1
Q
What is the main function of the kidneys?
A
Maintain homeostasis –> regulate acid/base balance
2
Q
What is the acronym for the function of the kidneys?
A
A WET BED
3
Q
What does A WET BED stand for?
A
A = Acid Base Balance
W = Water removal
E = Erythropoiesis
T = Toxin removal
B = Blood pressure control
E = Electrolyte balance (K+)
D = Vit D Activation
4
Q
When is BUN elevated?
A
1) Kidney injury/disease
2) Meds
3) High protein diet
4) Tissue damage
5) Age
6) Urinary tract obstruction
7) Dehydration
5
Q
What are normal BUN levels?
A
6-20 mg/dL
6
Q
What does BUN measure?
A
Protein metabolism (liver) results in urea (waste product)
7
Q
How does a decreased GFR affect BUN?
A
Decreased GFR = Elevated BUN
8
Q
What does creatinine measure?
A
Muscle/cellular metabolism results in creatinine (waste product)
9
Q
When is creatinine elevated?
A
1) Kidney injury/disease
2) Decreased renal blood flow
3) Urinary tract obstruction
4) Dehydration
5) Muscle injury
10
Q
True or False:
Diet and normal physical activity effect creatinine levels
A
False- creatinine is not affected by these
11
Q
What are normal creatinine levels?
A
0.6 - 1.3 mg/dL
12
Q
Name the hormone:
Secreted by the kidneys to help develop or release RBCs
A
Erythropoietin
13
Q
Name the hormone/chemical control for the kidneys:
Helps exhibit vasodilation on kidneys, usually produces atrial stretch
A
Atrial Natriuretic Peptide (ANP)
14
Q
Why is the right kidney lower than the left?
A
Because of the liver
15
Q
Name the structure of the kidney:
Tough, fibrous layer that helps attach the kidney to the abdominal wall –> protects kidney from trauma
A
Renal fascia
16
Q
What hormones are the adrenal glands responsible for releasing?
A
Epi & norepi
17
Q
What is the functional unit of the kidney?
A
Nephron
18
Q
What does GFR measure?
A
How much the glomerulus is filtering
19
Q
What does the renal cortex contain?
A
1) Glomerulus
2) Bowman’s capsule
3) Proximal tubule
4) Distal tubule
20
Q
What does the renal medulla contain?
A
1) Loop of Henle
2) Collecting duct/tubule
21
Q
What passes through Bowman’s Capsule?
A
1) Water
2) Glucose
3) Amino acids
4) Minerals (Salt)
5) Small proteins
6) Urea
22
Q
What does not pass through Bowman’s Capsule?
A
1) Blood cells
2) Platelets
3) Large plasma proteins
23
Q
What is reabsorbed back into the bloodstream via the proximal convoluted tubule?
A
1) K+
2) NaCl
3) Water
24
Q
What is secreted in the proximal convoluted tubule?
A
1) Hydrogen ions
2) Urea (ammonia)
25
What does the ascending loop of Henle do?
1) Water conservation --> back to bloodstream
2) Excrete small amounts of Na+ & urea
26
What happens in the ascending loop of Henle?
1) Chloride ions are reabsorbed into bloodstream
2) 25% of Na+ is passively reabsorbed
27
What is the main function of the loop of Henle?
Concentrate the filtrate
28
What final regulations happen at the distal convoluted tubule?
1) Water balance
2) Acid/base balance
29
True or False:
ADH & Aldosterone work at the DCT
True
30
What does ADH do at the DCT?
Makes the DCT permeable to water
31
What does aldosterone do at the DCT?
Tells DCT to reabsorb Na+ in exchange for K+ --> water follows
32
What is the goal of the DCT?
Maintain pH of the ECF between 7.35-7.45
33
What is reabsorbed and secreted at the DCT?
HCO3 is reabsorbed, extra H+ is secreted
34
What is a normal GFR?
125 mL/min
35
Big Picture:
What do the tubules do?
Returns needed substances to the blood while removing waste
36
What is the normal blood flow rate through the kidneys?
1000 - 1200 mL/min (6-700 is plasma)
37
Name the structure:
1) Storage for urine
2) Smooth muscle
Bladder
38
Name the structure:
1) Smooth muscle
2) Perstaltic one-way flow of urine
3) Surrounded by sympathetic and parasympathetic nerves
Ureters
39
Where is ADH made?
Hypothalamus
40
Where is ADH released from?
Posterior pituitary galnd
41
What inhibits ADH?
Osmo-receptors telling the post-pit to stop secreting ADH
42
What is required for water reabsorption?
ADH
43
Where is aldosterone made and released from?
Adrenal cortex
44
What does aldosterone do?
1) Tells DCT to reabsorb sodium and water
2) Excretes K+
45
What is aldosterone influenced by?
Circulating blood volume and plasma concentration of Na+ and K+
46
Where is ANP excreted from/in response to what?
Myocytes in RA in response to distention
47
What does ANP do?
1) Acts on kidneys to increase Na+ excretion
2) Inhibits renin, ADH & angiotensin II
3) Relaxes afferent arteriole to increase GFR
48
How does a decrease in ADH affect urine?
Increase UO
49
What do kidneys NOT like?
1) Too much sugar
2) Getting beat up
3) Being ignored
4) Being poisoned
5) Urine backing up
50
What is the recommended daily Na+ intake?
< 2300 mg
51
What % of daily calories can be from added sugars to promote healthy kidneys?
< 10 %
52
What can glomerulonephritis lead to?
Glomerulosclerosis
53
What is the acute cause of glomerulonephritis?
Infections --> Post-strep glomerulonephritis
54
What does scarring result from that can lead to glomerulonephritis?
1) Diabetic neuropathy
2) HTN
55
What immune diseases may cause glomerulonephritis?
1) Scleroderma
2) Systemic Lupus
56
How long after having a strep infection does glomerulonephritis occur?
1-6 weeks
57
What is the causative agent of Acute post-streptococcal glomerulonephritis
Group A B-hemolytic streptococci
58
Although unknown, what is the interpretation of patho of acute post-strep glomerulonephritis?
Antigen/antibody complexes deposited in the glomeruli causes inflammation
59
What are the S&S of APSGN?
1) Edema --> periorbital (early), ascites & peripheral (later)
2) Urine changes --> proteinuria, oliguria, hematuria (or smoky urine, early indication)
3) Flank/abdominal pain
60
What would be the lab findings of someone with APSGN?
-UA
-BUN/Creatinine
-Anti-streptolysin-O titers
-Renal biopsy
1) UA --> erythrocytes/casts, proteinuria, hematuria
2) BUN/Creatinine --> Elevated
3) Titers --> show strep infection
4) Renal biopsy --> confirms
61
What is a syndrome of permanent and progressive renal fibrosis (insidious development (slow & progressive))?
Chronic glomerulonephritis
62
What can chronic glomerulonephritis lead to?
ESRD
63
What are S&S of chronic glomerulonephritis?
1) Proteinuria
2) Hematuria
3) U/A with RBCs, WBCs, casts
4) Elevated BUN/Creatinine
5) Fatigue
6) Edema
7) HTN
64
What are you looking for as a nurse when doing an H&P of someone who could have chronic glomerulonephritis?
1) Drug exposure
2) Infections
3) DM
4) Immune disorders (Lupus)
65
What basement membranes do the antibodies attack in anti-glomerular basement membrane disease?
1) Glomerulus
2) Alveolar
66
What are the S&S of anti-glomerular basement membrane disease?
1) Flu-like (cough, mild SOB, hemoptysis, crackles)
2) Hematuria (coming from glomerulus)
3) Weakness
4) Pallor
5) Anemia
6) Pulmonary hemorrhage
67
How do you manage anti-glomerular basement membrane disease?
1) Corticosteroids
2) Immunosuppresants
3) Plasmapheresis
4) Dialysis
5) Encourage smoking cessation
68
True or False:
You should tx a pt with anti-glomerular basement membrane disease as a critically ill pt with aggressive pulmonary and renal management
True
69
Name the disease:
1) Rapid loss of kidney function
2) Glomerular crescent formation (associated with GBM, Lupus, infection)
Rapidly progressive glomerulonephritis
70
What are S&S of rapidly progressive glomerulonephritis?
1) HTN
2) Edema
3) Hematuria
4) Reduced urine output
71
How do you tx the inflammatory injury caused by rapidly progressive glomerulonephritis?
1) Corticosteroids
2) Cyclophophamide (immunosuppressant)
72
How do you tx the fluid overload and uremia caused by rapidly progressive glomerulonephritis?
Dialysis
73
How do you tx rapidly progressive glomerulonephritis?
1) Tx inflammatory injury
2) Dialysis
3) Transplant
74
Name the disease:
When the glomerulus is excessively permeable to plasma protein
Nephrotic syndrome
75
Name the obstructive disorder:
1) Damage occurs above the level of the obstruction, depending on location, duration, and presence of urinary stasis or infection
2) Focuses on upper tract
Obstructive iropathies
76
What is the name for kidney stones?
Renal calculi/nephrolithiasis
77
What factors contribute to nephrolithiasis?
1) Urinary pH
2) Solute load
3) Urine inhibitors
4) Urinary stasis
5) Bacteria
6) Genetics
7) High protein diet & dehydration
78
True or False:
Men are more likely to have urinary stones, except for struvite
True
79
True or False:
Women are more likely to have struvite stones associated with UTI
True
80
What are S&S of renal calculi/nephrolithiasis?
1) Sudden onset pain (flank, back, lower abdomen, groin)
2) N/v
3) Cool, moist, pale skin
4) Can't sit still
81
What are the diagnostic tests for nephrolithiasis?
1) UA
2) Non-contrast CT
3) US
82
What can you give to manage the pain in pts with nephrolithiasis?
1) Opioids & NSAIDs
2) IVF
3) Alpha-adrenergic blockers --> tamsulosin or terazosin
4) Acetohydroxamic acid
83
What do you have to check for first if giving opioids & NSAIDs in a pts with nephrolithiasis?
Renal function
84
What size kidney stones may pass spontaneously?
85
What does acetohydroxamic acid tx in pts with nephrolithiasis?
UTIs & lowers ammonia levels in urine --> can prevent future stones
86
How can you determine causes of a kidney stone?
Stone composition
87
What interventions/teaching are needed for a pt with nephrolithiasis?
1) Hydration
2) Decreased dietary Na+
3) Diet changes
4) meds
5) Tx UTIs
88
What medications may cause kidney stones?
1) Allopurinol (GOUT)
2) Analgesics
3) Loop/thiazide diuretics
89
What does a nurse need to assess for in a pt with nephrolithiasis?
1) Recent/chronic UTI
2) Immobilization
3) Hx of stones
4) Urinary stasis
5) GOUT
6) BPH
7) Hyperparathyroidism
8) External urinary diversion
9) Long-term indwelling catheter
90
What post-procedural education is required for someone after having procedural interventions for a kidney stone?
1) Hematuria that susbsides to smoky urine
2) May have colicky pain
3) May have stent placed
4) Encourage fluids
5) Return to normal activites 1-2 days pot-op
6) Strain urine to catch any stones
91
What teaching is needed post-lithiasis?
1) Fluid intake --> 3 L/day
2) Limit consumption of cola, coffee, and tea
3) Low Na+ diet
4) Encourage ambulation
92
Name the type of interruption of blood flow:
1) Sclerosis of small arteries and arterioles of the kidney
2) Age-related changes
3) May be hypertensive
4) Malignant disease associated w/ high BP (>/= 180 SBP)
Nephrosclerosis
93
True or False:
Malignant nephrosclerosis is a med emergency b/c kidney is not getting blood
Trie
94
Name the type of bloodflow interruption:
1) Partial occlusion of one or both renal arteries and branches
2) S&S --> sudden development of HTN
3) Mngmt --> surgical revascularization
Renal artery stenosis
95
Name the type of interruption of blood flow:
1) Caused by trauma, tumor, cancer, pregnancy
2) S&S --> flank pain, hematuria, fever
3) Management --> thrombectomy
Renal vein thrombosis
96
What are the dx tests for renal artery stenosis?
1) Doppler US
2) CT
3) MRI angiography
4) Renal arteriogram
97
What is the most common type of kidney cancer?
Renal cell carcinoma
98
What are the RFs of renal cell carcinoma?
1) Smoking
2) Obesity
3) HTN
4) Chemical exposures
99
What are the S&S of kidney cancer?
1) Early --> none
2) Hematuria
3) Flank pain
4) Palpable mass
Vague S&S --> wt loss, fever, HTN
100
What are the dx studies of kidney cancer?
1) CT
2) US
3) Angiography/biopsy
4) MRI
101
True or False:
Chemo is considered palliative tx in renal cancer
False --> radiation is considered palliative
102
What are the txs for renal cancer?
1) Partial or radical nephrectomy
2) Cryoablation
3) Radiofrequency solution
4) Immunotherapy/targeted therapy
*** Most are resistant to chemo
103
What are S&S of bladder cancer?
1) Hematuria
2) Bladder irritability
3) Dysuria
4) Frequency & urgency
104
What are RFs of bladder cancer?
1) Smoking
2) Chemical/dye exposures
3) Indwelling catheter hx
4) Cyclophosphamide use
5) Reccurent stones
6) Chronic lower UTIs
105
What are the dx tests for bladder cancer?
1) UA
2) CT
3) US
4) Cytoscopy w/ biopsy
106
How long is intravesical therapy done for those with bladder cancer?
6-12 weeks
107
What are the types of urinary diversions?
1) Ureterostomy
2) Nephrostomy
3) Incontinent/Continent urinary diversions
4) Orthotopic bladder reconstruction
108
Name the type of urinary diversion:
1) Diversion to skin
2) Ileal conduit --> uses portion of ileum to transition ureters to an outer stoma
3) Requires an external collection device (continuous drainage)
Incontinent urinary diversions
109
Name the type of urinary diversion:
Ureters brought to abdominal wall and stoma created
Ureterostomy
110
Name the type of urinary diversion:
External catheter insertion (percutaneously) into the renal pelvis
Nephrostomy
111
Name the type of urinary diversion:
1) Creation of surgically-created internal pouch
2) Need to self-cath
Ex: intra-abdominal urinary reservoir
Continent urinary diversions
112
Name the type of urinary diversion:
1) Creation of a new bladder using intestinal segments
2) Low pressure reservoir
3) Uses the ureters & urethra
4) Orthotopic neobladder
Orthotopic Bladder Reconstruction
113
What do pts need to get a urinary diversion?
Functioning bladder neck and urethra
114
Who are not ideal candidates for urinary diversions?
Those with inflammatory bowel disease
115
True or False:
Those with a urinary diversion are not able to be sexually active
False --> they still can be
116
What is an important assessment in the post-op period of a urinary diversion?
Paralytic ileus --> observe for return of bowel function
117
Name the disease:
Partial or complete impairment of kidney function
-Can't filter/excrete metabolic wastes
-Inability to maintain f/e balance
Renal Failure
118
What are the 2 types of kidney failure?
1) Acute Kidney Injury
2) Chronic Kidney Disease
119
Between AKI & CKD -- which one is reversible, and which is not?
AKI is potentially reversible, CKD is not
120
What is usually the best indicator in AKI?
Rise is serum creatine
(may see decreased UO too)
121
True or False:
AKI is usually a precipitating event
True
122
What are pre-renal causes of AKI (above the kidney)?
1) Decreased CO
2) Decreased peripheral vascular resistance
3) Decreased renovascular flow
4) Hypovolemia
123
What are intrarenal causes of AKI?
1) Acute pyelonephritis
2) Contrast media
3) Malignant HTN
124
What are post renal causes of AKI?
1) BPH
2) Bladder/Prostate CA
3) Stones
4) Neuromuscular disorders
5) Strictures
6) Spinal cord disease
7) Trauma
125
What is the most common intra-renal cause of AKI?
Acute tubular necrosis
126
What are RFs for developing Acute Tubular Necrosis?
1) Major surgery
2) Shock
3) Blood transfusion rxn
4) Muscle injury from trauma (myoglobinemia)
5) Prolonged hypotension
6) Nephrotoxic agents
127
Name the disease:
Tubular dysfunction and obstruction r/t basement membrane damage
Acute Tubular Necrosis
128
What does RIFLE stand for r/t AKI classification?
Risk -- Injury -- Failure -- Loss -- End Stage Renal Disease
129
What are comorbid conditions of AKI?
1) HTN
2) DM
3) CAD
4) Resp issues
5) Existing kidney dysfunction
130
What medications put a pt at risk for AKI?
1) OTC NSAIDs
2) Oral hypoglycemics (metformin)
131
Is pre, intra, or post renal causes worse?
Intra --> direct damage to renal parenchyma or tubules, so longer course of AKI
132
True or False:
Pre and post renal causes of AKI can be quickly resolved with tx
True
133
What is the 1st phase of AKI?
Oliguric
134
How much UO is considered the oliguric phase of AKI?
< 400 mL/day
135
What do you have to look at if a pt with AKI presents as non-oliguric?
BUN/Creatinine
136
What would urine look like if pt w/ AKI was presenting as non-oliguric?
Urine would be dilute
137
True or False:
AKI pts cannot concentrate urine, so urine osmolality is about 300 mOsm/kg
True
138
What are S&S of AKI?
1) Fluid retention
2) Metabolic acidosis
3) Increased Na+ excretion
4) K+ excess
5) Hospital-acquired AKI
6) Increased BUN/creatinine
7) Neuro disorders
139
What happens during the diuretic phase of AKI?
Kidneys excrete waste, but cannot concentrate urine
**Can last 1-3 weeks
140
What do you need to watch for during the diuretic phase of AKI?
1) Hypovolemia & hypotension
2) Hyponatremia, hypokalemia
141
How long pre and post renal diagnostics with contrast does metformin need to be held for?
48 hrs pre & post contrast
**Can cause lactic acidosis
142
True or False:
If AKI is not already established, you can give loop or osmotic diuretics
True
143
What are indications for dialysis?
1) Fluid overload
2) Elevated K+
3) Metabolic acidosis
4) BUN > 120 mg/dL
5) Altered mental status
6) Pericarditis, effusion, or cardiac tamponade
144
How do you calculate fluid restriction for a pt with AKI?
Previous output from previous 24 hrs + 600 mL for insensible losses
145
What are S&S of hyperkalemia in AKI?
1) Peaked T waves
2) Widened QRS complex
3) ST segment depression
146
What is the acronym for emergent meds given for hyperkalemia in AKI?
C- BIG K drop
147
What meds can lower K+
Kayexalate & SZC
148
What does C-BIG K drop stand for for hyperkalemia in AKI?
1) Calcium gluconate
2) Bicarbonate (Na+)
3) Insulin
4) Glucose
HMs: Kayexelate & diuretic/dialysis
149
Name the hyperkalemia med:
1) Raises the threshold for dysrhythmias
2) Given IV
Calcium gluconate
150
Name the hyperkalemia med:
1) Corrects acidosis & causes transient shift of K+ back into cells
2) Given IV
Bicarbonate (sodium)
151
What does insulin do for hyperkalemia in AKI?
Causes a transient shift of K+ back into cells
152
What does glucose do for hyperkalemia in AKI?
Counteracts the insulin to prevent hypoglycemia
153
When is C-BIG K drop used?
In emergencies to stabilize the pt until they can be dialyzed (in hyperkalemia in AKI)
154
What are RFs of CKD?
1) DM*
2) HTN**
3) Glomerulonephritis
4) Cystic disease
5) Urologic diseases
155
What is a diagnostic GFR for CKD?
< 60 mL/min for > 3 months
156
True or False:
AKI is more common that CKD
False-- CKD is more common
157
True or False:
CKD is typically not recognized until there is a significant loss of functioning nephrons
True
158
What are the urinary system S&S of CKD?
1) Polyuria r/t DM (clear)
2) Gradual decreased UO
159
What are the metabolic changes of CKD?
1) Increased BUN/Creatinine
2) Altered carb metabolism
3) Elevated triglycerides
160
Whar are the electrolyte and acid-base imbalances of CKD?
1) Hyperkalemia
2) Variable Na+ levels
3) Ca+ & phosphate changes
4) Can't excrete Mg+
5) Metabolic acidosis --> can't reabsorb HCO3
161
What are the hematologic changes of CKD?
1) Anemia --> r/t erythropoietin production
2) Bleeding tendencies
3) infections
162
What are the CV system S&S of CKD?
1) CVD
2) HTN
163
What are the resp system S&S of CKD?
1) Kussmaul breathing r/t acidosis or fluid overload
2) Pulmonary edema
164
What are the GI system S&S of CKD?
1) Uremic fetor
2) Anorexia, N/V
3) Diabetic gastroparesis
4) GI bleeding
5) Constipation
165
What are the neuro system S&S of CKD?
1) Lethargy, apathy, fatigue
2) Peripheral neuropathy
3) Paresthesias, restless leg syndrome
4) Muscle twitching, asterixis
166
What are the musculoskeletal system S&S of CKD?
1) CKD mineral and bone disorders
2) Demineralization of bones
3) Lack of vitamin D conversion
4) Development of intravascular calcifications
167
What are the skin S&S of CKD?
Pruritis (dry, itchy)
168
What are the reproductive system S&S of CKD?
1) Decreased levels of estrogen, progesterone, and LH
2) Decreased testosterone
3) Fatigue, decreased libido
169
What dx test may need to be done for a difinitive dx of CKD?
Renal biopsy
170
True or False:
A dietician referral is a must for those with CKD
True
171
Do people on dialysis need to restrict their protein intake?
No
172
Why do people with CKD need to avoid high protein?
It is harder to filter byproduct of protein breakdown (urea)
173
Should protein intake be increased or decreased for those on peritoneal dialysis
Increased
174
How many grams of sodium should pts with CKD have per day?
2-4 g/day
175
What type of dialysis requires K+ restriction?
Hemodialysis
176
How much phosphate should someone with CKD have per day?
1 g/day --> NEED PHOSPHATE BINDER
177
What is the expected wt gain between dialysis runs?
1-3 kg (no more than this)
178
What are RFs of CKD?
1) DM
2) HTN
3) Family hx
4) Repeated UTIs
179
How do you monitor for glycemic control in DM?
A1C
180
What is dialysis?
Movement of fluid and molevules across a semi-permeable membrane
181
How does dialysis work in the case of ESRD?
Fluid and molecules move from body to dialysate solution
182
What is dialysis used to correct?
1) F/e balance
2) Remove waste products
3) Tx drug overdoses
183
What are the 2 types of dialysis?
Peritoneal & Hemodialysis
184
What is an alternative to intermittent dialysis?
CRRT --> Continuous renal repalcement therapy
185
Name the vocab:
Solute molecules move from high to low concentration
Diffusion
186
Name the vocab:
Solvent molecules move from low to high solute concentration
Osmosis
187
What type of dialysis requires strict aseptic technique?
Peritoneal
188
What does the vasculature of the gut come in contact with in peritoneal dialysis?
Dialysate fluid
189
How many liters of dialysis solution are infused into the peritoneal space in PD? (inflow)
1-2 L
190
How long can dialysis solution remain in the peritoneal space for (dwell)?
30 mins to 4/5 hrs
191
What happens during the outflow of PD?
Dialysate is drained
192
True or False:
Dialysate solution is similar to a glucose solution
True
193
What is the main comp of peritoneal dialysis?
Peritonitis
**Repeated peritonitis = PROBLEM
194
What are comps of PD?
1) Peritonitis
2) Exit site infection
3) Hernias
4) Lower back problems
5) Abdominal pain
6) Bleeding
7) Pulmonary comps
8) Outflow problems
9) Protein loss
10) Hyperglycemia
195
Name the comp of PD:
1) Contamination of an exit site
2) Contamination of connections
3) Strict aseptic technique is essential
Peritonitis
196
What are S&S of peritonitis?
1) Abdominal pain
2) Rebound tenderness
3) Cloudy peritoneal outflow (high WBC count) --> normally should be clear
4) GI --> diarrhea, vomiting, abdominal distention
5) Fever
197
True or False:
Any vessel can be used for hemodialysis
False --> a large vessel with rapid blood flow is required
198
Where are temporary sites for HD?
1) External jugular or femoral
2) Subclavian
199
Where are permanent sites for HD?
1) AV fistula
2) AV graft
3) Long-term subclavian access = last resort
200
What will you hear upon auscultation if someone has HD?
Bruit
201
True or False:
Temporary access for HD needs to be heparinized
True
202
Name the treatment:
1) Artificial semipermeable membrane
2) Blood flows through fiber (pulled from arterial side)
3) Ultrafiltration, osmosis, diffusion occurs to dialysate
4) Blood collects at end and is returned to pt via venous side
Hemodialysis
203
What are comps of HD?
1) HypoTN
2) Muscle cramps
3) Blood loss --> dialyzer "rinse", anticoag
4) Hep B & C (from repeated sticks)
5) Machine-dependent
6) Depression & detachment
7) Non-adherence
204
What alternative method of tx AKI is done for hemodynamically unstable pts?
CRRT
205
How frequently does the hemofilter need to be changed in CRRT?
every 24-48 hrs
206
What are the contraindications of a kidney transplant?
1) Advanced CA
2) Refractory or untx heart disease
3) Chronic resp failure
4) Extensive vascular disease
5) Chronic infection
6) Non-adherence
207
In a kidney transplant, which arteries can become the renal artery?
Internal or external iliac artery
208
Where is the ureter anastomosed to in a kidney transplant?
The bladder
209
How frequently do I & Os need to be assessed in the ICU post-op of a kidney transplant?
Hourly
210
What are comps of a kidney transplant?
1) Rejection
2) Infection
3) CVD
4) CA
5) Recurrence of renal disease
6) Aseptic necrosis of hips, knees, and other joints (r/t corticosteroid use)
NUR 408
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