REMBE Flashcards

(112 cards)

1
Q

Wavelength of short ultraviolet radiation is
A. 700-1500 mu
B. 1600-12,000 mu
C. 0.1-3 mm
D. 180-290 mu

A

D

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2
Q

Wavelength of long ultraviolet radiation
A. 700-1500 mu
B. 290-400 mu
C. 180-290 mu
D. 0.1-3 mm

A

B

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3
Q

What ultraviolet wavelength will produce reticuloendothelial stimulation?
A. 2600-2700 A
B. 2700-3000 A
C. 2900-4000 A
D. 2400-2500 A

A

C

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4
Q

The magnitude of radiation flux at any particular point of the skin depends upon the
A. Cross-sectional diameter of the radiation beam
B. Distance of that point from the radiating element
C. Wavelength of the radiation
D. Source of the radiation

A

B

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5
Q

The major portion of radiation from long infrared is absorbed in the
A. Corium of the skin
B. Subcutaneous layers of the skin
C. Stratum corneum
D. Stratum mucosum

A

C

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6
Q

The major advantage of infrared heat lamp is
A. It filters out harmful ultraviolet radiation
B. Local metabolism is increased
C. Erythemia is produced
D. It emits radiation only(ultraviolet rays)

A

B

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7
Q

The penetration of infrared radiation into skin tissue depends upon
A. Wavelength
B. Intensity of the source
C. Thickness of glass in the heat lamp
D. Wattage of the lamp

A

A

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8
Q

A natural source of infrared radiation is sunlight. Approxiamtely what percentage of average sunlight is infrared radiation as compared to ultraviolet radiation?
A. 40%
B. 50%
C. 60%
D. 70%

A

C

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9
Q

All of the following statements apply to short-wave infrared radiation EXCEPT
A. Luminous infrared
B. Tungsten filament
C. 1500-12,000 mu wavelength range
D. Penetrates as deeply as 10 mm into skin tissue

A

C

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10
Q

The primary effect of radiant energy on tissue is
A. Increase in circulation
B. Reduction of pain
C. Decrease in muscle spasm
D. Thermal

A

D

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11
Q

Mottled appearance on the skin after repeated heat radiation is called
A. Erythema dosage
B. Erythema ad lib
C. Erythema ab igne
D. Erythema pigmentation

A

C

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12
Q

The normal polar formula for a galvanic current is
A. CCC-ACC-COC-AOC
B. CCC-COC-AOC-ACC
C. CCC-ACC-AOC-COC
D. CCC-AOC-ACC-COC

A

C

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13
Q

All of the following take place diring a full or total reaction of degeneration to a muscle following a peripheral nerve injury EXCEPT
A. The longitudinal reaction is positive
B. There is decreased excitability
C. There is no response to faradic stimulation
D. The chronaxie is decreased

A

D

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14
Q

All of the following are ions with a positive charge and may be introduced into tissue with the positive pole of a direct currenT EXCEPT
A. Copper
B. Zinc
C. Histamine
D. Salicylic acid

A

D

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15
Q

In iontophoresis, one should keep the current strength in relation to the size of the electrodes. Approximately what milliamperage of galvanic current may be used as a guide per square inch of electrode surface?
A. 0.5-1
B. 1-2
C. 2-4
D. 2-3

A

A

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16
Q

Compare the use of histamine and mecholyl in common ion transfer by the continuous galvanic current. All of the following apply to mecholyl EXCEPT
A. Produces a more intense local counterirritation
B. Deposited in deeper layers of the skin and is more gradually absorbed
C. Systemic effects occur as a rule and more often
D. Gives best results in joint affectations, peptic ulcer disease, and in varicose ulcers

A

A

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17
Q

For each degree Fahrenheit rise of body temperature, the pulse rate will increase about
A. 2 beats
B. 4 beats
C. 6 beats
D. 10 beats

A

D

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18
Q

An example of the transmission of heat by conduction is
A. Diathermy
B. Hot water bottle
C. Ultrasound
D. Microthermy

A

B

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19
Q

According to the temperature law of van’t Hoff. For every rise of 10 degrees Celsius the rate of oxidation is increased how many times?
A. Once
B. Twice
C. 2.5
D. 3

A

C

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20
Q

The range of the wavelength for. long wave infrared radiation is approximately
A. 4000-8000 mu
B. 4000-8000 A
C. 800-1500 mu
D. 1500-12,000 mu

A

D

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21
Q

Complications that may result from excess ultraviolet radiation are
A. Impetigo
B. Herpes simplex
C. Telangiectasia
D. All of the above

A

D

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22
Q

The galvanic-tetanus ratio of. normal muscle is
A. 10-12 to 1
B. 1 to 1
C. Applicable only to denervated muscle
D. None of the above

A

A

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23
Q

Increase in the chronaxie of a muscle signifies
A. Significant factor
B. Excitability of muscle decrease
C. Intensity
D. Constant current

A

B

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24
Q

The area of the body most sensitive to ultraviolet radiation
A. Face
B. Hands
C. Feet
D. Arms

A

A

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25
Compare the characterisitics of two luminous infrared generators, one of 150 watts and one of 1500 watts intensity. The latter will A. Penetrate deeper into tissue B. Emit radiation ranging from 1500-12,000 mu in wavelength C. Emit short wave infrared radiation D. Be less satisfactory to treat larger areas of the body
C
26
Whether local or general effects result from infrared radiation depends upon A. Wavelength of radiation B. Frequency of radiation C. Intensity of radiation D. Not a factor
C
27
Which of the following apply to the clinical application of ultraviolet radiation? A. Guide of dosage is the erythemal response of the patient B. Standard skin burner distance is 30 inches C. No erythemal dose should be administered until reaction from previous exposures has subsided D. All of the above
D
28
The opposition offered by the electrical conductor to the flow of a current is represented by the A. Ohm B. Volt C. Ampere D. Farad
A
29
Luminous infrared radiation A. Penetrates more deeply into tissues with high wattage B. Has a wavelength range of 1500-12,000 mu C. Has tungsten filaments as a source D. Has a longer wavelength than nonluminous infrared radiation
C
30
Which of the following apply to positive ions? A. Attracted tot the anode B. Produced by ionization of acids C. Attracted to the cathode D. Produces no ionization
C
31
The duration of the faradic impulse is about A. 0.001 of a second B. 1 megasecond C. 0.01 of a second D. Variable
A
32
Electrical stimulation of denervated muscle A. Manintains part of its contractility and nutrition B. Does prevent atrophy C. Will produce an alternating contraction D. Maintains circulation
A
33
When a muscle is in a state of partial reaction of degeneration, it responds to a tetanizing (faradic) current by A. Normal reaction B. Diminished response C. No response D. Brisk contraction
B
34
Qualitative changes in electrical reactions of muscle tissue are A. Sluggish contraction B. Hyperexcitability or hypoexcitability C. Maximal contraction D. A contraction which continues
A
35
The magnetron oscillator is a component of the A. Short-wave diathermy B. Ultrasound generator C. Low-frequency generator D. Microthermy
D
36
Which of the following show the best conductivity of all tissues to an electrical current ? A. Skin B. Tendon C. Bone D. Muscle
D
37
A dielectric substance is A. A device for storing an electrical charge B. A substance which is a good conductor of electricity C. An electrolyte D. An insulating substance allowing electrostatic induction across it
D
38
A full reaction of degeneration indicates which of the following conditions? A. Lower motor neuron lesion B. Upper motor neuron lesion C. Recent CVA D. Long-standing peripheral nerve injury
A
39
Heating in an electromagnetic field A. Produces eddy currents in conductive substances B. Is a so-called current of capacity C. Is less effective in vascular type of tissue D. Is by a conduction current
A
40
High frequency (short wave diathermy) wavelength of 22 meters is A. 27. 12 MHz/second B. 40 MHz/second C. 13. 56 MHz/second D. None of the above
C
41
High frequency (short wave diathermy) wavelength if 11 meters is A. 27. 12 MHz/second B. 40 MHz/second C. 13. 56 MHz/second D. None of the above
A
42
A faradic coil A. Is a device for the production of an induced current B. Contains a primary and a secondary coil C. Produces an induced current less than the original current source D. Contains a step-down transformer as one of its components
B
43
In iontophoresis, ions with a positive charge are introduced into the tissues with the positive pole of the direct current. Which of the following ions have a positive charge? A. Iodine B. Histamine C. Salicylic acid D. Brass
B
44
In stimulating denervated muscle, which of the following factors must be considered? A. Intensity B. Duration C. Frequency D. All of the above
D
45
The counterirritant effect produced by infrared radiation is best explained by A. The increase in venous and arterial capillary pressure B. A desensitization of superficial sensory nerves C. The decrease of stimuli passing over sensory nerves D. The sedative effect produced by mild heating
B
46
The unit of power is represented by the A. Ohm B. Volt C. Ampere D. Watt
D
47
Which of the following changes are known as reaction of degeneration following a peripheral nerve injury? A. Fatty degeneration of the muscle fibers B. Atrophy of muscle cells C. Degeneration of the nerve trunk D. Changes in the electrical reaction of the muscle fibers
D
48
Pigmentation resulting from infrared radiation is A. Homogenous B. Heterogenous C. Mottled D. Dark red, spotted, or forms a network
C
49
Ultrasound causes the greatest rose in temperature in tissues with A. Adipose B. Cartilage C. Tendon D. Protein
D
50
When using ultrasound, cavitation can occur in whoch of the following? A. After laminectomy B. Carotid sinus C. Infected wound D. Plastic implants
A
51
Cavitation from ultrasound in tissue layers can reult from A. Low intensity B. Higher than therapeutic intensity C. Therapeutic intensity D. High intensity
B
52
A patient complaining of a burning pain during ultrasound treatment indicates A. Too much intensity B. Too fast movement of sound head C. Insufficient medium D. Too much medium
C
53
To increase the nerve conduction velocity while using ultrasound, what wattage dovyou use? A. 2 w/cm2 B. 3 w/cm2 C. 1 w/cm2 D. 1.5 w/cm2
B
54
Ultrasound has what effect on membrane permeability? A. No change B. Alternating C. Decrease D. Increase
D
55
Which of the following is an asymmetrical alternating current? A. Square wave DC B. Faradic impulse C. Sine wave D. Static wave
B
56
The conventional TENS usage is based on what theory? A. All or none B. Open gate C. Close gate D. No gate
C
57
All of the following apply to chronaxie EXCEPT A. It is represented by a point on the SD curve B. It is an index to muscle excitability C. It is measured in milliseconds D. It is represented by intensity
D
58
The rheobasic current for denervated muscle is A. Galvanic B. Faradic C. Sine D. Static
A
59
When a motor nerve has been sectioned, the chronaxie A. Decreases B. Disappears C. Remains unaltered for a period of a week to 10 days D. Undergoes a longitudinal reaction
C
60
DuBois-Reymond's law deals with A. Rheobase B. Chronaxie C. Intensity of stimulus D. Make-break law
C
61
Electrotonus causes the nerve irritability to A. Decrease at cathode B. Increase at cathode C. Increase at anode D. No change at anode
B
62
When the human skin absorbs ultraviolet radiation at the 2 mm level, the layer is called A. Stratum granulosum B. Stratum spinosum C. Basal cells D. Stratum cornium
D
63
In ultraviolet radiation, the intensity of radiation varies inversely with the square of the distance from the source. Which laww applies? A. Angulation of Rays law B. Inverse square law C. The law of Grotthus D. DuBois-Reymond's law
B
64
All of the following statements apply to the reinforcing stimulus type sunlight lamps EXCEPT A. Radiation below 2800 A is absorbed by the Corex D glass envelope B. Radiation includes both ultraviolet and infrared C. Produces ultraviolet effectiveness at 24 weeks D. Requires no special electrical fixture
C
65
Electromagnetic induction was discovered by A. Joule B. Isaac Newton C. Galvani D. Faraday
D
66
All of the following apply to a current of electricity EXCEPT A. Heat is produced in all parts of the circuit B. Chemical action is produced by a direct current C. A magnetic needle is deflected when brought near a circuit when the current is flowing D. Very rapid alternating currents produce no chemical effects
D
67
When testing for the polarity of a direct current generator, all of the following statements occur EXCEPT A. The pole which causes the most rapid bubbling is the anode B. The pole which causes the most rapid bubbling is the cathode C. The bubbles consists of hydrogen gas D. The hydrogen ions have positive charge
A
68
All of the following items apply to short wave diathermy dosage EXCEPT A. The heat sensation of the patient is the most effective guide to dosage B. A rapid rise of heating is desirable C. The meter does not register the amount of energy passing to the patient D. The procedure must never cause pain during treatment
B
69
All of the following apply to reaction of degeneration EXCEPT A. The lesion is in the lower motor neuron B. The stage of reaction of degeneration denotes severity of the lesion C. The stage of reaction of degeneration denotes the etiology of the lesion D. It indicates an organic lesion
C
70
In a peripheral nerve lesion, there is no reaction of degeneration. This indicates that recovery will take place in A. 2-4 weeks B. 6-12 weeks C. 6-12 months D. It is a functional condition
A
71
All of the following represent normal chronaxie values for skeletal muscle EXCEPT A. 1/1000 second B. 1 sigma C. 1 millisecond D. 1000 milliseconds
D
72
The principal physical effect of iontophoresis by a direct current is an acid and alkaline reaction. The intensity of these reactions varies with the A. Intensity of the current at each pole B. Relative density of the current at each pole C. Both A and B D. Neither A nor B
C
73
The minimal amount of current necessary to elicit a threshold contraction of muscle is A. Chronaxie B. Rheobase C. Both A and B D. Neither A nor B
B
74
In a strength-duration curve, the variable factors are A. Rheobase B. Waveform C. Both A and B D. Neither A nor B
B
75
There is no response to a faradic stimulation to muscle tissue in A. Partial reaction of degeneration B. Full reaction of degeneration C. Both A and B D. Neither A nor B
B
76
The primary effects of ultraviolet radiation or tissue is A. Photochemical B. Production of vitamin D C. Both A and B D. Neither A nor B
A
77
The clinical effect of mild general body heating is A. Decrease in blood pressure B. Increase in pulse rate C. Both A and B D. Neither A nor B
C
78
In iontophoresis, vasodilating drugs would be used in A. Rheumatic diseases B. Peripheral vascular affections C. Both A and B D. Neither A nor B
C
79
A functional or hysterical paralysis will respond to A. Galvanic current B. Faradic current C. Both A and B D. Neither A nor B
C
80
There is absolutely no response to any current in either nerve or muscle A. Accompanies partial reaction of degeneration B. Accompanies full reaction of degeneration C. Accompanies absolute reaction of degeneration D. Reaction of degeneration is not involved
C
81
There is a decrease in tetanic (faradic) excitability A. Accompanies partial reaction of degeneration B. Accompanies full reaction of degeneration C. Accompanies absolute reaction of degeneration D. Reaction of degeneration is not involved
A
82
The nerve shows a decrease to both galvanic and faradic stimulation A. Accompanies partial reaction of degeneration B. Accompanies full reaction of degeneration C. Accompanies absolute reaction of degeneration D. Reaction of degeneration is not involved
A
83
There is increased galvanic excitability in the muscle A. Accompanies partial reaction of degeneration B. Accompanies full reaction of degeneration C. Accompanies absolute reaction of degeneration D. Reaction of degeneration is not involved
A
84
The muscle responds to galvanic stimulation but the response is slow and sluggish A. Accompanies partial reaction of degeneration B. Accompanies full reaction of degeneration C. Accompanies absolute reaction of degeneration D. Reaction of degeneration is not involved
B
85
There is a brisk single contraction in response to galvanic stimulation A. Accompanies partial reaction of degeneration B. Accompanies full reaction of degeneration C. Accompanies absolute reaction of degeneration D. Reaction of degeneration is not involved
D
86
The stage of reaction to degeneration that lasts 10 days to 2 weeks A. Accompanies partial reaction of degeneration B. Accompanies full reaction of degeneration C. Accompanies absolute reaction of degeneration D. Reaction of degeneration is not involved
A
87
The most unfavorable prognosis A. Accompanies partial reaction of degeneration B. Accompanies full reaction of degeneration C. Accompanies absolute reaction of degeneration D. Reaction of degeneration is not involved
C
88
The nerve shows a decrease to both tetanic (faradic) and galvanic stimulation A. Accompanies partial reaction of degeneration B. Accompanies full reaction of degeneration C. Accompanies absolute reaction of degeneration D. Reaction of degeneration is not involved
A
89
The muscle has been replaced by fibrous connective tissue A. Accompanies partial reaction of degeneration B. Accompanies full reaction of degeneration C. Accompanies absolute reaction of degeneration D. Reaction of degeneration is not involved
C
90
The longitudinal reaction is positive A. Accompanies partial reaction of degeneration B. Accompanies full reaction of degeneration C. Accompanies absolute reaction of degeneration D. Reaction of degeneration is not involved
B
91
There is often an inversion of the polar formula A. Accompanies partial reaction of degeneration B. Accompanies full reaction of degeneration C. Accompanies absolute reaction of degeneration D. Reaction of degeneration is not involved
B
92
Produces a homogenous erythema A. Infrared radiation B. Ultraviolet radiation C. Minimal erythema D. Second-degree erythema
B
93
The erythema produced is intense after 3-4 hours A. Infrared radiation B. Ultraviolet radiation C. Minimal erythema D. Second-degree erythema
B
94
The erythema may persist for as long as an hour A. Infrared radiation B. Ultraviolet radiation C. Minimal erythema D. Second-degree erythema
A
95
Produces an erythema within 6-8 hours A. Infrared radiation B. Ultraviolet radiation C. Minimal erythema D. Second-degree erythema
C
96
Produces an erythema ab igne A. Infrared radiation B. Ultraviolet radiation C. Minimal erythema D. Second-degree erythema
A
97
Produces an erythema which subsides in 2 days A. Infrared radiation B. Ultraviolet radiation C. Minimal erythema D. Second-degree erythema
D
98
Stimulates local circulation A. Infrared radiation B. Ultraviolet radiation C. Minimal erythema D. Second-degree erythema
A
99
Duration of erythema persists for 24-26 hours A. Infrared radiation B. Ultraviolet radiation C. Minimal erythema D. Second-degree erythema
C
100
The flow of electrons continues unchanged in the same direction A. Direct current B. Alternating current C. Joule's law
A
101
Currents capable of exerting a chemical action when flowing through a conductor A. Direct current B. Alternating current C. Joule's law
A
102
The flow of electrons changes periodically A. Direct current B. Alternating current C. Joule's law
B
103
Heat produced is proportional to the square of current strength A. Direct current B. Alternating current C. Joule's law
C
104
The hotter the source, the shorter the wavelength A. Luminous infrared radiation B. Nonluminous infrared radiation C. Both D. Neither
A
105
Emitted by low temperature bodies A. Luminous infrared radiation B. Nonluminous infrared radiation C. Both D. Neither
B
106
Long wave infrared A. Luminous infrared radiation B. Nonluminous infrared radiation C. Both D. Neither
B
107
Penetrate to 10 mm of skin tissue A. Luminous infrared radiation B. Nonluminous infrared radiation C. Both D. Neither
A
108
Requires a source of higher energy input A. Luminous infrared radiation B. Nonluminous infrared radiation C. Both D. Neither
A
109
A current with less than 1000 cycles/second A. Low frequency current B. High frequency current C. Both D. Neither
A
110
A current with a frequency greater than 100,000 cycles/second A. Low frequency current B. High frequency current C. Both D. Neither
B
111
Currents are attended by tetanic contraction A. Low frequency current B. High frequency current C. Both D. Neither
A
112
Tetanic contractors are not set up by currents A. Low frequency current B. High frequency current C. Both D. Neither
B