recert Flashcards

Question

What is the treatment for **Strongyloides stercoralis**?

Answer 1

* Ivermectin * Albendazole ## Footnote Hyperinfestation can be fatal in immunocompromised patients.

Answer 2

* Cough due to larvae migrating through lungs * Eosinophilic pneumonia (Loffler syndrome) * SBO due to collection of worms in gut ## Footnote Treatment includes ivermectin, albendazole, or mebendazole.

Answer 3

Enterobius vermicularis (PINWORMS) ## Footnote It causes anal pruritus and spreads in families.

Answer 4

Raw/undercooked meat, usually from wild game ## Footnote Symptoms include diarrhea, abdominal pain, and eyelid edema. How it Spreads to Humans: When a person eats infected, undercooked meat, the stomach acid digests the meat, releasing the Trichinella larvae from their protective cysts. 1. The larvae invade the wall of the small intestine and mature into adult worms. 2. The adult female worms then produce new larvae. 3. These new larvae travel through the bloodstream and ultimately migrate to muscle tissue throughout the body, where they burrow in and form new, hard cysts, remaining alive for years.

Answer 5

Anemia due to penetration into intestinal mucosa causing bleeding ## Footnote Treatment includes ivermectin or mebendazole.

Answer 6

Hookworm larvae penetrate feet from contaminated animal feces ## Footnote It results in pruritic serpiginous tracks.

Answer 7

Deer mouse ## Footnote It can cause Hantavirus pulmonary syndrome (HPS).

Answer 8

* TCA * Cocaine * Venlafaxine * Diphenhydramine * Lamictal ## Footnote These substances can lead to toxicity and require careful management.

Answer 9

* Oculomotor changes * Ataxia * Confusion ## Footnote Treatment includes Thiamine and Magnesium, which is a cofactor for thiamine transketolase.

Answer 10

Inflammation of the testis, commonly associated with *Epstein-Barr virus* or *mumps* ## Footnote Bacterial causes include *Klebsiella*, *E. coli*, and *Pseudomonas*, all of which are encapsulated bacteria.

Answer 11

* Bouchard nodes (PIP) * Heberden nodes (DIP) ## Footnote DIP joint involvement is characteristic of OA.

Answer 12

Swelling of *MCP* and *PIP* joints, sparing DIP joints ## Footnote This distinguishes RA from OA.

Answer 13

An inherited condition with inappropriate release of calcium from the sarcoplasmic reticulum in skeletal muscle; treated with *dantrolene* ## Footnote Dantrolene antagonizes the excessive release of calcium.

Answer 14

dexamethasone 8mg then 4mg q6hrs ## HACE stands for High Altitude Cerebral Edema.

Answer 15

Nifedipine ER 30mg PO q 12 ## Footnote HAPE stands for High Altitude Pulmonary Edema.

Answer 16

Acetazolamide ## Footnote Acetazolamide can lead to non-anion gap metabolic acidosis and increase respiratory rate.

Answer 17

Sharp, stabbing pain in one eye lasting 15 minutes to several hours ## Footnote Treatment includes NRB (non-rebreather mask).

Answer 18

* Alcohol consumption * Cigarette smoking * Genetic factors * Hypertension * Obesity * von Hippel-Lindau disease ## Footnote These factors contribute to the development of renal cell carcinoma.

Answer 19

Systemic disease ## Footnote This can indicate underlying health issues.

Answer 20

FALSE ## Footnote Pacing can induce ventricular fibrillation in these patients.

Answer 21

Panniculitis due to vasculitis, tender and mobile, changes from purple to yellow ## Footnote Differential diagnosis includes *HLA-B27*, sarcoidosis, IBD (UC), strep, TB, URI, medications, and idiopathic causes.

Answer 22

Vasculitis affecting dependent areas, often with arthritis and ileoileal intussusception ## Footnote **50% have microscopic hematuria and proteinuria** ## Footnote tx: steroids -—— now more commonly called IgA Vasculitis (IgAV), is an immune complex-mediated, small-vessel leukocytoclastic vasculitis. —_— Antigen Encounter: A pathogen enters the body through a mucosal surface (e.g., in the food or air). 2. B-Cell Activation: Immune cells capture the antigen and present it to B-cells (the cells that make antibodies). 3. Class Switching: The B-cells undergo an immune process called class switching, where they switch from producing an initial antibody type (like IgM) to specifically producing the \alpha (alpha) heavy chain that defines IgA. 4. Maturation and Secretion: The activated B-cells mature into IgA-producing plasma cells that reside just beneath the epithelial lining, constantly secreting IgA into the mucus layer to provide a continuous shield.

Answer 23

Ulcerations with pathergy, where minor trauma leads to exaggerated ulceration of skin ## Footnote This condition is often associated with systemic diseases. PG is the prototypical example of a Neutrophilic Dermatosis, characterized by a sterile, dense infiltration of neutrophils into the skin that causes rapid tissue destruction and ulceration. key clinical phenomenon is pathergy, which is defined as the development of new PG lesions at sites of minor skin trauma (e.g., needle sticks, biopsies, surgical incisions). This highlights the hyper-reactive state of the patient's immune system, where even a trivial injury can trigger the full, uncontrolled neutrophilic cascade

Answer 24

Staph aureus ## Footnote 80% of cystic fibrosis patients are colonized with *Pseudomonas aeruginosa* by age 18.

Answer 25

* Anterior: Iris * Intermediate: Ciliary body * Posterior: Choroid ## Footnote The choroid is the vascular layer between the retina and sclera.

Answer 26

Anterior uveitis; treated with cycloplegic drops (cyclopentolate or tropicamide) ## Footnote Follow-up with an ophthalmologist in 24-48 hours.

Answer 27

Dry socket ## Footnote Treatment includes warm water mouth rinse or chlorhexidine 0.12% oral rinse.

Answer 28

Weak acid ## Footnote It penetrates skin easily and binds with Ca2+ and Mg2+.

Answer 29

Oxidative phosphorylation, preventing O2 usage, leading to increased O2 levels in venous blood ## Footnote Treatment includes hydroxocobalamin, which turns skin/urine/plasma red.

Answer 30

4-5 days ## Footnote The range can extend to 14 days, necessitating a 2-week quarantine for high-risk exposure.

Answer 31

4-8 weeks ## Footnote This virus is associated with various diseases, including mononucleosis. and can cause Orchitis

Answer 32

90% due to medications ## Footnote Symptoms include pruritic, headache, and fever.

Answer 33

ACE inhibitor ## Footnote Angioedema is a serious side effect of ACE inhibitors.

Answer 34

Drug Reaction with Eosinophilia and Systemic Symptoms ## Footnote This condition involves a severe drug reaction. The RegiSCAR scoring system assigns points to different clinical and laboratory findings to determine the likelihood of DRESS. Diagnosis is classified based on the total score: • <2: Excluded • 2-3: Possible • 4-5: Probable • 6+: Definite

Answer 35

**Staphylococcal**● Toxic Shock Syndrome **Streptococcal**● Toxic Shock Syndrome ## Footnote Both involve toxin production.

Answer 36

~ 50% ## Footnote This is significantly higher than the mortality rate for Staphylococcal Toxic Shock Syndrome—> 5%

Answer 37

TRUE ## Footnote The syndrome is caused by Staphylococcus aureus exotoxins.

Answer 38

* Minor * Major ## Footnote Major forms can lead to more severe conditions like Stevens-Johnson Syndrome.

Answer 39

< 10% ## Footnote SJS is a serious condition that can progress to Toxic Epidermal Necrolysis (TEN).

Answer 40

HSV & mycoplasma pneumonia ## Footnote Other causes include sulfa drugs and seizure medications.

Answer 41

* Dapsone * Sulfapyridine ## Footnote The mechanism of action for these treatments is unknown.

Answer 42

25% solution, 8 g/liter of ascites removed ## Footnote For example, if 5L is taken off, then 5x8 = 40 grams of 25% albumin.

Answer 43

Malassezia furfur ## Footnote This yeast condition worsens with hot and sweaty weather.

Answer 44

* Dapsone * Rifampin ## Footnote Leprosy presents with anesthetic lesions and disfiguring nodules. mycoplasma lepre

Answer 45

Corynebacterium spp ## Footnote Erythrasma presents as brown, scaly skin patches, particularly in skin folds.

Answer 46

RED ## Footnote This is a diagnostic feature for identifying Erythrasma.

Answer 47

erythromycin ## Footnote Erythromycin is an antibiotic used to treat this skin condition.

Answer 48

* edema 5% * Erythema multiforme * Hepatitis * AMI ## Footnote These side effects can occur with the use of Amlodipine.

Answer 49

TRUE ## Footnote This is a significant concern for users of these substances.

Answer 50

* Severe anxiety * Emotional lability * **Persecutory** delusions ## Footnote Symptoms can include feelings of being pursued or threatened.

Answer 51

Reiter’s Syndrome ## Footnote It is an autoimmune condition characterized by: **conjunctivitis** **urethritis** **arthritis**

Answer 52

* Asymmetric arthritis * SeroNEGATIVE * Weight loading joints: knees, ankles, heels, SI joint, ischial tuberosity, ischial crest ## Footnote It usually occurs 2-6 weeks after urethritis or dysentery.

Answer 53

**GI illness** AND **Std** * Campylobacter * Salmonella * Shigella * Yersinia ## Footnote These pathogens are associated with diarrhea that can trigger the condition.

Answer 54

NSAID ## Footnote Nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs are commonly used to manage symptoms.

Answer 55

BLAST TRAUMA ## Footnote High air-content organ systems are most at risk in such scenarios.

Answer 56

* Tympanic membrane * Lung * Bowel ## Footnote These organs are particularly vulnerable due to their structure.

Answer 57

95% ## Footnote More than 5% of T.M. ruptures may require surgical repair.

Answer 58

* Colon * Ileocecal junction ## Footnote These areas are particularly susceptible to injury.

Answer 59

Ankle/Brachial Index ## Footnote It is calculated using doppler systolic blood pressure measurements.

Answer 60

> 0.9 ## Footnote An ABI less than 0.9 in trauma indicates a need for further imaging however, 10% of severe popliteal artery injury will have normal DP and posterior tibial artery pulses .

Answer 61

TRUE ## Footnote This can occur even with significant injuries.

Answer 62

WIDER tourniquets ## Footnote They are preferred over narrow ones for these reasons.

Answer 63

Pterygoid plate ## Footnote This is a key feature of all types of Le Fort fractures.

Answer 64

* Le Fort I: pterygoid(hard palate) * Le Fort II: pterygoid(hard palate), orbital floor * Le Fort III: pterygoid(hard palate), orbital floor, zygoma * Le Fort IV: pterygoid(hard palate), orbital floor, zygoma, frontal bone ## Footnote Each type involves different structures of the facial skeleton.

Answer 65

●● **post obstructive pulmonary edema** ## Footnote post obstructive pulmonary edema can develop from significant negative intrapleural pressures.

Answer 66

50% ## Footnote These injuries can include thyroid cartilage or hyoid fractures.

Answer 67

**temperature sensation** ## Footnote Compartment syndrome is suggested when the delta pressure (diastolic pressure minus compartment pressure) is less than 30 mm Hg. Most common method is ΔP: • Diastolic BP – compartment P • ΔP<30 is suspicious for ACS Keep limb at level of heart (avoid extreme elevation) • Oxygen saturation to improve availability to muscle • Correct systemic hypotension

Answer 68

systolic blood pressure ## Footnote This indicates severe compartment syndrome.

Answer 69

* FEVER * SEVERE ear PAIN * NECK PAIN ## Footnote These symptoms indicate a serious condition requiring immediate medical attention.

Answer 70

Warm Compress and NO abx ## Footnote A chalazion is not very painful and is caused by a blocked meibomian duct.

Answer 71

Warm Compress and NO abx ## Footnote A hordeolum is very painful and can be internal or external (stye). Search Assist A hordeolum, commonly known as a stye, is an infection of an oil gland at the edge of the eyelid, typically caused by bacteria. It appears as a painful, red bump and can be treated with warm compresses and, if necessary, antibiotic ointments.

Answer 72

calcium disodium EDTA and BAL (British anti-Lewisite) ## Footnote This treatment is crucial for managing lead poisoning.

Answer 73

> 5 mcg/dL ## Footnote Levels above this indicate potential lead poisoning.

Answer 74

* ADMISSION for level > 70 * ADMISSION for any symptoms with any level * HOME for asymptomatic AND levels 5-44 (remove Lead) * HOME for asymptomatic AND levels 45-69 (PO chelation) ## Footnote Treatment varies based on symptoms and lead levels.

Answer 75

10 days ## Footnote Asymptomatic individuals need 7 days of asymptomatic isolation.

Answer 76

* benzo’s * Fosphenytoin/Keppra/Valproate **KEPPRA max 60mg/kg with MAX 4.5 grams** * Phenobarbital ## Footnote These medications are critical in managing seizures.

Answer 77

**myasthenia gravis** ## Footnote This is a common symptom in myasthenia gravis.

Answer 78

* transient hypotension (50%) * transient thrombocytopenia ## Footnote If bleeding occurs, DDAVP (desmopressin) can increase platelets.

Answer 79

need to double check Thenar eminence weakness ## Footnote Other findings include index finger pad sensory changes and Durkan’s test. 1. The patient's wrist is often held in a slightly flexed position. 2. The examiner uses their thumb(s) to apply firm pressure directly over the carpal tunnel (the area where the median nerve passes through the wrist). 3. The pressure is typically held for up to 30 seconds.

Answer 80

admit for apnea observation ## Footnote This is crucial for monitoring potential complications.

Answer 81

≥ 5 grams/dl deoxygenated hgb ## Footnote This condition can cause a chocolate brown appearance when levels exceed 20%.

Answer 82

benzocaine ## Footnote Normal range for methemoglobinemia is 1-2%.

Answer 83

need to double check ABG before and after 100% oxygen ## Footnote CHD will show a low O2 sat and low PO2.

Answer 84

Methylene Blue ## Footnote This is the treatment for symptomatic cases.

Answer 85

Central Cyanosis ## Footnote It can be caused by industrial chemicals and certain medications. Medications: This is the most common cause. Culprit drugs often include: • Phenazopyridine (a urinary tract analgesic, sometimes misused) • Sulfonamides (a class of antibiotics) • Dapsone • Metoclopramide Standard pulse ox tends to report falsely low value ABG, Co-oximetry Dark greenish-black blood Management Supportive care Severe toxicity may require exchange transfusion or PRBC transfusion Methylene blue does not reduce sulfhemoglobin levels

Answer 86

< 15 mins, generalized, ONE seizure in 24h ## Footnote This is a common condition in children aged 6 months to 5 years.

Answer 87

> 15 mins, focal, 2 or more episodes, age < 6 months or age > 5 yrs ## Footnote These seizures require further evaluation.

Answer 88

heparin or lovenox ## Footnote This is recommended even if it causes ICH.

Answer 89

asa and plavix ## Footnote This is based on the CHANCE and POINT trials. CHANCE Among patients with TIA or minor stroke who can be treated within 24 hours after the onset of symptoms, the combination of clopidogrel and aspirin is superior to aspirin alone for reducing the risk of stroke in the first 90 days and does not increase the risk of hemorrhage. POINT The primary goal of the POINT trial was to determine if initiating clopidogrel plus aspirin within 12 hours of a minor ischemic stroke (NIHSS score =< 3) or a high-risk TIA (ABCD2 score 4+) was more effective in preventing major ischemic events at 90 days than aspirin alone. j

Answer 90

PIN POINT PUPILS ## Footnote This is a classic finding in pontine strokes.

Answer 91

intact eye blinking & vertical eye movement ## Footnote This condition results from a brainstem stroke.

Answer 92

* vomiting * intractable hiccups * direction-changing nystagmus ## Footnote These symptoms can indicate a brainstem stroke.

Answer 93

* eyes deviate towards the lesion * hemianopsia (ipsilateral) * FACE and UPPER extremity weakness > lower extremity weakness * extremity weakness/sensory loss * aphasia ## Footnote These symptoms help in diagnosing the type of stroke.

Answer 94

* lack of judgment * no insight into their condition * reappearance of primitive reflexes * LOWER extremity weakness > upper extremity weakness ## Footnote These symptoms are indicative of this type of stroke.

Answer 95

National Institutes of Health Stroke Scale ## Footnote A tool used to measure the severity of a stroke.

Answer 96

0 ## Footnote The mRS is used to measure the degree of disability or dependence in daily activities.

Answer 97

0-5 ## Footnote Mild strokes are characterized by no significant symptoms or disability.

Answer 98

6-25 ## Footnote Moderate strokes may present with mild symptoms but no disability.

Answer 99

26+ ## Footnote Severe strokes can result in significant disability.

Answer 100

0-3 hrs ## Footnote IV tPA is indicated for mild strokes with disabling symptoms.

Answer 101

< 220/120 ## Footnote This is the acceptable BP range when not administering tPA.

Answer 102

< 185/110 ## Footnote Blood pressure must be controlled when administering tPA.

Answer 103

FALSE ## Footnote Age is not a contraindication for administering tPA.

Answer 104

* Independent at baseline (mRs 0-1) * Stroke is disabling * NIH 6-25 for thrombolysis * NIH 11+ for thrombectomy ## Footnote These criteria help determine eligibility for treatment in unclear onset strokes.

Answer 105

* MRI with diffusion positive * FLAIR negative ## Footnote These findings indicate that the stroke is less than 4.5 hours old.

Answer 106

* Ischemic stroke ≤ 3 months * Severe head trauma ≤ 3 months * Brain surgery ≤ 3 months * INR 1.8+ * Platelets < 100,000 * Glucose < 50 mg/dL * Stroke involving > 1/3 of MCA territory ## Footnote These conditions disqualify patients from receiving tPA.

Answer 107

HOT water soak ## Footnote Stingray venom is heat labile, so hot water helps alleviate pain.

Answer 108

Healed calcified lung lesion ## Footnote It indicates a prior infection that has healed.

Answer 109

Factor VIII ## Footnote Factor VIII contains extra von Willebrand factor (vWF) necessary for clotting.

Answer 110

* Behcet Syndrome * Pyoderma gangrenosum ## Footnote A positive test indicates active disease in these conditions.

Answer 111

atropine AND Pralidoxime * Muscarinic symptoms: SLUDGE → atropine * Nicotinic symptoms: paralysis → pralidoxime (2-PAM) reactivating the acetylcholinesterase enzyme by stripping the organophosphate molecule off the enzym ## Footnote Organophosphate poisoning affects both muscarinic and nicotinic receptors.

Answer 112

* Sensitivity: 77% * Specificity: 98% ## Footnote The ICE test involves applying an ice pack to the eye to improve symptoms.

Answer 113

Conservative, nonsurgical treatment ## Footnote This approach is appropriate if there is no rupture.

Answer 114

Hydroxocobalamin ## Footnote Hydroxocobalamin is used for severe H2S poisoning. H2S acts similarly to cyanide by inhibiting cellular respiration in the mitochondria. binds directly to the sulfide molecule, forming a stable, non-toxic compound that is excreted

Answer 115

Two contiguous leads with ST-segment elevation of: * More than **2 mm** in leads V2 and V3 * More than 1 mm in all other leads ## Footnote These criteria help identify ST-Elevation Myocardial Infarction.

Answer 116

C5-C6 (most frequently reported) C3-C7 ## Footnote This occurs due to flexion/rotation of the neck and is unusually stable.

Answer 117

Bilateral facet dislocation ## Footnote This type of dislocation is considered unstable.

Answer 118

Beta-2 transferrin ## Footnote This test helps confirm the presence of cerebrospinal fluid.

Answer 119

Proximal ulna fracture + radial head dislocation ## Footnote It requires immediate surgery for open reduction and internal fixation.

Answer 120

Distal radial fracture + distal radioulnar joint dislocation ## Footnote It may involve uncommon nerve injuries affecting radial/median nerves.

Answer 121

The management involves a dual approach: 1. Topical Antiviral (For the Keratitis): • Ganciclovir 0.15% ophthalmic gel (less toxic to the cornea 2. PO antiviral PO antivirals ## Footnote Types include: * Epithelial type: more common, dendrites * Disciform type: deeper, disc-shaped areas of corneal edema.

Answer 122

* Non cardiogenic pulmonary edema * Level > 100 mg/dL * AMS * pH < 7.2 ## Footnote Activated charcoal should be given within 2 hours of ingestion.

Answer 123

* Pseudomonas * Staph aureus ## Footnote Malignant Otitis Externa is a risk for DM and immunocompromised patients.

Answer 124

CN 7 paralysis ## Footnote Treatment includes ceftazidime 50mg/kg IV q 8hrs to cover Pseudomonas and additional antibiotics for Staph aureus.

Answer 125

PMN > 250 cells/mm3 ## Footnote Treatment involves 3rd generation cephalosporin.

Answer 126

Fluctuance above the dentate line ## Footnote An abscess below the dentate line may be treated in the emergency department with incision and drainage.

Answer 127

Aspiration of anaerobic oropharyngeal bacteria ## Footnote This condition often requires specific antibiotic treatment.

Answer 128

Strep pneumoniae ## Footnote Empyema is a collection of pus in the pleural cavity.

Answer 129

Exudative if any of the following are met: * PF total protein/ST total protein > 0.5 * PF LDH/SLDH > 0.6 * PF LDH > ⅔ (LDH ULN) ## Footnote These criteria help differentiate between transudative and exudative effusions.

Answer 130

* First-order kinetics: fixed percentage per hour for low concentrations * Zero-order kinetics: fixed amount per hour for high concentrations ## Footnote First-order is more common in non-tolerant individuals.

Answer 131

Ecstasy Molly ## Footnote It is a sympathomimetic that **increases vasopressin** release, leading to hyponatremia. 3,4-Methylenedioxy**methamphetamine**

Answer 132

Roofie ## Footnote Rohypnol is flunitrazepam, a sedative.

Answer 133

Amiodarone ## Footnote It can be used in AMI or severe LV dysfunction. Avoid procainamide/sotalol in prolonged QT interval.

Answer 134

10% ## Footnote Hirschsprung Disease is a congenital condition affecting the large intestine.

Answer 135

Musty breath due to liver failure ## Footnote This symptom is indicative of severe liver dysfunction.

Answer 136

Musty breath ## Footnote PKU is a metabolic disorder caused by a deficiency of phenylalanine hydroxylase.

Answer 137

Salty skin ## Footnote This condition affects the respiratory and digestive systems.

Answer 138

* Hypothyroidism * Hypokalemia * Hypercalcemia * CHF * Cystic fibrosis * Hirschsprung disease * Botulism * Paternal narcotics * Meconium plug syndrome * Anal stenosis/atresia ## Footnote These conditions can lead to delayed meconium passage.

Answer 139

eNCaPSS * Strep pneumoniae * Neisseria meningitidis * Haemophilus influenzae * Klebsiella pneumoniae * Salmonella typhi * Cryptococcus neoformans * Pseudomonas aeruginosa ## Footnote Encapsulated bacteria are often associated with increased virulence.

Answer 140

* Decreases GI pH and traps ammonia in stool * Hyperosmolar stool oftener * Stimulates bacteria to break down ammonia ## Footnote LACTULOSE helps reduce ammonia levels in the body, which is crucial for patients with hepatic encephalopathy.

Answer 141

**0.5mm** elevation in ANY of the posterior leads: V7, V8, V9 ## Footnote Posterior leads are important for diagnosing posterior myocardial infarctions.

Answer 142

TRUE ## Footnote This is due to the risk of further airway obstruction or aspiration.

Answer 143

Vasoconstrictors ## Footnote Using vasoconstrictors can lead to alkaline necrosis.

Answer 144

* Bats * Foxes * Raccoons * Skunks ## Footnote These animals are commonly associated with rabies transmission.

Answer 145

Stool Antigen ## Footnote This test is particularly relevant for individuals in daycares or during camping.

Answer 146

* Ataxia * Urinary incontinence ## Footnote Normal Pressure Hydrocephalus can develop in individuals under 60 years old.

Answer 147

Subdural hematoma from tearing of the bridging veins ## Footnote This complication can occur due to rapid changes in intracranial pressure.

Answer 148

Copper IUD ## Footnote The Copper IUD is an effective emergency contraceptive method.

Answer 149

Struvite stone (Mg-ammonium-phosphate) ## Footnote These stones are often associated with urinary tract infections.

Answer 150

Negative Birefringent crystals = MONOsodium urate crystals ## Footnote GOUT is characterized by the accumulation of uric acid crystals in joints.

Answer 151

Abnormal Na channels ## Footnote This condition can lead to polymorphic ventricular tachycardia.

Answer 152

Roseola infantum: Human Herpes 6 virus ## Footnote This condition typically affects children aged 6 months to 1 year.

Answer 153

* Cough * Coryza * Conjunctivitis ## Footnote Measles is also characterized by Koplik spots.

Answer 154

* Post auricular and posterior cervical lymphadenopathy * Polyarticular joint pain * **Soft palate petechiae** ## Footnote Rubella can have congenital effects including mental impairment and cataracts. Quick Answer: Measles (rubeola) and German measles (rubella) are different viral infections. Measles is more severe, highly contagious, and can cause life-threatening complications, while German measles is usually milder but dangerous in pregnancy because it can cause birth defects in babies cleveland... +3. --- 🌟 Key Differences Between Measles and German Measles Feature Measles (Rubeola) German Measles (Rubella) Virus Caused by the measles virus (Morbillivirus) Caused by the rubella virus (RuV) Severity Severe illness; can lead to pneumonia, encephalitis, and death Usually mild; often resolves in a few days Contagiousness Extremely contagious (90% of unvaccinated people exposed will get it) mayoclini... +2 Symptoms High fever, cough, runny nose, red eyes, Koplik’s spots in mouth, rash spreading from face downward cleveland... +4 Duration Illness lasts 10–14 days Rash and symptoms last 1–5 days (“three-day measles”) mayoclinic.org Complications Can cause blindness, brain swelling, immune suppression, pregnancy complications cleveland... +3 Prevention MMR or MMRV vaccine (two doses give ~97% lifelong protection) cdc.gov +4 --- 🧾 Important Notes • Measles is more dangerous overall: It can hospitalize 2 out of 5 patients and cause long-term immune damage clevelandcli.... • Rubella is mild in most people but severe in pregnancy: Infection in the first trimester can cause miscarriage or congenital rubella syndrome in up to 85% of cases cleveland... +1. • Vaccination is the best protection: The MMR vaccine protects against both measles and rubella, and is part of routine childhood immunization worldwide cdc.gov +2. So, while both illnesses cause rashes and are prevented by the same vaccine, measles is the more severe disease, and rubella is especially feared because of its effects on unborn babies. ---

Answer 155

Christmas tree pattern, herald lesion ## Footnote This condition is self-limiting and often itchy.

Answer 156

Suction event ## Footnote This occurs when the inflow cannula gets 'sucked down' against the LV due to negative pressures.

Answer 157

Bleeding due to anticoagulation and mechanical destruction of vWF ## Footnote Treatment may involve desmopressin to increase vWF levels.

Answer 158

Chest compressions should be performed ## Footnote This is part of the resuscitation protocol for LVAD patients.

Answer 159

Burst fracture ## Footnote Burst fractures can be misdiagnosed as compression fractures.

Answer 160

> 1,500 cc initially or > 200cc/hr ## Footnote This is relevant for chest tube thoracostomy management.

Answer 161

Abnormal skin pigmentation that can mimic cyanosis ## Footnote Heavy metals use and Hemochromatosis can cause slate gray or brownish discoloration in sun-exposed skin.

Answer 162

No blanching of affected areas ## Footnote This is a key indicator to differentiate between the two conditions.

Answer 163

Prolong normal tissue APD and refractory period > injured tissue APD and refractory period ## Footnote This is important for understanding the pharmacodynamics of these medications.

Answer 164

* Lipophilic neurologic side effects (AMS, coma, seizures) * Bradycardia * Hypotension * QRS widening ## Footnote Propranolol is a beta-blocker affecting both B1 and B2 receptors.

Answer 165

B1/B2 blocker (class II), K blocker (class III) ## Footnote Sotalol requires 24-hour observation due to its long half-life.

Answer 166

Benzodiazepines ## Footnote Lorazepam is preferred due to its phase 2 metabolism.

Answer 167

Iatrogenic (upper endoscopy) ## Footnote Symptoms can mimic aortic dissection, including neck/chest/abdominal pain.

Answer 168

* Non-bilious vomiting at the end of feeding * Hungry after vomiting * Male to female ratio 4:1 * Metabolic alkalosis with hypoCl, hypoK ## Footnote Typically occurs in infants aged 2-6 weeks.

Answer 169

Gut malrotation ## Footnote This sign is associated with abnormal intestinal positioning.

Answer 170

Duodenal atresia ## Footnote Characterized by a dilated stomach and narrow pyloric area.

Answer 171

Intussusception ## Footnote Rarely found in infants under 5 months old.

Answer 172

* Usually occurs in neonates < 3 days old * 90% in premature neonates * Blood stools * XR shows pneumatosis intestinalis ## Footnote This condition is a serious gastrointestinal emergency.

Answer 173

Oxygen and repeat X-ray ## Footnote This approach helps in monitoring the condition.

Answer 174

Decrease IOP ## Footnote Medications include timolol, brimonidine, and acetazolamide.

Answer 175

Maintain IOP normalcy by promoting drainage ## Footnote It works by constricting the pupil, pulling the iris away.

Answer 176

Intubation ## Footnote Heated high flow may reduce aerosolization.

Answer 177

* Microscopic thick blood smears * Thin blood smears ## Footnote Three negative smears within 12 hours are needed for diagnosis.

Answer 178

Fever, fatigue, loss of appetite ## Footnote Treatment includes doxycycline for 2 weeks.

Answer 179

* Immunosuppressive medications * Autoimmune conditions * Hypertension * Pregnancy ## Footnote risk factors P: pregnancy R: rheumatologic conditions E: accelerated hypertension S: sepsis MRI is the diagnostic test of choice, and findings consistent with PRES include vasogenic edema, often found in the parieto-occipital locations bilaterally. If MRI is unavailable, perform a computed tomography (CT) scan of the brain, which can also show vasogenic edema. These factors can contribute to the development of PRES. C - Cephalgia (Headache): Usually severe and constant; it often comes on rapidly. • C - Convulsions (Seizures): This is the most common symptom, occurring in about 70-80% of patients. • C - Confusion: Patients may be agitated, disoriented, or have difficulty focusing. In severe cases, it can progress to a coma. • V - Visual Disturbances: This ranges from blurred vision to hallucinations or cortical blindness (where the eyes work, but the brain cannot process the image).

Answer 180

Streptococcus pneumoniae ## Footnote Giving steroids can improve mortality with this pathogen.

Answer 181

* Normal fibrinogen/PT/PTT * Elevated AST > 70 U/L * Elevated TBili > 1.2 mg/dL * Decreased platelets < 100 ## Footnote Treatment is delivery if > 34 weeks pregnant.

Answer 182

Very itchy, elevated LFTs ## Footnote No elevated BP or abnormal platelet levels.

Answer 183

Magnesium ## Footnote Calcium gluconate is used for magnesium toxicity.

Answer 184

Given within 3 days of trauma to prevent Rh sensitization ## Footnote Dosage varies based on gestational age and amount of fetal blood.

Answer 185

Cardiotocodynamometry ## Footnote This test identifies uterine irritability and contractions.

Answer 186

Monitor for placental abruption and administer Rhogam if indicated ## Footnote Important to rule out fetal blood exposure.

Answer 187

Decreased exercise performance ## Footnote This condition is caused by hypoxia leading to pulmonary hypertension.

Answer 188

Botulism immune globulin 0.5mL/kg/hr ## Footnote Symptoms include abdominal cramping and generalized weakness.

Answer 189

Irreversibly binds to anterior horn cell receptors ## Footnote Clinical tetanus lasts 4-6 weeks.

Answer 190

Reassurance and symptomatic therapy ## Footnote Antibiotics are only indicated if fever is present.

Answer 191

Ileoceitis mimicking appendicitis ## Footnote Typically self-limiting illness associated with undercooked pork.

Answer 192

Loss of haustra ## Footnote Thumbprinting may also be observed on imaging.

Answer 193

* Nodular * Mobile * Smooth ## Footnote Nipple retraction may indicate cancer.

Answer 194

≤ 5 yo ## Footnote The 2nd cleft is the most common and treatment involves outpatient excision.

Answer 195

pH 7.23, Pco2 23 ## Footnote This indicates a relationship between pH and carbon dioxide levels.

Answer 196

TRUE ## Footnote It may also be associated with hypothermia.

Answer 197

Minimal change (no hematuria) ## Footnote The liver compensates for albumin loss by increasing protein synthesis, leading to hyperlipidemia and clotting factors.

Answer 198

* External: infection of hair follicles of the eyelashes * Internal: infection of meibomian glands ## Footnote A **Chalazion** is a non-painful internal hordeolum due to granuloma formation.

Answer 199

* Meniere’s disease * Acoustic neuroma * BPPV * Labyrinthitis * Vestibular Neuritis ## Footnote

Answer 200

Meclizine ## Footnote It is used to manage symptoms of vertigo and dizziness.

Answer 201

* Labyrinthitis: hearing loss and tinnitus * Vestibular Neuritis: normal hearing ## Footnote Labyrinthitis often follows an acute otitis media (AOM).

Answer 202

Intact hearing despite symptoms similar to Acoustic Neuroma ## Footnote It involves PICA (Posterior Inferior Cerebellar Artery) and presents with various sensory deficits.

Answer 203

* Furosemide * ASA * Azithromycin * Aminoglycosides (tobramycin, gentamicin) * Phosphodiesterase inhibitors (cilostazol, sildenafil, dipyridamole, caffeine) ## Footnote These medications can lead to hearing toxicity.

Answer 204

Normal hearing bilaterally or bilateral sensorineural hearing loss ## Footnote Localizing to one side indicates either ipsilateral conductive hearing loss or contralateral sensorineural hearing loss.

Answer 205

* Sinusitis * Pulmonary infiltrates * Glomerulonephritis ## Footnote This condition is associated with vasculitis.

Answer 206

To assess air conduction vs bone conduction hearing ## Footnote A normal Rinne test (AC>BC) is termed 'Rinne positive'.

Answer 207

* 1+ motor or sensory symptoms * Symptoms are unconscious ## Footnote Do NOT use inconsistent effort or la belle indifference as diagnostic criteria.

Answer 208

Doxycycline for 2-4 weeks ## Footnote Symptoms include flu-like illness and a characteristic rash.

Answer 209

Erythema migrans ## Footnote Treatment includes doxycycline, amoxicillin, or cefuroxime.

Answer 210

Flu-like illness with hemolytic anemia ## Footnote It can occur in 40% of Lyme disease patients.

Answer 211

Leptospirosis ## Footnote It is associated with water contact and can lead to multiorgan failure.

Answer 212

* Staph aureus * Bacillus cereus * Clostridium perfringens * Salmonella typhimurium ## Footnote Each has distinct onset and symptoms.

Answer 213

Early subtotal colectomy ## Footnote It has an 80% mortality rate if not treated promptly.

Answer 214

Lymphopenia (83%) ## Footnote This finding is significant in the diagnosis and management of the disease.

Answer 215

* Unilateral * Lacrimation * Conjunctival injection * Nasal congestion * Ptosis * Miosis ## Footnote They typically last less than 3 hours.

Answer 216

Basal Cell Carcinoma ## Footnote It is slow-growing and often appears as a 'rodent ulcer'.

Answer 217

Waxy, stuck-on brown/black/tan growths ## Footnote It is a benign skin condition.

Answer 218

Pre-cancer ## Footnote It presents as irregular, erythematous, scaly papules.

Answer 219

They help to categorize injuries and guide management ## Footnote Understanding these zones is crucial for trauma assessment.

Answer 220

Spinal Cord Injury Without Radiographic Abnormality ## Footnote More common in younger than older children, with flexion and extension being the most common mechanism.

Answer 221

* Loss of frontalis muscle function * Subgaleal hematoma ## Footnote This type of laceration is significant in forehead injuries.

Answer 222

* Mild: steroid enema, fiber stool softeners * Decrease radiation dose ## Footnote 50% will develop this when receiving radiation to the pelvis.

Answer 223

Cryptococcus neoformans ## Footnote It is a fungal infection that occurs in 10% of AIDS patients and mimics viral meningitis.

Answer 224

* Early: Erythema migrans - Oral antibiotics * Carditis - IV antibiotics * Isolated cranial nerve palsy - Oral antibiotics * Meningitis - Oral or IV antibiotics * Late: Acute arthritis - Oral antibiotics * Recurrent arthritis - Oral or IV antibiotics * Encephalitis - IV antibiotics ## Footnote Lyme disease has distinct stages with specific presentations and treatments.

Answer 225

* Active strep infection * Sandpaper rash * Strawberry tongue * Forchheimer spots * Pastia lines * Facial flushing with mouth pallor ## Footnote Patients can develop post-glomerulonephritis and rheumatic fever regardless of antibiotic treatment.

Answer 226

* Scarlet Fever * Measles * German measles (Rubella) ## Footnote These conditions are notable for their facial rash presentation.

Answer 227

* Hyperuricemia * Hypocalcemia * Elevated LDH * Hyperkalemia * Hyperphosphatemia ## Footnote TLS usually occurs within 5 days after chemotherapy or radiation.

Answer 228

* Hyperuricemia * Hypercalcemia * Depression * Lethargy * Bones/stones/psychiatric overtones * Short QT interval ## Footnote MM affects calcium regulation and can lead to various complications.

Answer 229

* Plasmapheresis (if Ig mediated) * Leukapheresis (leukemia, polycythemia) ## Footnote Clinical manifestations include CHF, mucosal bleeding, and respiratory failure.

Answer 230

* 5 days of fever * 4 out of 5 criteria: erythema of palms and soles, maculopapular rash, bilateral conjunctivitis, lip/oral redness, cervical lymphadenopathy ## Footnote 85% of cases occur in children aged 6 months to 5 years.

Answer 231

* Complete: 5 days of fever + 4 out of 5 criteria * Incomplete: 5 days of fever + 2 out of 5 criteria + CRP ≥ 3.0 mg/dl or ESR ≥ 40 mm/hr + 3+ lab findings ## Footnote Incomplete Kawasaki can present similarly to viral illness.

Answer 232

Water warts ## Footnote This viral pox infection is contagious as long as there are warts and typically self-resolves within a year.

Answer 233

* Itchy rash * Red papule with hemorrhagic crusts * Worse at night * Tunnel-like lines of skin eruptions ## Footnote Treatment includes Permethrin cream 5%.

Answer 234

* Permethrin 5% topical * PO Ivermectin ## Footnote Effective treatment options for lice infestation.

Answer 235

* Type I: Immediate, anaphylaxis * Type II: Antibody-related (Goodpasture syndrome) * Type III: Immune complex-mediated (Post streptococcal glomerulonephritis) * Type IV: Delayed, cell-mediated (Contact dermatitis) ## Footnote Each type has distinct mechanisms and examples.

Answer 236

Metronidazole ## Footnote Risk factors include travel to Taiwan/Japan, homosexual men, and immunocompromised states.

Answer 237

Acute Cerebellar Ataxia (ACA) ## Footnote It is often post-viral and characterized by a wide-based gait.

Answer 238

* Plasmapheresis * IVIG ## Footnote Steroids are not recommended in the treatment of GBS.

Answer 239

* Decrease Protein C and Antithrombin * Decrease clotting factors * Pro clotting and pro bleeding ## Footnote F VIII and von Willebrand Factor are synthesized by endothelial cells, not the liver.

Answer 240

* Wet: tachycardia, peripheral edema * Dry: weakness, confusion, decreased tendon reflexes ## Footnote Wernicke encephalopathy and Korsakoff syndrome are forms of dry beriberi.

Answer 241

Clock test ## Footnote Dementia diagnosis requires cognitive decline in at least one domain, slow onset, and gradual progression.

Answer 242

* Add medications * Withdrawal from medications * Dementia * Systemic illness ## Footnote Delirium can cause various types of hallucinations.

Answer 243

PO terbinafine x 4 weeks, PO griseofulvin 6 weeks ## Footnote This fungal infection affects hair shafts.

Answer 244

Pruritic bites ## Footnote They do not transmit diseases and do not infest skin.

Answer 245

Factor VIII 50 units ## Footnote 1U/kg increases Factor VIII level by 2%.

Answer 246

Congenital membrane allowing liquid but not solids to pass ## Footnote It can lead to neonatal GERD.

Answer 247

* Sitz baths * Lidocaine gel * Nifedipine gel ## Footnote These treatments help alleviate symptoms.

Answer 248

Crusted and hyperkeratotic plaques or nodules ## Footnote It occurs in immunosuppressed patients and looks like psoriasis.

Answer 249

* Eye steroid drops * PO valcyclovir/acyclovir ## Footnote Hutchinson sign indicates nasociliary branch involvement.

Answer 250

Virus leading to immune response and antibodies to platelets ## Footnote Primary ITP has a 90% recovery rate without treatment.

Answer 251

* Anemia (hemolytic) * Thrombocytopenia * AMS * Fever * Schistocytes on peripheral smear ## Footnote It involves antibodies to ADAMTS13.

Answer 252

* Therapeutic plasma exchange * Steroids * Ø platelets ## Footnote TTP is characterized by anemia, thrombocytopenia, and neurological symptoms.

Answer 253

* Diarrhea * Anemia (hemolytic) * Acute renal failure (ARF) ## Footnote HUS is often associated with Shiga toxin from E. coli 0157:H7.

Answer 254

* Hyponatremia * Hyperkalemia * Hypercalcemia ## Footnote Addison's disease results from primary adrenal insufficiency.

Answer 255

FALSE ## Footnote Type 1 is an exacerbation of an underlying toxic goiter with increased blood flow.

Answer 256

* Nonpitting edema * Buildup of hyaluronic acid in tissues ## Footnote Myxedema coma is a severe form of hypothyroidism.

Answer 257

* Phentolamine ## Footnote Avoid labetalol due to its stronger beta-blocking effects.

Answer 258

* Hyperorality * Wandering * Disinhibited behavior ## Footnote This disorder typically affects younger individuals under 65.

Answer 259

* NS fluids * Bisphosphonates (e.g., zoledronic acid) * Calcitonin ## Footnote Bisphosphonates take 2 days to reach peak effect.

Answer 260

One-time screening by ultrasonography ## Footnote This is a Grade B recommendation by the US Preventive Services Task Force.

Answer 261

* Laryngeal 'rock' sign * Hot potato voice * Better sitting up/tripod position ## Footnote Epiglottitis can lead to airway obstruction.

Answer 262

* Diphtheria antitoxin * Erythromycin ## Footnote Death can occur due to aspiration of the pseudomembrane.

Answer 263

* HSV * HZV * Acute angle glaucoma ## Footnote Unilateral red eye can indicate serious conditions.

Answer 264

* IgE type 1 hypersensitivity * Cobblestone papillae under upper lid * Stringy mucoid discharge ## Footnote This condition is common in children during summer months.

Answer 265

* Intubation * Antibiotics ## Footnote Bacterial tracheitis often follows upper respiratory infections.

Answer 266

* Survival probable * Survival possible * Survival improbable ## Footnote This classification helps in managing patients after radiation exposure.

Answer 267

Chronic pancreatitis ## Footnote This condition can lead to left-sided portal hypertension.

Answer 268

Binds iron in the serum ## Footnote Transferrin is essential for iron transport in the blood.

Answer 269

* Excision if ≤ 720 * Topical lidocaine and Sitz bath if 720+ ## Footnote Excision will not improve pain for larger thrombosed hemorrhoids.

Answer 270

ALL (acute lymphocytic leukemia) ## Footnote This type of leukemia is characterized by the overproduction of immature lymphocytes.

Answer 271

* IVF * Oxygen * Antibiotics * Pain medications * Blood transfusion/exchange transfusion ## Footnote Hydroxyurea is used prophylactically to prevent crises.

Answer 272

* Mycoplasma pneumonia * Chlamydia pneumoniae * Strep pneumonia * H. influenzae * N. meningitidis * Klebsiella pneumonia * E. coli * Salmonella ## Footnote These bacteria are particularly dangerous due to the compromised spleen function in sickle cell patients.

Answer 273

Decreased ## Footnote This is often due to folate deficiency or a post-infectious process.

Answer 274

Low ## Footnote Ferritin is a marker of stored iron in the body.

Answer 275

TRUE ## Footnote Lead interferes with hemoglobin synthesis, leading to microcytic anemia.

Answer 276

Low ## Footnote TIBC (Total Iron Binding Capacity) reflects the body's iron availability.

Answer 277

* Microcytic * Hypochromic ## Footnote This type of anemia is characterized by the presence of ringed sideroblasts in the bone marrow.

Answer 278

Increased ## Footnote LDH (Lactate Dehydrogenase) is released during the breakdown of red blood cells.

Answer 279

Increased ## Footnote Indirect bilirubin is elevated due to increased breakdown of hemoglobin.

Answer 280

Ceftriaxone 500mg IM x1 ## Footnote This treatment is effective for genital infections.

Answer 281

1-3 weeks ## Footnote Many individuals are asymptomatic during this period.

Answer 282

PCN G benzathine 2.4 million units IM x one ## Footnote Treatment should be administered within 24 hours to avoid Jarisch-Herxheimer reaction.

Answer 283

* PR depression with diffuse ST segment elevation * Normal ECG * Diffuse T wave inversion * Normal ECG or permanent T wave inversion ## Footnote The first stage is often associated with viral infections.

Answer 284

Cervical myelopathy ## Footnote A positive Hoffman reflex suggests a lesion above the origin of the brachial plexus.

Answer 285

Fluconazole ## Footnote If treatment fails, consider CMV infection.

Answer 286

< 200 ## Footnote This count signifies severe immunosuppression.

Answer 287

Esmolol ## Footnote This medication helps control blood pressure and heart rate.

Answer 288

Marfan syndrome ## Footnote Marfan syndrome is a connective tissue disorder that increases the risk of aortic dissection.

Answer 289

Distal half of Duodenum ## Footnote This condition can lead to massive upper GI bleeding.

Answer 290

Permethrin cream 5% ## Footnote The cream should be washed off after 8 hours.

Answer 291

Painless vesicular lesions ## Footnote HSV can transmit even without symptoms.

Answer 292

* Metronidazole 500mg bid x 7d * Vag metro gel 0.75% 5G x 5d * Vag clindamycin 2% cream QHS x 7d ## Footnote All symptomatic women should be treated.

Answer 293

Ceftriaxone 500mg IM x1 ## Footnote This is effective for genital ulcers caused by Haemophilus ducreyi.

Answer 294

Corticosteroids ## Footnote This condition typically affects individuals over age 50.

Answer 295

* C-section * Retained products of conception * Premature rupture of membranes * Intrauterine monitoring device * Young maternal age * Frequent vaginal exams ## Footnote These factors increase the likelihood of developing endometritis.

Answer 296

IV fluids and glucose ## Footnote This condition typically occurs after a binge drinking episode.

Answer 297

Chagas disease (Trypanosoma cruzi) ## Footnote This parasitic infection is prevalent in Latin America.

Answer 298

Immunosuppressive therapy ## Footnote This is necessary to manage the cellular response.

Answer 299

Chagas disease (Trypanosoma cruzi) ## Footnote Chagas disease is a significant concern in regions where it is endemic.

Answer 300

* Hypotension * Muffled heart sounds * Jugular venous distension ## Footnote Beck's Triad is associated with cardiac tamponade.

Answer 301

Painful erection lasting > 2 hours ## Footnote Untreated priapism can lead to 35% impotence due to fibrosis in the corpus cavernosum.

Answer 302

* Low-Flow (ischemic) * High-Flow (non-ischemic) ## Footnote Low-Flow is painful and often associated with conditions like sickle cell disease, while High-Flow is non-painful and often due to trauma.

Answer 303

Unsafe conditions, beach closed for swimming ## Footnote Beach flags communicate water safety conditions.

Answer 304

> 10 mm Hg has sensitivity of 82% ## Footnote Pulsus Paradoxus is a clinical sign observed in cardiac tamponade.

Answer 305

Mumps ## Footnote Mumps starts unilateral but can become bilateral in 70% of cases.

Answer 306

Dilute 3% hydrogen peroxide mouth rinses and PO antibiotics for 7-10 days ## Footnote ANUG is characterized by pain, ulcerated interdental papillae, and gingival bleeding.

Answer 307

Submandibular gland (80%) ## Footnote The submandibular gland has the longest duct and lowest saliva flow, leading to stone formation.

Answer 308

LP opening pressure ## Footnote Non-obese patients > 20 cmH20, obese patients > 25 cmH20.

Answer 309

Wash wound with SOAP/H2O then clean with IODINE ## Footnote This is crucial to prevent rabies infection.

Answer 310

~100% mortality (even with treatment) ## Footnote Pulmonary anthrax is the most lethal form of anthrax.

Answer 311

* Patient age > 55 years * Cannot transfer weight from one foot to the next * Cannot flex knee 90 degrees * Patellar tenderness without other bone tenderness * Tenderness in the fibular head ## Footnote These rules help determine the need for knee X-rays.

Answer 312

Brachial artery injury (8%) ## Footnote This injury can lead to significant complications.

Answer 313

Supraspinatus tear ## Footnote Pain is often worse at night and over the greater tuberosity.

Answer 314

Ulnar gutter splint in position of function ## Footnote This is for a 5th metacarpal fracture with ≤ 45˚ angulation.

Answer 315

Syphilis ## Footnote This is the only ulcer that is typically painless.

Answer 316

Ciprofloxacin or doxycycline ## Footnote This disease is caused by Legionella pneumophila and has a 10% mortality rate.

Answer 317

~100% ## Footnote Post exposure prophylaxis includes ciprofloxacin/doxycycline for 60 days.

Answer 318

50% ## Footnote There is no such thing as hematologic anthrax.

Answer 319

* Bubonic * Septicemia * Pneumonic ## Footnote The bubonic form is transmitted via flea bites, while pneumonic plague can be transmitted through droplets.

Answer 320

* Fever * Malaise * Lymphadenopathy * Distal gangrene due to small artery thrombosis ## Footnote This form is also known as the 'black death'.

Answer 321

~100% ## Footnote Symptoms include fever, malaise, and bloody cough.

Answer 322

Neurally Adjusted Ventilatory Assistance ## Footnote It reduces dyssynchrony and uses an esophageal catheter.

Answer 323

6 mL/Kg/IDEAL body weight ## Footnote The respiratory rate should be set to 12.

Answer 324

1:4 ## Footnote This involves low tidal volumes, low respiratory rate, and short inspiratory times.

Answer 325

ARDS ## Footnote Neuromuscular-blocking agents have been associated with decreased mortality in intubated patients with acute respiratory distress syndrome.

Answer 326

Richmond Agitation-Sedation Scale ## Footnote It ranges from -5 (GCS of 3) to +4 (combative).

Answer 327

Hypoxia encephalopathy ## Footnote It accounts for 55% of seizures in neonates.

Answer 328

* Increase breastfeeding * Supplement with formula ## Footnote Early type occurs due to neonatal dehydration, while late type is due to molecules in breast milk.

Answer 329

* Isoniazid * Rifampin * Pyrazinamide * Ethambutol * Rifabutin * Rifapentine ## Footnote These are used for the treatment of Mycobacterium tuberculosis.

Answer 330

6-9 months ## Footnote Tuberculous meningitis requires 9-12 months of therapy.

Answer 331

Clerical error ## Footnote This is the leading cause of transfusion-related complications.

Answer 332

200 ms ## Footnote The PR segment is 120 ms.

Answer 333

* 90% AV nodal artery via R. coronary artery * 10% AV nodal artery via L. circumflex artery ## Footnote This is crucial for understanding cardiac conduction.

Answer 334

IV antibiotics ## Footnote Neonatal sepsis can cause seeding of the kidneys and UTIs.

Answer 335

HR < 60 AND signs of poor perfusion ## Footnote This is prioritized before intubation.

Answer 336

0.1 mg ## Footnote The IV/IO dose is 0.01 mg/kg.

Answer 337

* Prednisone 60 mg q day * 4 antibiotics x 12 months ## Footnote This includes Rifampin, INH, pyrazinamide, and ethambutol.

Answer 338

* INH * Rifampin * Pyrazinamide (only first 2 months) * Ethambutol ## Footnote Ethambutol can cause vision changes.

Answer 339

* Turnips * Vitamin C * Horseradish ## Footnote These foods can interfere with test results.

Answer 340