Ante-mortem inspection at what point need to occur and how
○ Performed via the vet at maximum 24 hours before slaughter in a group setting, not individual examination mainly a herd level issue. If large amount of sheep showing general clinical signs then possible to mark these when post-mortem inspection is occurring
What are some roles of the on site veterinary officer
○ Ante-mortem inspections morning and night in the sheep yards to ensure the sheep are well cared for, not suffering from any debilitating illness and is fit for slaughter for human consumption
○ Post-mortem inspections on particularly diseased animals and to ensure the inspectors are inspecting the carcasses adequately
○ Performing checks and observing processes to ensure all relevant policies are being upheld
○ Signing off on all the product that leaves the premises to verify that they have followed all relevant policies
Level of food safety risk rate meat, chocolate and ice-cream
○ Highest = meat due to its environment is perfect for bacteria to grow, also has the highest risk of contamination with bacteria
○ Middle = ice-cream due to its diary component which allows for contamination
○ Lowest = chocolate due to its low moisture content and high sugar which makes it low risk
Electrical stunning what are the 2 phases and how long do they last
1) tonic phase 10-12s
2) clonic phase 20-25s
What are the clinical signs of tonic phase
What are the clonic phase signs
Reversible stunning methods what are the 3 and the 2 irreversible stunning methods
1) Head only electrical stunning
2) non penetrative captive bolt
3) CO2 stunning - pigs
Irreversible
1) head to back electrical stunning
2) penetrative captive bolt stunning
Slaughter methods what are the two types and what animals
What do the following drugs do 1) cloxacillin 2) trimedexil 3) engemycin 4) erythromycin
When to give a S4 drug and name 2 that are and 1 that isn’t
What are 3 common causes of increase in BMCC
○ Poor condition of rubber components of the miking claw
§ Cracks harbour bacteria
○ Inadequate coverage of teats by disinfectant when applying teat spray
§ Disinfectant - kill bacteria + emollients to reduce cracks that harbour bacteria
○ Removal of milking units without cutting the vacuum first
§ Damage the teat canal, retropulse milk going teat to teat, or backwards to other cows - spreading mastitis
How to perform a vasectomy on a sheep
2) Make 7cm longitudinal skin incision over the palpated vas deferens
○ Need to go whole way through the skin
3) Tissue scissors to dissect subcutaneous tissues
○ Purple area is the vaginal tunic
4) Locate the vas deferens medial to the spermatic cord
5) Place nick in vaginal tunic (upwards turned scalpel blade) to remove the spermatic cord
○ AVOID THE VEIN AND ARTERY within the vaginal tunic
6) Blunt dissection the nick in the tunic to extend
7) Exteriorise the spermatic cord
○ If cannot then may not have incised through the visceral part of vaginal tunic just the parietal so need to incise further
8) Use haemostats to push through mesorcium (membrane) between spermatic cord and pampiniform plexus and clamp the spermatic cord in two places (proximal and distal)
9) Ligate proximal and distal to the clamps (outside of the clamps)
10) Excises the portion of the cord
11) If small enough can leave the vaginal tunic open
12) Closure of the skin - simple continuous
Epidural in a sheep where performed and how
How many roots for dogs teeth maxillary and mandibular
1 root - 105,205 2 root - 106-107, 206-207 3 root - 108-110, 208-210 Lower 1 root first and 11 (305, 311, 405, 411) All others 2 roots
When do adult incisors start to erupt and completely erupted at
Earliest 12 - 16 weeks
completely erupted at 24 weeks
What is ankylosis in regards to teeth? Describe what you would see on radiographs.
What are the indications for raising a gingival flap?
What are the causes of a discoloured tooth?
Name 3 adverse outcomes if you tried to excessively rotate or cork maxillary canine?
1) Fracture of the tooth
2) Oronasal fistula caused by root apex pushing through the thin bone plate into nasal passage
3) Fracture of bucchal bone and significant trauma to surrounding tissues
Heartworm for puppies at what age have to test and at what age don’t have to
1) Puppies under 6 months, start on prevention (ideally from less than 3 months)
○ Start on monthly until correlate with annual vaccinations then annually proheart if want that
2) Puppies over 6 months of age ideally should have an antigen test first and again 6-12months after commencing preventative
○ 6-7 months is the minimum lifecycle - minimum at which you can test
heartworm what is the safety margin, after 3-6-7months what to do and after 6-7months post heartworm missing
Tapeworms what need, which product has within and the types of tapeworms need to worry about
praziquantel (bitter taste) - sentinel spectrum (insect growth regulator - not for flea allergic dog)
○ Most common is the flea tape worm -> if have good flea control then DON’T WORRY
○ Echinococcus -> rural areas with sheep carcase
○ Spirometra -> lizard and frogs within - playing in the river
§Dose not high enough in products to kill
§ Persistent tapeworm infections with treatment - send away for identification and then treat with HIGH dosses
Distemper clinical signs, transmitted and treatment/prognosis
○ fever, oculonasal discharge, coughing, weight loss, vomiting, diarrhoea, neurological signs such as myoclonus, seizures and blindness. Death is possible
○ Hyperkeratosis of the footpads is noted in chronic infections.
○ Distemper is transmitted via respiratory droplets or contact with contaminated fomites.
○ Treatment is support. Those with CNS disease have a poor prognosis.
Canine adenovirus- 1 what also called, clinical signs, transmitted, treatment
infectious canine hepatitis
○ Possible clinical signs include fever, depression, lethargy, abdominal pain, pallor, tonsillitis, lymphandenopathy, hepatomegaly, coughing, vomiting, diarrhoea, bleeding tendencies, hepatic encephalopathy, neurological signs and death.
○ Transmission is via oronasal exposure to infectious secretions.
○ This virus is environmentally hardy.
○ Treatment is supportive.
○ Vaccination with canine adenovirus type 2 cross protects against type 1 infection also.