RCIS practice Flashcards

(43 cards)

1
Q

What is the formula for calculating cardiac output?
a. CO = PA - 1SVC
b. CO = AO x PA
c. CO = HR x SV

A

c. CO = HR x SV

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2
Q

Stroke Volume is ?
a. Related to preload
b. Related to afterload
c. The same as ejection Fraction?

A

a. Related to preload

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3
Q

Preload is most impacted by?
a. Mean arterial Pressure
b. Increased filling volumes
c. Ejection Fraction

A

b. Increased filling volumes

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4
Q

A patient with chronic untreated hypertension would demonstrate
a. increased afterload
b. Decreased afterload
c. Decreased preload

A

a. increased afterload

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5
Q

Vascular resistance/pressure is most influenced by
a. Blood viscosity
b. BMI
c. Length of the vessel
d. Radius of the vessel

A

d. Radius of the vessel

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6
Q

The formula for BP is
a. BP = SV x SVR
b. BP = CO x SVR
c. BP = HR x SVR

A

b. BP = CO x SVR

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7
Q

What component of a Pulmonary Capillary Wedge Pressure indicates mitral
insufÏciency
a. A Wave
b. C wave
c. P wave
d. V wave

A

d. V wave

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8
Q

An elevated RVEDP is found in what pathology?
a. LV infract
b. Aortic Stenosis
c. RV infract
d. Mitral regurgitation

A

c. RV infract

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9
Q

If the RA waveform is 2x the normal value, where would this be demonstrated in
the physical assessment?
a. Decreased exercise tolerance
b. Decreased 02 sat
c. Increased 02 sat
d. JVD

A

d. JVD

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10
Q

What is the most common cause of Pulmonic stenosis?
a. Aging
b. Congenital
c. Cardiomyopathy
d. Mitral regurgitation

A

b. Congenital

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11
Q

The blue proximal port of the swan is located how far from the distal tip of the
swan?
a. 15 cm
b. 30cm
c. 45cm
d. 5cm

A

b. 30cm

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12
Q

When performing a thermodilution cardiac output, the operator injects 10 cc of
saline into the
and the temperature change is measured in the
a. LA , AO
b. RV , PCWP
c. RA , PA
d. RA, LA

A

c. RA , PA

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13
Q

Equalization of the RVEDP and LVEDP are found in
a. Tampanode
b. Restrictive pericarditis
c. Acute MI
d. LV MI

A

b. Restrictive pericarditis

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14
Q

Signs of Right sided heart failure include
a. Decreased 02 sats
b. SOB
c. JVD
d. Pulmonary embolism

A

c. JVD

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15
Q

Based on these oxygen saturations, what type of shunt is present?
SVC sat = 67% IVC sat= 71% RA sat = 85% RV sat = 85% PA sat = 85% LA sat = 98%
LV sat = 98% AO sat = 98%
a. R to L ASD
b. L to R ASD
c. L to R VSD
d. Normal, no shunt

A

b. L to R ASD

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16
Q

The type of ASD, located in the middle 1/3 of the atrial septum (the former site of
the fossa ovalis is called
a. Ostium Primum
b. Sinus Venosus
c. Ostium Secundum

A

c. Ostium Secundum

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17
Q

What is Flamms equation?
a. 3 (SVC) + 1 (IVC) / 4
b. 6 (SVC) + 2 (IVC) / 2
c. 3 (PA) + 2 (AO) / 4

A

a. 3 (SVC) + 1 (IVC) / 4

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18
Q

The formula to calculate MAP is
a. HR x SV / SVR
b. Mean AO - Mean Ra
c. 1 (systolic) + 2 (diastolic) / 3

A

c. 1 (systolic) + 2 (diastolic) / 3

19
Q

What are the 4 anomalies associated with Tetrology of Fallot?
a. ASD, VSD, LVH, RVH
b. VVH, PS, Overriding aorta, RVH
c. Overriding aorta, RVH, LVH, ASD
d. Pulmonic stenosis, overriding aorta, RVH, VSD

A

d. Pulmonic stenosis, overriding aorta, RVH, VSD

Tetralogy of Fallot consists of the combination of four different heart defects: a
ventricular septal defect (VSD); obstructed outflow of blood from the right
ventricle to the lungs (pulmonary stenosis); a displaced aorta, which causes blood
to flow into the aorta from both the right and left ventricles (dextroposition or
overriding aorta); and abnormal enlargement of the right ventricle (right
ventricular hypertrophy)

20
Q

Which fetal anomaly is characterized by a large VSD over which large single great
vessel arises
a. Transposition of the Great Vessels
b. Tricuspid Atresia
c. Tetralogy of Fallot
d. Trucas Arterosus

A

d. Trucas Arterosus

21
Q

Pulsus Paradoxus is a sign of
a. Constructive Pericarditis
b. Cardiomyopathy
c. Cardiac Tamponade
D. COPD

A

c. Cardiac Tamponade

Pulsus paradoxus refers to a BP drop of at least 10 mm Hg with each breath in.

22
Q

What does RAD stand for?
a. Radiation Absorbed dose
b. Radiation attenuated date
c. Radiation attributable distance

A

a. Radiation Absorbed dose

23
Q

Which component of the X-ray system converts light rays into images
a. Image intensifier
b. X-ray tube
c. Photon Tube
d. Anode

A

a. Image intensifier

24
Q

What is the maximum annual dose of radiation one can receive annually
a. 5 RAD
b. 5 currie
c. 0.5 REM
d. 5 REM

25
Lead protection should be at least how many millimeters of lead a. 1.0 b. .25 c. .5
c. .5
26
What is the maximum safe distance to position oneself from the X-ray source a. 3 feet b. 6 feet c. 10 feet d. 15 feet
b. 6 feet
27
In an x-ray tube a. Cathode is positive and the anode is negative b. Cathode is negative and the anode is positive c. The charges alternate depending on the heat generated
b. Cathode is negative and the anode is positive
28
What view exposes the operator to the greatest amount of radation a. AP b. LAO cranial c. Lateral d. RAO with cranial 30
c. Lateral
29
What converts x-ray into an image a. Filament b. Image intensifier c. x-ray tube d. KVP
b. Image intensifier
30
the contrast that is best for a patient is a. Low osmolarity b. High osmolarity c. Renografin
a. Low osmolarity
31
Radiolucent means a. X-rays are not permitted to pass through b. X-rays are partially deflected c. X-rays are permitted to pass through
c. X-rays are permitted to pass through
32
Radiopaque means a. X-rays are permitted to pass through b. X-rays are not permitted to pass through c. X-rays are randomly deflected
b. X-rays are not permitted to pass through
33
ReoPro works on a. Fibrin b. Prothrombin c. Antithrombin d. IIb/IIIa receptors
d. IIb/IIIa receptors
34
Heparin potentiates the action of a. Antithrombin b. Factor III c. Factor IX d. Factor VIII
a. Antithrombin
35
Fibrinogen is converted to Fibrin by the action of a. Pro thrombin b. Tissue Factor c. Platelets d. Thrombin
d. Thrombin
36
There are known pathways to imitate the clotÝng cascade a. 2 b. 1 c. 3 4. 4
a. 2 (intrinsic: tissue factor, extrinsic: contact pathway)
37
Aspirin inhibits the action of a. VWF b. Factor VII c. Thrombin d. Arachidonic Acid
d. Arachidonic Acid
38
Which agent is not an antiplatelet a. ASA b. Heparin c. Plavix d. ReaPro
b. Heparin
39
Is a patient has diabetes and renal failure with a creatinine of 2.0 what would you give? a. Lasix b. Fluids to hydrate c. Ionic contrast
b. Fluids to hydrate
40
If a patient is taking NPH, which medication should not be given a. Protamine b. Lasix c. Heparin
a. Protamine
41
Which medication is most commonly given to a patient with SVT a. NTG b. Lidocaine c. Dopamine d. Adenosine
d. Adenosine
42
If a patient has a creatinine greater than 1.4 contrast volume should be minimized a. True b. False
a. True
43
Lidocaine converts from 2gm in 500cc to a. 8gm in 1cc b. 400mg in 250cc c. 4mg in 250cc
c. 4mg in 250cc