donor RBCs
d. test donor serum with A1 cells

c. perform weak D testing on donor RBCs

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(1) 22:32
Which of the following courses of action must be performed immediately if a sample from an apheresis platelet undergoing culture-based testing indicates bacterial growth?

a. set up another culture to confirm positivity
b. determine sensitivity to antibiotics
c. retrieve the unit if issued for transfusion
d. identify the organism

c. retrieve the unit if issued for transfusion

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(1) 23:32
The transport temperature for red blood cells leukocytes reduced is:

a. 1-6℃
b. 1-10℃
c. 18-20℃
d. 20-24℃

b. 1-10℃

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(1) 24:00
The transport temperature for apheresis platelets is:

a. 1-6℃
b. 1-10℃
c. 18-20℃
d. 20-24℃

d. 20-24℃

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(1) 25:06
A unit of red blood cells expiring in 35 days is split into 5 small aliquots using a sterile pediatric quad set and a sterile connecting device. Each aliquot must be labelled as expiring in:

a. 6 hours
b. 12 hours
c. 5 days
d. 35 days

d. 35 days

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(1) 27:08
Which of the following is the correct storage temperature for the component listed?

a. cryoprecipitated AHF, 4℃
b. fresh frozen plasma (FFP), -20℃
c. red blood cells, frozen, -40℃
d. platelets, 37℃

b. fresh frozen plasma (FFP), -20℃

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(1) 28:48
If the seal is entered or broken on a unit of red blood cells stored 1-6℃, what is the maximum allowable storage period, in hours?

a. 6
b. 24
c. 48
d. 72

b. 24

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(1) 29:49
Six units of red blood cells are issued to the OR at 9 am in a cooler, validated to maintain a temperature of 1-10℃ for 2 hours. The cooler containing the units of blood is returned to the blood bank 40 minutes later because surgery is cancelled. What should be done with these units?

a. discard the units as they were issued to a specific patient

b. inspect units and establish that appropriate temperature has been maintained

c. continue to store in cooler since surgery is rescheduled for tomorrow

d. put units back into inventory as only 40 minutes has elapsed since issue

b. inspect units and establish that appropriate temperature has been maintained

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(1) 30:17
Apheresis platelets must be stored at:

a. 1-6℃
b. 1-10℃
c. 10-18℃
d. 20-24℃

d. 20-24℃

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(1) 31:10
During storage, the concentration of 2,3-diphosphoglycerate (2,3-DPG) decreases in a unit of:

a. platelets
b. fresh frozen plasma
c. red blood cells
d. cryoprecipitated AHF

c. red blood cells

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25. (1) 33:01 Upon inspection, a unit of apheresis platelets is noted to have visible clots, but otherwise appears normal. The technologist should: a. issue without concern b. filter to remove the clots c. centrifuge to express off the clots d. quarantine for gram stain and culture

d. quarantine for gram stain and culture

26. (2) 0:59 Upon expiration, a unit of thawed plasma frozen within 24 hours (PF24) is converted to thawed plasma. This thawed plasma can be stored for an additional: a. 1 day b. 4 days c. 14 days d. 28 days

b. 4 days

27. (2) 2:03 The transfusion service is preparing aliquots from a unit of red blood cells leukocytes reduced with the aid of a sterile connecting device for a pediatric patient. When checking the weld for one of these aliquots, it is noted that the weld is incomplete and leaking. This unit is then resealed with an acceptable weld. What will the expiration date of this unit be? a. 6 hours b. 24 hours c. 3 days d. original expiration date

b. 24 hours

28. (2) 4:14 A patient with a platelet count of 10,000/uL receives one unit of apheresis platelets, leukocytes reduced. After transfusion, the patient's platelet count is 50,000 uL. These results indicate: a. the presence of HLA antibodies and refractoriness to transfusion b. the patient is actively bleeding but still producing platelets c. the platelet count is the expected posttransfusion increment d. the patient's pre-transfusion platelet count was incorrect

c. the platelet count is the expected posttransfusion increment

29. (2) 6:12 Leukocyte count to: Red Blood Cells Leukocytes Reduced must be prepared by a method known to reduce the leukocyte count to: a. <8.3 x 10^5 b. <5.0 x 10^6 c. <5.5 x 10^10 d. <3.0 x 10^11

b. <5.0 x 10^6

30. (2) 10:08 A unit of red blood cells that expires in 32 days has just been irradiated. The expiration date of this unit will: a. remain the same b. be reduced by 4 days c. be reduced by 14 days d. be increased by 2 days

b. be reduced by 4 days

31. (2) 10:49 Cryoprecipitated AHF must be transfused within what period of time following thawing and pooling without the use of a sterile connection device? a. 4 hours b. 8 hours c. 12 hours d. 24 hours

a. 4 hours

32. (2) 11:09 According to AABB standards, fresh frozen plasma must be infused within what period of time following thawing? a. 24 hours b. 36 hours c. 48 hours d. 72 hours

a. 24 hours

33. (2) 14:05 Cryoprecipitated AHF: a. is indicated for fibrinogen deficiencies b. should be stored at 4℃ prior to administration c. will not transmit hepatitis B virus d. is indicated for the treatment of hemophilia B

a. is indicated for fibrinogen deficiencies

34. (2) 15:07 Which apheresis platelets product should be irradiated? a. autologous unit collected prior to surgery b. random stock unit going to a patient with DIC c. a directed donation given by a mother for her son d. a directed donation given by an unrelated family friend

c. a directed donation given by a mother for her son

35. (2) 16:21 Irradiation of a unit of red blood cells is done to prevent the replication of donor: a. granulocytes b. lymphocytes c. red cells d. platelets

b. lymphocytes

36. (2) 18:12 Plastic bag overwraps are recommended when thawing units of FFP in 37℃ water baths because they prevent: a. the FFP bag from cracking when it contacts the warm water b. water from slowly dialyzing across the bag membrane c. the entry ports from becoming contaminated with water d. the label from peeling off as the water circulates in the bath

c. the entry ports from becoming contaminated with water

37. (2) 18:51 Which of the following blood components must be prepared within 8 hours after phlebotomy? a. red blood cells b. fresh frozen plasma c. red blood cells, frozen d. cryoprecipitated AHF

b. fresh frozen plasma

38. (2) 19:45 Which of the following is proper procedure for preparation of platelets from whole blood? a. light spin followed by a hard spin b. light spin followed by 2 hard spins c. 2 light spins d. hard spin followed by a light spin

a. light spin followed by a hard spin

39. (2) 21:03 An important determinant of platelet viability during storage is: a. plasma potassium concentration b. plasma pH c. prothrombin time d. activated partial thromboplastin time

b. plasma pH

40. (2) 23:01 According to AABB standards, apheresis platelets shall demonstrate with 95% confidence that >75% of units contains how many platelets? a. 5.5 x 10^10 b. 6.5 x 10^10 c. 3.0 x 10^11 d. 5.0 x 10^11

c. 3.0 x 10^11

41. (2) 24:09 According to AABB standards, "platelets" prepared from whole blood shall have at least: a. 5.5 x 10^10 platelets per unit in at least 90% of the units tested b. 6.5 x 10^10 platelets per unit in at least 90% of the units tested c. 7.5 x 10^10 platelets per unit in at least 100% of the units tested d. 8.5 x 10^10 platelets per unit in at least 95% of the units tested

a. 5.5 x 10^10 platelets per unit in at least 90% of the units tested

42. (2) 27:24 Given the most probable genotypes of the parents shown in this figure, which statement best describes the most probable Rh genotypes of the 4 children? insert pic a. 25% will be R0r, 25% will be R1r, and 50% will be R1R1 b. 50% will be R1r and 50% will be R1R1 c. 100% will be R1r d. 100% will be R1R1

b. 50% will be R1r and 50% will be R1R1

43. (2) 27:56 Most blood group system genes and their resulting genetic traits display what type of inheritance? a. sex-linked dominant b. sex-linked recessive c. autosomal recessive d. autosomal dominant

d. autosomal dominant

44. (2) 31:11 The mating of an Xg(a+) man and an Xg(a-) woman will only produce: a. Xg(a-) sons and Xg(a-) daughters b. Xg(a+) sons and Xg(a+) daughters c. Xg(a-) sons and Xg(a+) daughters d. Xg(a+) sons and Xg(a-) daughters

c. Xg(a-) sons and Xg(a+) daughters

45. (2) 33:23 Which phenotype could not result from the mating of a Jk(a+b+) female and a Jk(a-b+) male? a. Jk(a+b-) b. Jk(a+b+) c. Jk(a-b+) d. Jk(a-b-)

d. Jk(a-b-)

46. (2) 34:40 What do the Oh (Classical Bombay), group O, and Lu(a-b-) phenotypes have in common? a. result from inheritance of identical sex-linked dominant genes b. result from inheritance of identical sex-linked recessive genes c. result from inheritance of identical autosomal dominant genes d. result from inheritance of identical autosomal recessive genes

d. result from inheritance of identical autosomal recessive genes

47. (2) 35:26 Which of the following antibodies is usually clinically "insignificant"? a. anti-P b. anti-P1 c. anti-pk d. anti-p

b. anti-P1

48. (2) 37:24 An individual's red blood cells give the reactions with Rh antisera shown in this table: Anti-D: 4+ Anti-C: 3+ Anti-E: 0 Anti-c: 3+ Anti-e: 3+ Rh control: 0 This individual's most probable genotype is: a. DCe/DcE b. DcE/dce c. Dce/dce d. DCe/dce

d. DCe/dce

49. (2) 39:04 A blood donor has the genotype: hh, AB. Using anti-A and anti-B antisera, the donor's red cell will type as group: a. A b. B c. O d. AB

c. O

50. (2) 42:57 The red cells of a nonsecretor (se/se) will most likely type as: a. Le(a-b-) b. Le(a+b+) c. Le(a+b-) d. Le(a-b+)

c. Le(a+b-)

51. (3) 6:18 Which of the following phenotypes will react with anti-f? a. rr b. R1R1 c. R2R2 d. R1R2

a. rr

52. (3) 10:06 A patient's red blood cells gave the reactions show in this table: Anti-D: + Anti-C: + Anti-E: + Anti-c: + Anti-e: + Anti-f: 0 The most probable genotype of this patient is: a. R1R2 b. R2r" c. Rzr d. RzRz

a. R1R2

53. (3) 10:41 Which of the following red cell typing are most commonly found in the African American donor population? a. Lu(a-b-) b. Jk(a-b-) c. Fy(a-b-) d. K-k-

c. Fy(a-b-)

54. (3) 14:13 A family has been typed for HLA because 1 of the children needs a stem cell donor. Typing results are listed in this table: PATIENT TYPE Father A1,3; B8,35 Mother A2,23; B12,18 Child #1 A1,2: B8,12 Child #2 A1,23; B8, 18 Child #3 A3,23; B18, ? What is the expected B antigen in child #3? a. A1 b. A2 c. B12 d. B35

d. B35

55. (3) 14:43 Which of the following is the immunodominant sugar responsible for the A antigen? a. fucose b. N-acetylgalactosamine c. galactose d. N-acetylglucosamine

b. N-acetylgalactosamine

57. (3) 17:04 The reason that group O individuals have the most amount of H antigen on their red cells compared to other ABO phenotypes is: a. group O individuals produce more precursor type I chain b. group A, B, and AB individuals are heterozygous for the H gene c. the gene produces more transferase enzyme, which produces more H antigen d. H antigen is left unchanged by the absence of A and/or B transferase enzymes

d. H antigen is left unchanged by the absence of A and/or B transferase enzymes

56. (3) 15:49 Which of the following is considered to be a high-prevalence antigen? a. Vel b. Jsa c. s d. K

a. Vel

58. (3) 18:36 A patient is typed with the results shown in this table: Px's cells w/ Px's serum w/ anti-A 0 A1 red cells 2+ anti-B 0 B red cells 4+ anti-A,B 2+ Ab screen 0 The most probable reason for these findings is that the patient is group: a. O; confusion due to faulty group O antiserum b. O, with an anti-A1 c. Ax; with an anti-A1 d. A1; with an anti-A

c. Ax; with an anti-A1

59. (3) 19:44 Given the serologic reactions shown in this table, what is the most likely A subgroup? Anti-A: 2+ mf Anti-B: 0 Anti-A,B: 2+ mf A1 cells: 1+ B cells: 4+ O cells: 0 a. A1 b. A2 c. A3 d. Ax

c. A3

60. (3) 20:39 Even in the absence of prior transfusion or pregnancy, individuals with the Bombay phenotype (Oh) will always have naturally occurring: a. anti-Rh b. anti-K c. anti-U d. anti-H

d. anti-H

61. (3) 21:32 Which of the following antibodies in the LU (Lutheran) system is most likely to be IgM and detected as a direct agglutinin? a. anti-Lua b. anti-Lub c. anti-Lu3 d. anti-Aua

a. anti-Lua

62. (3) 21:59 Which of the following antibodies is neutralizable by pooled human plasma? a. anti-Kna b. anti-Ch c. anti-Yka d. anti-Csa

b. anti-Ch

63. (3) 25:38 Antibodies from which of the following blood group systems are notorious for causing delayed hemolytic transfusion reactions? a. Rh b. KEL c. FY d. JK

d. JK

64. (3) 26:40 Isoimmunization to platelet antigen HPA-1a and the placental transfer of maternal antibodies would be expected to cause newborn: a. erythroblastosis b. leukocytosis c. leukopenia d. thrombocytopenia

d. thrombocytopenia

65. (3) 28:24 What antigens would be found in the saliva of an individual with the genotype Sese Lele AO HH? a. A, H b. Leb, A, H c. Lea, Leb, A, H d. Lea

c. Lea, Leb, A, H

66. (3) 28:59 Which of the following genes is not in the MHC class I region? a. HLA-A b. HLA-B c. HLA-C d. HLA-DR

d. HLA-DR

67. (3) 29:39 The phenomenon of an Rh-positive person whose serum contains anti-D is best explained by: a. gene deletion b. missing antigen epitopes c. trans position effect d. gene inhibition

b. missing antigen epitopes

68. (3) 31:18 When the red cells of an individual fail to react with anti-U, they usually fail to react with: a. anti-M b. anti-Le c. anti-S d. anti-P1

c. anti-S

69. (3) 31:43 Which of the following red cell antigens are found on glycophorin -A? a. M, N b. Lea, Leb c. S,s d. P, P1, Pk

a. M, N

70. (3) 32:53 Paroxysmal cold hemoglobinuria (PCH) is associated with antibody specificity toward which of the following? a. KEL system antigens b. FY system antigens c. P antigen d. I antigen

c. P antigen

71. (3) 36:40 Which of the following is a characteristic of anti-i? a. associated with warm autoimmune hemolytic anemia b. found in the serum of patients with infectious mononucleosis c. detected at lower temperatures in the serum of normal individuals d. found only in the serum of group O individuals

b. found in the serum of patients with infectious mononucleosis

72. (3) 37:00 In a case of cold agglutinin disease, the patient's serum would most likely react 4+ at Immediate spin with: a. group A cells, B cells, and O cells, but not his own cells b. cord cells but not his own or other adult cells c. all cells of a group O cell panel and his own cells d. only penicillin-treated panel cells, not his own cells

c. all cells of a group O cell panel and his own cells

73. (3) 37:39 Cold agglutinin disease is associated with an antibody specificity toward which of the following? a. Fy:3 b. P c. I d. Rh:1

c. I

74. (3) 39:34 Which of the following is a characteristic of anti-i? a. often associated with hemolytic disease of the newborn b. reacts best at room temperature or 4℃ c. reacts best at 37℃ d. is usually IgG

b. reacts best at room temperature or 4℃

75. (3) 40:39 In chronic granulomatous disease (CGD), granulocyte function is impaired. An association exists between this clinical condition and a depression of which of the following antigens? a. Rh b. P c. KEL d. FY

c. KEL

76. (4) 1:44 The antibodies of the JK blood group system: a. react best by the indirect antiglobulin test b. are predominantly IgM c. often cause allergic transfusion reactions d. do not generally react with antigen-positive, enzyme-treated RBCs

a. react best by the indirect antiglobulin test

77 (4) 2:38 Proteolytic enzyme treatment of red cells usually destroys which antigen? a. Jka b. E c. Fya d. k

c. Fya

78. (4) 3:30 Resistance to malaria is best associated with which of the following blood groups? a. Rh b. I/i c. P d. FY

d. FY

79. (4) 6:20 Antibodies produced to blood group antigens that are carbohydrate structures are usually: a. IgG and indirect agglutinins b. IgG and react best at 37℃ c. IgM and direct agglutinins d. IgM and react best at 37℃

c. IgM and direct agglutinins

80. (4) 6:48 Which of the following statement is correct? a. antibodies to high prevalence antigens are most often IgM and room temperature reactive b. antibodies to high prevalence antigens are usually clinically significant c. antibodies to high prevalence antigens occur in >98% of the population d. antibodies to high prevalence antigens include examples of anti-K

b. antibodies to high prevalence antigens are usually clinically significant

81. (4) 8:20 For which of the following is HLA phenotyping not useful? a. selection of bone marrow donor for transplantation b. investigation of a hemolytic transfusion reaction c. selection of solid organ donor for transplantation d. investigation of platelet refractoriness in transfusion patient

b. investigation of a hemolytic transfusion reaction

82. (4) 10:00 Fetal and neonatal alloimmune thrombocytopenia (FNAIT) is: a. frequently caused by maternal HLA antibodies b. treated with cryoprecipitated AHF c. frequently caused by maternal anti-HPA-1a antibodies d. treated with IVIG and washed paternal platelets

c. frequently caused by maternal anti-HPA-1a antibodies

83. (4) 11:06 Which of the following is responsible for the production of blood group antibodies? a. B cells b. T cells c. NK cells d. dendritic cells

a. B cells

84. (4) 12:09 What is the most common clinical incident that results in alloantibody production? a. viral infection b. solid tumor c. red cell transfusion d. autoimmune disease

c. red cell transfusion

85. (4) 13:50 Which of the following blood group antigens is the most immunogenic or has the greatest ability to initiate antibody production in an individual who lacks the antigen? a. Fya b. s c. Jkb d. D

d. D

86. (4) 15:33 The immune response to red cell antigens with numerous epitopes results in a heterogenous population of antibodies referred to as: a. bivalent b. epitope-specific c. monoclonal d. polyclonal

d. polyclonal

87. (4) 17:18 A blood sample is taken from a 90-year old male, who is admitted to the ER for possible GI bleeding. ABO results are shown in this table: cells tested w/ serum tested w/ anti-A 0 A1 cells 0 anti-B 0 B cells 1+ What might be a likely explanation for these results? a. wrong sample collected b. patient's disease c. patient's age d. subgroup of B

c. patient's age

88. (4) 17:49 Many enhancement media used in the blood bank promote hemagglutination in the presence of IgG antibodies by reducing which of the following? a. hydrophilic forces b. low ionic potential c. van der Waals forces d. zeta potential

d. zeta potential

89. (4) 20:07 Blood group antigen and antibody hemagglutination reactions are influenced by which of the following? a. temperature b. Ca2+ ions c. antigen presenting cells d. memory cells

a. temperature

90. (4) 23:59 Which of the following blood group antibodies will no longer react with its respective antigens once those antigens are treated with proteolytic enzymes? a. anti-C b. anti-K c. anti-Fya d. anti-Jka

c. anti-Fya

91. (4) 24:54 Some blood group antibodies may react stronger with the red cells of individuals who have inherited 2 identical alleles for the antigen to which the antibody is directed. This is known as: a. postzone effect b. dosage effect c. prozone effect d. equivalence effect

b. dosage effect

92. (4) 27:13 Which of the following reagents is used to facilitate hemagglutination following sensitization of red cells with an IgG alloantibody? a. anti-human globulin serum b. low ionic strength saline c. polyethylene glycol d. 22% bovine albumin

a. anti-human globulin serum

93. (4) 28:02 The addition of antibody-sensitized red cells (Check Cells) to all negative anti-human globulin (AHG) tests ensures that: a. the test was interpreted correctly b. the test was incubated at the correct temperature c. AHG reagent was added to each test d. patient serum was added to each test

c. AHG reagent was added to each test

94. (4) 30:53 In which of the following clinical situations will the direct antiglobulin test be positive? a. sickle cell disease b. hemolytic disease of the fetus and newborn c. posttransfusion purpura d. multiple myeloma

b. hemolytic disease of the fetus and newborn

95. (4) 31:49 In which of the following is the indirect antiglobulin test utilized? a. reverse ABO testing b. immediate spin crossmatch c. antigen testing d. antibody detection (screening) test

d. antibody detection (screening) test

96. (4) 32:38 Polyspecific AHG reagents contain: a. anti-IgG b. anti-C3d c. anti-IgG and anti-IgM d. anti-IgG and anti-C3d

d. anti-IgG and anti-C3d

97. (4) 33:29 A false-negative direct antiglobulin test can be the result of: a. neutralized AHG reagent b. sample from gel-separator tubes c. over centrifugation d. dirty glassware

a. neutralized AHG reagent

98. (4) 34:01 A false-positive indirect antiglobulin test can be the result of: a. insufficient saline washing of red cells b. inadequate incubation time c. over centrifugation d. dissociation of cell bound IgG

c. over centrifugation

99. (4) 35:11 A negative result using solid phase adherence assays will demonstrate indicator red cells as: a. a red blood cell pellet in the bottom of the well b. a diffuse pattern of red blood cells throughout the well c. red blood cell clumps symmetrically located throughout the well d. a red supernatant, indicating lysis

a. a red blood cell pellet in the bottom of the well

100. (4) 35:50 A 4+ positive reactions using gel technology will appear as red blood cells: a. in a pellet at the bottom of the microtubule b. dispersed throughout the gel media c. in a layer at the top of the gel media d. suspended at the mid-point of the gel media

c. in a layer at the top of the gel media

101. (4) 38:09 One of the advantages of performing antibody screening (detection) studies using gel technology is: a. saline washing is not required b. centrifugation is not required c. special equipment is not required d. precise volumes of serum are not required

a. saline washing is not required

102. (4) 38:52 Monoclonal blood banking reagents have which of the following as a disadvantage? a. little to no batch variation b. cost effectiveness c. high antigen efficiency d. over specificity

d. over specificity

103. (4) 39:23 Low ionic strength saline (LISS) acts as an enhancement medium and facilitates antibody uptake by: a. activating complement b. increasing flexibility in hinge region c. removing water molecules d. reducing zeta potential

d. reducing zeta potential

104. (4) 40:25 In ABO hemolytic transfusion reactions, complement is activated via which of the following pathways? a. alternative b. classical c. lectin d. polyclonal

b. classical

105. (4) 41:24 Transfusion of which of the following is needed to help correct hypofibrinogenemia due to DIC? a. whole blood b. fresh frozen plasma c. cryoprecipitated AHF d. platelets

c. cryoprecipitated AHF

106. (4) 42:33 Which of the following is used to treat hemophilia B? a. factor IX concentrate b. factor VIII concentrate c. cryoprecipitated AHF d. DDAVP

a. factor IX concentrate

107. (4) 43:34 A unit of fresh frozen plasma is inadvertently thawed and then immediately refrigerated at 4℃ on monday morning. On tuesday evening, this unit may still be transfused as thawed plasma, but will have decreased levels of: a. factor I b. factor V c. factor IX d. factor XII

b. factor V

108. (4) 44:29 A newborn demonstrates petechiae, ecchymosis, and mucosal bleeding. The preferred blood component for this infant would be: a. red blood cells b. fresh frozen plasma c. platelets d. cryoprecipitated AHF

c. platelets

109. (4) 44:45 Which of the following would be the best source of platelets for transfusion in a case of fetal and neonatal alloimmune thrombocytopenia (FNAIT)? a. paternal platelets b. maternal platelets c. random donor platelets d. paternal grandfather platelets

b. maternal platelets

110. (4) 45:50 Fetal and neonatal alloimmune thrombocytopenia (FNAIT) is caused by which of the following maternal antibodies? a. IgM alloantibodies against ABO antigens b. IgG alloantibodies against HLA antigens c. IgM alloantibodies against glycoprotein V (GPV) antigens d. IgG alloantibodies against HPA antigens

d. IgG alloantibodies against HPA antigens

111. (4) 46:15 Which of the following is used to treat posttransfusion purpura? a. DDAVP b. IVIG c. apheresis platelets d. fresh frozen plasma

b. IVIG

112. (4) 47:16 In which of the following would platelet transfusions be contraindicated? a. bone marrow transplant patient with a platelet count of 9,000/uL b. actively bleeding patient with a platelet count of 55,000/uL c. thrombocytopenic patient due to functionally abnormal platelets d. patient diagnosed with thrombotic thrombocytopenic purpura (TTP)

d. patient diagnosed with thrombotic thrombocytopenic purpura (TTP)

113. (5) 1:11 An obstetrical patient has had 3 previous pregnancies. Her first baby was healthy, the second was jaundiced at birth and required an exchange transfusion, while the third was stillborn. Which of the following is the most likely cause? a. ABO incompatibility b. immune deficiency disease c. congenital spherocytic anemia d. Rh incompatibility

d. Rh incompatibility

114. (5) 2:34 ABO hemolytic disease of the newborn: a. usually requires an exchange transfusion b. most often occurs in first born children c. frequently results in stillbirth d. is usually seen only in the newborn of group O mothers

d. is usually seen only in the newborn of group O mothers

115. (5) 4:29 Which of the following antigens is most likely to be involved in hemolytic disease of the fetus and newborn? a. Lea b. P1 c. M d. K

d. K

116. (5) 5:29 A group A, Rh-positive infant of a group O, Rh-positive mother has a weakly positive direct antiglobulin test and a moderately elevated bilirubin 12 hours after birth. The most likely cause is: a. ABO incompatibility b. Rh incompatibility c. blood group incompatibility due to an antibody to a low frequency antigen d. neonatal jaundice not associated with blood group

a. ABO incompatibility

117. (5) 6:41 In suspected cases of hemolytic disease of the fetus and newborn, what significant information can be obtained from the baby's blood smear? a. estimation of WBC, RBC, and platelet counts b. marked increase in immature neutrophils (shift to the left) c. differential to estimate the absolute number of lymphocytes present d. determination of the presence of spherocytes

d. determination of the presence of spherocytes

118. (5) 7:27 Blood selected for exchange transfusion must: a. lack red blood cell antigens corresponding to maternal antibodies b. be <3 days old c. be the same Rh type as the baby d. be ABO compatible with the father

a. lack red blood cell antigens corresponding to maternal antibodies

119. (5) 8:40 When the main objective of an exchange transfusion is to remove the infant's antibody-sensitized red blood cells and to control hyperbilirubinemia, the blood product of choice is ABO compatible: a. fresh whole blood b. RBC washed c. RBC suspended in fresh frozen plasma d. heparinized RBCs

c. RBC suspended in fresh frozen plasma

120. (5) 10:28 To prevent graft-versus-host disease, RBC prepared for infants who have received intrauterine transfusions should be: a. saline-washed b. irradiated c. frozen and deglycerolized d. group- and Rh- compatible with the mother

b. irradiated

121. (5) 11:53 Which of the following is the preferred specimen for the initial compatibility testing in exchange transfusion therapy? a. maternal serum b. eluate prepared from infant's red blood cells c. paternal serum d. infant's postexchange serum

a. maternal serum

122. (5) 13:39 Criteria determining Rh immune globulin eligibility include: a. mother is Rh-positive b. infant is Rh-negative c. mother has not been previously immunized ti the D antigen d. infant has a positive DAT

c. mother has not been previously immunized ti the D antigen

123. (5) 14:13 The rosette test will detect a fetomaternal hemorrhage (FMH) as small as: a. 10 mL b. 15 mL c. 20 mL d. 30 mL

a. 10 mL

124. (5) 15:05 Pathologic cold autoantibodies differ from benign cold autoantibodies in: a. antibody specificity b. immunoglobulin class c. antibody titer d. ability to bind complement

c. antibody titer

125. (5) 15:54 Intravascular destruction of RBC results when: a. IgG sensitized red cells are destroyed by phagocytes b. IgM antibodies activate complement to completion c. complement-sensitized red cell are destroyed by phagocytes d. IgG antibodies activate complement to C3b

b. IgM antibodies activate complement to completion

126. (5) 18:16 Which of the following is likely to result in extravascular red cell destruction? a. transfusion of group A RBC to a group O recipient b. transfusion of group A fresh frozen plasma to a group O recipient c. transfusion associated with a delayed transfusion reaction caused by anti-Jka d. transfusion of D-positive red blood cells to unsensitized D-negative recipient

c. transfusion associated with a delayed transfusion reaction caused by anti-Jka

127. (5) 19:01 Which of the following HPC transplants would be considered an ABO major incompatibility? a. group O donor to group A recipient b. group A donor to a group AB recipient c. group B donor to a group O recipient d. group O donor to a group B recipient

c. group B donor to a group O recipient

128. (5) 21:10 The blood typing results shown in this table are noted on a patient's sample: Anti-A: 0 Anti-B: 4+ Anti-D: 4+ A1 cells: 4+ B cells: 0 Rh typing results: C-E-c+e+ What is the patient's likely ethnicity? a. asian b. hispanic c. black d. white

c. black

129. (5) 22:17 Samples from the same patient are received on 2 consecutive 2 days. Test results are summarized in this table. Day #1 Day #2 anti-A 4+ 0 anti-B 0 4+ anti-D 3+ 3+ A1 cells 0 4+ B cells 4+ 0 Ab screen 0 0 How should the request for crossmatch be handled? a. crossmatch A, Rh-positive units with sample from day 1 b. crossmatch B, Rh-positive units with sample from day 2 c. crossmatch AB, Rh-positive units with both samples d. collect a new sample and repeat the tests

d. collect a new sample and repeat the tests

130. (5) 23:11 Test results are shown in this table for a unit of blood labeled group A, Rh-negative: Cells tested with anti-A anti-B anti-D 4+ 0 3+ What should be done next? a. transfuse as a group A, Rh-negative b. transfuse as a group A, Rh-positive c. notify the collecting facility d. discard the unit

c. notify the collecting facility

131. (5) 24:48 In what patient population may we observe the results shown in this table: Anti-A: 4+ Anti-B: 0 Anti-D: 4+ A1 cells: 0 B cells: 1+ a. labor and delivery patient b. 30 yr old GI bleed patient c. 2 yr old pre-surgical patient d. 16 yr old ACL repair surgery patient

c. 2 yr old pre-surgical patient

132. (5) 25:47 A patient is group A, Rh-positive but is receiving a group O bone marrow transplant (BMT) on friday. After the transplant, what hemagglutination pattern will the patient demonstrate when the patient's red cells are tested with anti-A? a. rouleaux b. aggregation c. polyagglutination d. mixed-field

d. mixed-field

133. (5) 28:24 The reaction results shown in this table are obtained: cells tested w/ serum tested w/ anti- A anti-B anti-A,B A1 cells B cells 4+ 3+ 4+ 2+ 4+ The technologist washes the patient's cells with saline, and repeats the forward typing. A saline replacement technique is used with the reverse typing, and obtains the results shown in this second table: cells tested w/ serum tested w/ anti- A anti-B anti-A,B A1 cells B cells 4+ 0 4+ 0 4+ Based on these results, a likely diagnosis for the patient may be: a. acquired immunodeficiency disease b. bruton agammaglobulinemia c. multiple myeloma d. acquired B antigen

c. multiple myeloma

134/ (5) 30:12 What ABO type is found in group A1 individuals following deacetylation of their A antigens? a. acquired B b. B(A) c. Amod d. Aint

a. acquired B

135. (5) 30:36 The test for weak D is performed by incubating patient's red cells with: a. different dilutions of anti-D b. anti-D antiserum c. anti-Du antiserum d. antiglobulin serum

b. anti-D antiserum

136. (5) 31:28 The results shown in this table are obtained when testing a sample from a 20-year old, first-time blood donor: Forward Group Reverse Group anti-A anti-B A1 cells B cells 0 0 0 3+ What is the most likely cause of this ABO discrepancy? a. rouleaux b. acquired B c. phenotype Oh "Bombay" d. weak subgroup of A

d. weak subgroup of A

137. (5) 32:59 A 29-year old male is hemorrhaging severely. he is AB, Rh-negative. Six units of blood are required STAT. Of the following types available in the blood bank, which would be most preferable for crossmatch? a. AB, Rh-positive b. A, Rh-negative c. A, Rh-positive d. O, Rh-negative

b. A, Rh-negative

138. (5) 34:36 A 10% red cell suspension in saline is used in a compatibility test. Which of the following would most likely occur? a. false-positive result due to antigen excess b. false-positive result due to the prozone phenomenon c. false-negative result due to the prozone phenomenon d. false-negative result due to antigen excess

d. false-negative result due to antigen excess

139. (5) 35:24 Autoantibodies demonstrating blood group specificity in warm autoimmune hemolytic anemia are associated more often with which blood group system? a. Rh b. I c. P d. FY

a. Rh

140. (5) 36:39 An antibody that causes in vitro hemolysis and reacts with the red cells of 3 out of 10 AHG-crossmatched donor units is most likely: a. Anti-Lea b. Anti-s c. Anti-k d. Anti-E

a. Anti-Lea

141. (5) 37:18 Transfusion of Ch+ (Chido positive) red cells to a patient with anti-Ch has been reported to cause: a. no clinically significant red cell destruction b. clinically significant immune red cell destruction c. decrease 51Cr red cell survivals d. febrile transfusion reactions

a. no clinically significant red cell destruction

142. (5) 37:51 Which of the following tests is most commonly used to detect antibodies attached to a patient's red blood cells in vivo? a. direct antiglobulin b. complement fixation c. indirect antiglobulin d. immunofluorescent

a. direct antiglobulin

143. (5) 38:05 Anti-I in cold agglutinin disease may cause a positive DAT because of: a. anti-I agglutinating the cells b. C3d bound to the red cells c. T-activation d. C3c remaining on the red cells after cleavage of C3b

b. C3d bound to the red cells

144. (5) 39:01 A patient's antibody identification panel demonstrates anti-M. The antibody is most reactive with homozygous M+ cells compared to heterozygous M+ cells. Which of the following cells would demonstrate the strongest reaction? a. M-N+S-s+ b. M+N+S+s+ c. M+N-S-s+ d. M+N+S-s-

c. M+N-S-s+

145. (5) 39:58 In the DAT, the antiglobulin reagent is used to: a. mediate hemolysis of indicator RBC by providing complement b. precipitate anti-erythrocyte antibodies c. measure antibodies in a test serum by fixing complement d. detect pre-existing antibodies on erythrocytes

d. detect pre-existing antibodies on erythrocytes

146. (5) 40:43 The mechanism that best explains hemolytic anemia due to penicillin is: a. drug-dependent antibodies reacting with drug-coated RBCs b. drug-dependent antibodies reacting in the presence of drug c. drug-independent with autoantibody production d. nonimmunologic protein adsorption with positive DAT

a. drug-dependent antibodies reacting with drug-coated RBCs

147. (5) 41:41 Use of EDTA plasma prevents activation of the classical complement pathway by: a. causing rapid decay of complement components b. chelating Mg2+ ions, which prevents the assembly of C6 c. chelating C2+ ions, which prevents assembly of C1 d. preventing chemotaxis

c. chelating C2+ ions, which prevents assembly of C1

148. (5) 42:04 The purpose of testing with anti-A,B is to detect: a. anti-A1 b. anti-A2 c. subgroups of A d. subgroups of O

c. subgroups of A

149. (5) 44:31 A group O, Rh-negative pregnant female has anti-Vel in her serum. If needed, how might blood be provided for her infant? a. maternal donation b. paternal donation c. random ABO-identical unit d. random group O, Rh-negative unit

a. maternal donation

150. (5) 47:06 While performing an antibody screen, a test reaction is suspected to be rouleaux. A saline replacement test is performed and the reaction remains. What is the best interpretation? a. original reaction of rouleaux is confirmed b. replacement test is invalid and should be replaced c. original reaction was due to true agglutination d. antibody screen is negative

c. original reaction was due to true agglutination

RATIONALIZATION BB F Flashcards

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