MRCP - Part 2 > Resp > Flashcards

Resp Flashcards

(124 cards)

Study These Flashcards
1
Q

COPD - still breathless despite using SABA/SAMA and asthma/steroid responsive features

Next step?

A

Add LABA + ICS

eg salmeterol + fluticasone

If that doesnt work:
Triple therapy - LAMA, LABA and ICS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Mx of cystic fibrosis and diabetes?

A

High calorie diet with basal bolus insulin

CF patients need high calorie inc high fat diet

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What lung disorder increases risk of TB infection?

A

Silicosis as silica is toxic to macrophages

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

When can Orkambi be used in CF?

A

Lumacaftor/Ivacaftor (Orkambi) can be used to treat cystic fibrosis patients who are homozygous for the delta F508 mutation

improves pulmonary function, increase weight and decrease pulmonary exacerbations

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Describe lung function tests in obstructive and restrictive airways disease with examples

A

Obstructive lung disease (e.g. COPD, asthma):
- FEV1: Reduced due to airflow limitation.
- FVC: Normal or slightly reduced.
- FEV1/FVC ratio: Reduced (<0.7), hallmark of obstruction.
- TLC (total lung capacity): Normal or increased due to air trapping/hyperinflation.
- Gas transfer (DLCO): May be reduced in emphysema; normal in asthma.

Restrictive lung disease (e.g. asbestosis, pulmonary fibrosis):
- FEV1: Reduced proportionally to FVC.
- FVC: Reduced due to decreased lung volumes.
- FEV1/FVC ratio: Normal or increased (>0.7) because both FEV1 and FVC fall.
- TLC: Reduced, reflecting restricted lung expansion.
- Gas transfer (DLCO): Usually reduced due to interstitial involvement impairing gas exchange.

Summary: obstructive diseases show a low FEV1/FVC ratio with preserved or increased TLC, while restrictive diseases show a normal/high FEV1/FVC ratio with reduced TLC and impaired gas transfer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What is a common resp complication of TIPS for treatment of portal HTN?

A

Pulomary HTN, this is because it increases cardiac preload by diverting blod past liver hence reducing peripheral resistance

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What is the Berlin criteria for ARDS?

A

acute onset (within 1 week of a known risk factor)

pulmonary oedema: bilateral infiltrates on chest x-ray (‘not fully explained by effusions, lobar/lung collapse or nodules)

non-cardiogenic (pulmonary artery wedge pressure needed if doubt)

pO2/FiO2 < 40kPa (300 mmHg)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Which drugs can cause pleural effusion?

A

nitrofurantoin, methotrexate, and amiodarone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What can be used in asthma with high eosinophils?

A

Mepolizumab - anti-IL5 monoclonal antibody, binds to IL5 and prevents it from binding to its receptor -> down-regulation of eosinophil activity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What paraneoplastic features are associated with Lung Ca - Small cell?

A

ADH

ACTH - not typical, hypertension, hyperglycaemia, hypokalaemia, alkalosis and muscle weakness are more common than buffalo hump etc

Lambert-Eaton syndrome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What paraneoplastic features are associated with Lung Ca - squamous cell?

A

parathyroid hormone-related protein (PTH-rp) secretion causing hypercalcaemia

clubbing

hypertrophic pulmonary osteoarthropathy (HPOA)

hyperthyroidism due to ectopic TSH

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What paraneoplastic features are associated with Lung Ca - adenocarcinoma?

A

gynaecomastia
hypertrophic pulmonary osteoarthropathy (HPOA)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Who is more susceptible to Klebsiella pneumonia?

A

Alcoholic and Diabetics

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Redcurrant jelly sputum is suggestive of what pneumonia?

A

Klebsiella

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Causes of upper lob fibrosis?

A

CHARTS
C - Coal worker’s pneumoconiosis
H - Histiocytosis/ hypersensitivity pneumonitis
A - Ankylosing spondylitis
R - Radiation
T - Tuberculosis
S - Silicosis/sarcoidosis

Crypto going up on the charts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Causes of lower zone fibrosis?

A

ACID

A- Asbestosis
C- Connective tissue disorders (except ankylosing spondylitis) e.g. SLE, RA
I- Idiopathic pulmonary fibrosis
D- Drug-induced: amiodarone, bleomycin, methotrexate

Acids wreck bases

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Mississippi and Ohio River valleys travel hx

dry cough, retrosternal discomfort, fever and chest x-ray evidence of multifocal pneumonia

Dx? mx?

A

Histoplasmosis

Mx: Amphotericin or itraconazole if immunocompromised, supportive if immunocompetent

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What is a possible complication of high pressure NIV?

A

Pneumothorax

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What complication can develop after a pneumonia?

A

Pulmonary fibrosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Worsening asthma in combination with sinusitis

Polyneuropathy + eosinophilia + pulmonary infiltrates suggests what dx? Serology?

A

Eosinophilic granulomatosis with polyangiitis (EGPA) aka Churg-Strauss syndrome - positive pANCA serology

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Drug mx of idiopathic lung fibrosis?

A

Pirfenidone and nintedanib can be used as drug management options in idiopathic pulmonary fibrosis as they may decrease the functional decline, prolong survival and potentially reduce acute exacerbations

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Patient with acute asthma who do not respond to full medical treatment

Next step?

A

Patient with acute asthma who do not respond to full medical treatment and are becoming acidotic should be intubated and ventilated, rather than given BiPAP/CPAP

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What is Lofgrens syndrome?

A

Acute form sarcoidosis characterised by bilateral hilar lymphadenopathy (BHL), erythema nodosum, fever and polyarthralgia.

Mx = Pred, prognosis is excellent

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Acute mx of granulomatosis w polyangiitis?

A

Urgent immunosuppression - IV Methylpred + cyclophsphamide in acutely unwell

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
What is Lupus pernio and when is it seen and how is it mx?
Sarcoidosis, violaceous indurated plaques on nose → lupus pernio → marker of systemic disease and need for systemic therapy Oral steroids
26
COPD severity monitoring?
FEV1% of predicted
27
Causes of decreased DLCO?
Restrictive lung disease - Idiopathic pulmonary fibrosis - Occupational lung disease - Hypersensitivity pneumonitis - Miliary tuberculosis - Pneumonectomy Obstructive lung disease - Cystic fibrosis - Emphysema Other causes - Chronic pulmonary embolism - Congestive heart failure - Primary pulmonary hypertension
28
Causes of increased DLCO?
Pulmonary haemorrhage Polycythaemia Left to right cardiac shunting
29
When to consider granulomatosis with polyangiitis?
when a patient presents with ENT, respiratory and kidney involvement
30
When are chylothorax and pseudochylothorax seen?
Chylothorax - Accumulation of lymph in the pleural space. This can occur following damage to the thoracic duct in surgery or in malignant melanoma Pseudochylothorax - Occurs with longstanding fibrotic pleura
31
What are the different markers to check for to determine cause of pleural aspirate?
* Haemothorax = HAEMATOCRIT If the haematocrit of the pleural fluid is more than half of the patient’s peripheral blood haematocrit, the patient has a haemothorax. * Suspected chylothorax = high in TRIGLYCERIDES and CHYLOMICRONS * Pseudochylothorax = high in CHOLESTEROL * Empyema = pH * Pacreatitis associated effusions = AMYLASE * Malignant effusion = microscopy, cytology
32
Features of eosinophilic pneumonia? Tx?
sub acute respiratory symptoms, alveolar (>25%) and/ or blood eosinophilia, and peripheral pulmonary infiltrates on imaging Tx - Oral steroids with good prognosis
33
High risk characteristics of pneumothorax that warrant chest drain insertion if symptomatic?
haemodynamic compromise (suggesting a tension pneumothorax) significant hypoxia bilateral pneumothorax underlying lung disease ≥ 50 years of age with significant smoking history haemothorax
34
Describe different causes of white-out hemithorax?
Trachea pulled towards: Pneumonectomy Complete lung collapse e.g. endobronchial intubation Pulmonary hypoplasia Tracheal central: Consolidation Pulmonary oedema (usually bilateral) Mesothelioma Trachea pused away from the white-out: Pleural effusion Diaphragmatic hernia Large thoracic mass
35
Which medication may be useful in idiopathic pulmonary fibrosis?
Pirfenidone - antifibrotic Nintedanib - tyrosine kinase inhibitor
36
PAH R heart catheter value?
PAPm > =25mmHg
37
What features may suggest undiagnosed CF?
recurrent sinusitis, recurrent pancreatitis, clubbing and signs of bronchiectasis
38
Mx of pseudomonas in CF?
Intravenous ceftazidime and nebulised tobramycin for 14 days Or 6 weeks of Cipro
39
Radiological findings in silicosis?
Upper zone fibrosis, egg-shell calcification of hilar nodes
40
When is LTOT indicated in COPD?
Offer LTOT to patients with a pO2 of < 7.3 kPa or to those with a pO2 of 7.3 - 8 kPa and one of the following: - secondary polycythaemia - peripheral oedema - pulmonary hypertension
41
What are pleural plaques most commonly caused by?
Asbestos - this is the most common form of asbestos related lung disease
42
What examination finding and CXR findings may be found in someone with PAH?
Exam - early diastolic murmur CXR - enlarged proximal pulmonary arteries
43
What are the features of theophylline poisoning?
Acidosis, Hypokalaemia Vomiting Hyperglycaemia Tachycardia + arrhythmias (mycocardial contractility) Seizures
44
Mx of theophylline poisoning?
Gastric lavage if <1hr prior to ingestion Activated charcoal Whole bowel irrigation if sustained release form Charcoal haemoperfusion preferred to haemodialysis
45
retrosternal pain alongside symptoms of a respiratory tract infection, combined with a history of recent travel to the United States Likely dx? mx?
Histoplasmosis - Histoplasma capsulatum is endemic in parts of the USA (Missippi and Ohio River valleys) Can see fungal spores on sputum culture Mx = Amphotericin or Itraconazole
46
47
CIs to NIV?
- Recent facial or upper airway surgery or facial injuries. - Recent upper gastrointestinal surgery. - Confusion/agitation. - Bowel obstruction. - Upper airway obstruction. - Excessive upper airway secretions. - Patient actively vomiting.
48
Saccharin testing when is it useful?
Positive in ciliary dyskinesias
49
Which resp condition can have low immunoglobulins?
Bronchiectasis
50
How to distinguish between Goodpastures / microscopic polyangiitis (Chrug Strauss) + GPA?
GPA = ENT involvement, c-ANCA Goodpastures / microscopic polyangiitis (Chrug Strauss = No ENT involvement, Anti-GBM or pANCA for latter
51
COPD on Triple therapy not controlled - next step?
roflumilast - long-acting inhibitor of the enzyme phosphodiesterase-4 treating severe COPD in cases where the FEV1 is < 50% and the person has had 2 or more exacerbations in the previous 12 months despite triple inhaled therapy
52
Criteria for lung volume reduction surgery in COPD?
patients need to be able to complete a six-minute walk distance of at least 140m
53
When for LTOT in COPD?
Resting PaO2 ≤7.3-kPa OR Resting PaO2 ≤8-kPa with evidence of peripheral oedema, polycythaemia (haematocrit ≥55%) or pulmonary hypertension.
54
Mx of Asthma?
1 - a low-dose inhaled corticosteroid (ICS)/formoterol combination inhaler to be taken as needed for symptom relief (AIR) therapy 2- a low-dose MART (ICS + Formoterol) 3 - Moderate dose MART 4 - Check FeNO and Eosinophils - if raised refer to asthma specialist to consider Mepolizumab and other anti-IL-5 therapies can be used in adults with eosinophilic asthma OR If both -ve -> consider a trial of either a leukotriene receptor antagonist (LTRA) or a long-acting muscarinic receptor antagonist (LAMA) used in addition to moderate-dose MART can switch to other if not working
55
EGPA (Churg Strauss) renal biopsy findings?
Pauci-immune crescentic glomerulonephritis due to rapidly progressive glomerulonephritis
56
BiPAP initial settings?
IPAP: - 20cmH2O if pH <7.25 - 15cmH2O in COPD - 10cmH2O in neuromuscular disease EPAP: - 3cmH2O unless obstructive sleep apnoea Then uptitrate IPAP to 20cmH2O or as high as pt can tolerate
57
non-caseating granulomas dx? what if normal blood test is -ve?
Sarcoidosis Stil likely if ACE is -ve only +ve in 20%
58
Caseating granulomas?
TB
59
CXR Sarcoid staging?
A chest x-ray may show the following changes: stage 0 = normal stage 1 = bilateral hilar lymphadenopathy (BHL) stage 2 = BHL + interstitial infiltrates stage 3 = diffuse interstitial infiltrates only stage 4 = diffuse fibrosis
60
What is lupus pernio when is this seen in resp?
raised lesion which is purple in colour with some telangiectasia Seen in sarcoidosis
61
Most common XR finding in Sarcoid?
Bilateral hilar lymphadenopathy
62
What are the features of Histoplasmosis? mx?
Present in mississipi and ohio river valleys URTI sx + Retrosternal pain Mx = Amphotericin or Itraconazole
63
COPD on NIV but not improving, audible hiss + failure of machine to achieve set pressures Cause of failure?
Mask leak
64
Mx of Allergic bronchopulmonary aspergillosis?
Oral glucocorticoids + Itraconazole
65
Which asthma patients should Allergic bronchopulmonary aspergillosis be considered in?
Consider allergic bronchopulmonary aspergillosis in asthma patients who have developed difficult to control symptoms and/or have become dependent on oral steroids
66
Mx of patients with secondary pneumothorax that is managed conservatively?
Admit for inpatient monitoring
67
Describe the course of Psittacosis
Psitacossis - Chamydia psittaci Prodrome can involve diarrhoea, epistaxis and high fevers Also Splenomegaly + Epitaxis
68
The bulging fissure sign What is this and when is it seen?
bulging fissure sign is an increasingly rare but classical feature of Klebsiella pneumonia. It is due to large volumes of consolidation (typically in the right upper lobe) causing displacement of the adjacent fissure.
69
What is CPFE and what should you be worried about?
Combined pulmonary fibrosis and emphysema (CPFE) - subsection of COPD has a much higher rate of lung cancer than emphysema alone
70
Mx of CAP?
Low severity: 1st Amox Pen allergic - Macrolide OR Tetracycline
71
When to involve cardiothoracics in pneumothorax ?
When draining a pneumothorax, if after 3-5 days there is persistent air leak (e.g. bubbling chest drain) or failure of the lung to re-expand, a thoracic surgical opinion should be sought
72
Solitary lung nodule investigation?
Nodule <5mm, or clear benign features, or unsuitable for treatment: can be discharged Nodule =>8mm and high risk*: then CT-PET, and if CT-PET shows high uptake then biopsy Nodule 5-6mm, or =>8mm and low-risk*: then CT surveillance CT surveillance: if 5-6mm then at 1 year, if =>6 then in three months
73
Pleural fluid analysis how to tell if haemothorax?
If the haematocrit of the pleural fluid is more than half of the patient's peripheral blood haematocrit, the patient has a haemothorax
74
Light's criteria - Transudate v Exudate
exudates have a protein level of >30 g/L, transudates have a protein level of <30 g/L if the protein level is between 25-35 g/L, Light's criteria should be applied. An exudate is likely if at least one of the following criteria are met: pleural fluid protein divided by serum protein >0.5 pleural fluid LDH divided by serum LDH >0.6 pleural fluid LDH more than two-thirds the upper limits of normal serum LDH
75
When is glucose low in pleural fluid?
TB and RA
76
When is amylase raised in pleural fluid?
Pancreatitis and Oesophageal perforation
77
When is complement low in pleural fluid?
SLE - 30-50% experience one and can be first presentation of it
78
When is there heavy blood staining in pleural fluid
mesothelioma, pulmonary embolism, tuberculosis
79
Mx of MERS-CoV
In-patient supportive treatment to relieve symptoms and prevent or treat complications
80
Conditions associated with transudative pleural effusions include:
Congestive heart failure Liver cirrhosis Severe hypoalbuminemia Nephrotic syndrome
81
Conditions associated with exudative pleural effusions include:
Malignancy Infection (e.g. empyema due to bacterial pneumonia) Trauma Pulmonary infarction Pulmonary embolism
82
Mx of ARDS?
due to the severity of the condition patients are generally managed in ITU oxygenation/ventilation to treat the hypoxaemia general organ support e.g. vasopressors as needed treatment of the underlying cause e.g. antibiotics for sepsis certain strategies such as prone positioning and muscle relaxation have been shown to improve outcome in ARDS
83
Mx of Pseudomonas not responding to Cipro?
IV Taz, Ceftazidime, Azteronam or Meropenem
84
When may you get flash pulmonary oedema with ACEi use?
If you have renal artery stenosis (may be undiagnosed)
85
CXR - The loss of the left heart border What does this suggest?
Left Lingual consolidation
86
Time frame of asbestos related lung damage?
10 years - pleural plaques 20 years - asbestosis 30 years - mesothelioma
87
Mx of pleural effusion ?
if the clinical picture suggests a transudate (eg cardiac disease), then you should treat the cause initially If not resolving diagnositc pleural aspirate
88
Features of bronchial carcinoid?
Most common lung ca in adolescents Presents w recurrent pneumonia
89
Acute mx of asthma - now hyperlactaemia cause?
Due to excessive salbutamol use
90
What is Caplans syndrome?
Severe version of coal workers pneumoconiosis seen in RA -> presence of multiple, well-defined nodules (typically 0.5-5 cm in diameter) that may cavitate, predominantly affecting the upper and middle lung zones
91
LTOT trial pO2 responds well - what else to check?
Check pCO2 - develop a respiratory acidosis and/or a rise in PaCO2 of >1 kPa (7.5 mmHg) during an LTOT assessment may have clinically unstable disease If after 4 weeks once again shows this feature next step is: LTOT + Nocturnal BiPAP
92
Important recording with aminophylline?
Cardiac monitor with loading dose
93
When is medical optimisation needed prior to LTOT?
Patients who develop a respiratory acidosis and/or a rise in PaCO2 of >1 kPa (7.5 mmHg) during an LTOT assessment may have clinically unstable disease. These patients should undergo further medical optimisation and be reassessed after 4 weeks
94
Chest X-Ray Cavitating lesion in the right upper zone. No evidence of pleural effusion No other focal consolidation CT Thorax Cavitating lesion with halo sign Broncho-alveolar lavage induced sputum Hyphae seen on silver staining V symptomatic - dx?
Invasive aspergillosis NB aspergilloma is incidental finding
95
Features of tropical pulmonary eosinophilia? mx?
Fever + Weight loss Bilateral pulmonary infiltrates wheeze etc Raised IgE (not seen in simple eosinophilic pneumonia) Travel to asian subcontinent / africa Mx = Diethylcarbamazine
96
What enzyme is cANCA and pANCA?
cANCA = PR3 pANCA = MPO
97
Features of Absestosis and mx?
SOBOE + HRCT = fibrotic lung disease (parenchymal bands, homneycombing + traction bronchiectasis) Mx = Supportive
98
Which commonly used med can cause pulmonary eosinophilia?
Nitrofurantoin + Sulphonamides
99
What effect does smoking have on aminophyllines?
Smoking -> Liver enzyme induction -> reduced levels of aminophyllines Hence higher doses required
100
Mx of non-small cell lung ca based on staging?
Early stage (T1-2a,N0,M0) Surgery Early stage (T1-2a,N0,M0) / Limited disease (T1-4,N0-3,M0) = 4-6 cycles cisplatin based chemotherapy carboplatin if poor renal function/poor performance status +/- radiotherapy Extensive disease (T1-4, N0-3, M1a/b) = 6 cycles platinum based combination chemotherapy + thoracic radiotherapy if good response
101
Indications for chest drain following pleural tap?
pH <7.2 Organisms on stain or culture Purluent flluid
102
Poor prognostic feature in asbestosis?
Clubbing -> increased risk of progression to mesothelioma
103
When to use NIV in COPD patients?
RESPIRATORY acidosis persists despite immediate maximum standard medical treatment on controlled oxygen for no more than one hour
104
LN biopsy in lung ca - how to do it?
EUBS (endobronchial US) guided 1st if not consider VATS
105
Examples of transudate and exudate pleural effusions?
Transudative Low protein <30 = hydrostatic / oncostatic -> CCF, Cirrhosis or nephrotic syndrome Exudates High protein >30 (if 25-35 use Lights) - increased capillary permeability due to local inflammation / injury eg infection, malignancy, PE, AI disease and pancreatitis
106
Pleural tap drains straight blood not blood stained fluid, next step?
Use surgical drain
107
thunderstorm asthma. What is thought to be the aetiological cause?
Sudden spore and pollen release due to pressure changes
108
How should he be treated with nebulisers whilst having NIV?
Take mask off to administer nebs
109
How is PAH classified?
based on aetiology: I pulmonary arterial hypertension II pulmonary hypertension secondary to left heart disease III pulmonary hypertension secondary to lung disease IV pulmonary hypertension secondary to chronic thromboembolic disease V pulmonary hypertension with unclear causes
110
https://d32xxyeh8kfs8k.cloudfront.net/images_Passmedicine/xrb068b.jpg Dx?
Bronchiectasis post-infective causes include: tuberculosis, measles, pertussis, pneumonia
111
NIV poor toleration of mask and higher IPAP - what next?
Use haloperidol or morphine
112
What is the benefit of oxygen In the treatment of a pneumothorax?
Exchange of nitrogen for oxygen allowing quicker resorption of the pneumothorax
113
Upper airway compression - how to distinguish between variable and fixed airway obstruction? What does it show?
Flow-Volume loops Fixed upper airway obstruction - Flattened inspiratory and expiratory limbs Variable extrathoracic obstruction - Flattened inspiratory limb with normal expiratory limb Variable intrathoracic obstruction - Normal inspiratory limb with flattened expiratory limb
114
Flow-volume loop in restrictive and obstructive disease?
Restrictive - Normal flow-volume loop with reduced total lung capacity Obstructive - Reduced expiratory flow with scooped appearance
115
What lung disease are aeronautical engineers at risk of ?
Berryliosis -> upper lobe fibrosis
116
What does low DLCO and high KCO tell us?
Extrapulmonary cause of restrictive lung disease Eg obesity, NM disease and scoliosis
117
Spirometry in Obstructive and restrictive disease? Ratio
Restrictive - FEV1/FVC > 80% Obstructive - FEV1/FVC < 80%
118
What ix findings suggest resp failure due to NM weakness?
T2 resp failure with normal CXR
119
Resp failure in PE?
Usually type 1
120
How to test for non-tuberculous mycobacterium v TB?
Both have +ve acid fast bacilli tests NTB = -ve IFN y release assay TB = +ve IFN y release assay
121
Mx of NTM (non tuberculosis mycobacteria infection)?
MAC (eg mycobacterium intracellulare): Rifampicin, clarithromycin and ethambutol. Treatment should continue until the patients sputum has remained negative for MAC for 12 months M.kansasii: Rifampicin, isoniazid and ethambutol. Treatment should continue until the patient has been sputum culture negative for 12 months.
122
IPF prognosis?
Survival 3-4 years
123
https://d32xxyeh8kfs8k.cloudfront.net/images_Passmedicine/xrb047b.jpg What does this show?
right upper lobe consolidation - abnormal opacity within the right upper lobe abutting the horizontal fissure
124
When for steroids in sarcoidosis?
patients with chest x-ray stage 2 or 3 disease who are symptomatic -> Patients with asymptomatic and stable stage 2 or 3 disease who have only mildly abnormal lung function do not require treatment hypercalcaemia eye, heart or neuro involvement
MRCP - Part 2
flashcards
Decks in class (13)
# Cards
Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2026 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions