1
Q
- The bunsen-roscoe reciprocity law states that the product of a photochemical reaction is dependent only upon the product of the radiation intensity and the duration of exposure and is independent of the absolute values of either of these quantities separately.
This law is invalid for which of the following?
a. X-rays.
b. Gamma rays.
c. Fluorescent screens.
d. Lead foil screens.
A
c. Fluorescent screens.
2
Q
- The quality of the radiation necessary to obtain an
appreciable intensification from lead screens depends
upon all of the following except:
a. film type.
b. kilovoltage.
c. milliamperage.
d. thickness and material of test object.
A
c. milliamperage.
3
Q
- An alloy of 6% antimony and 94% lead should be
used for screens instead of pure lead because it
provides: ‘
a. greater definition.
b. less mottling effect.
c. better wear resistance.
d. a higher intensification factor.
A
c. better wear resistance.
4
Q
- In comparison to radiographs made with lead
screens, radiographs made using fluorescent screens
would show:
a. better contrast.
b. good definition.
c. higher density.
d. poor definition.
A
d. poor definition.
5
Q
- Which is generally the greater source of scatter
radiation?
a. Lead foil screens.
b. Lead backing plate.
c. Floor or wall.
d. The specimen under examination.
A
d. The specimen under examination.
6
Q
- The major component of scatter is the low-energy
rays represented by photons weakened in what
process?
a. Photoelectric.
b. Pair productive.
c. Compton scattering.
d. Ionization.
A
c. Compton scattering.
7
Q
- The influence flow-energy scatter from the film
holder is most noticeable just inside the borders of
the image. This condition is called:
a. inherent unsharpness.
b. undercut.
c. geometric unsharpness.
d. mottling.
A
b. undercut.
8
Q
- The difference in narrow-beam and broad-beam
conditions is that:
a. narrow-beam conditions imply that both
scattered and unscattered radiation reach the
detector, while broad-beam conditions imply that
only the unscattered radiation reaches the
detector.
b. narrow-beam conditions imply that only the
unscattered radiation reaches the detector, while
broad-beam conditions imply that both scattered
and unscattered radiation reach the detector.
c. narrow- and broad-beam conditions relate only to
source size.
d. both terms depend on a film and screen
combination.
A
b. narrow-beam conditions imply that only the
unscattered radiation reaches the detector, while
broad-beam conditions imply that both scattered
and unscattered radiation reach the detector.
9
Q
- Short wavelength photons are normally used on thick
sections of steel instead of long wavelength photons
because:
a. short wavelength photons are hard rays and have
greater penetrating ability.
b. short wavelength photons create a greater
secondary radiation and help improve image
contrast.
c. long wavelength photons are hard rays and have
greater penetrating ability.
d. they both have equal penetrating ability.
A
a. short wavelength photons are hard rays and have
greater penetrating ability.
10
Q
- A lead sheet is usually placed behind the film cassette
to:
a. intensify the film image and shorten the exposure
time.
b. prevent bending and crimping of the film.
c. reduce forward scatter and absorb unwanted
radiation to prevent it from reaching the film.
d. minimize radiation scattered from the floor, walls,
equipment, and other items from reaching the
back of the film.
A
d. minimize radiation scattered from the floor, walls,
equipment, and other items from reaching the
back of the film.
11
Q
- The larger the activity (in becquerels or curies) and
the larger (physically) the source is, the emitted
gamma-ray intensity:
a. becomes lower.
b. becomes higher.
c. remains unaff ected.
d. increases inversely to activity.
A
a. becomes lower.
12
Q
- When radiographing a specimen with a radiographic
source, it is found that it is desirable to lengt then the
source-to-film distance. With the source at the new
location, the amount of radiation reaching the film
will:
a. vary inversely with the square of the distance.
b. vary equally with the square of the distance.
c. not change.
d. vary inversely with the distance.
A
a. vary inversely with the square of the distance.
13
Q
- Which one of the following is not a specific condition
which applies to a given exposure chart?
a. X- ray machine used.
b. Film type.
c. Processing conditions.
d. Radiation intensity.
A
d. Radiation intensity.
14
Q
- Exposure charts are fairly adequate for determining
exposures in the radiography of:
a. complicated structural items.
b. uniform plate.
c. step wedges.
d. IQis.
A
b. uniform plate
15
Q
- A gamma-ray exposure chart differs from an X-ray
exposure chart in that there is no variable factor
corresponding to:
a. thickness.
b. milliamperage.
c. kilovoltage.
d. film density.
A
c. kilovoltage.
16
Q
- An exposure chart is a graph showing the relation
between all but which one of the following?
a. Exposure.
b. Density.
c. Kilovoltage.
d. Material thickness.
A
b. Density.
17
Q
- The frequency with which a developer solution needs
replacement is dependent on the rate and density of
films processed, but as a rule the solution should be
replaced:
a . whenever the density of processed films is
consistently too great.
b. when en the quantity of developer replenisher used
equals 2 to 3 times the original quantity of
developer, or every 3 months, whichever is
shorter.
c. every 6 months.
d. whenever the processed ftlms show streaking due
to uneven development.
A
b. when en the quantity of developer replenisher used
equals 2 to 3 times the original quantity of
developer, or every 3 months, whichever is
shorter.
18
Q
- In manual processing, the ideal temperature is 20 ºC
(68 ºF) . At what temperature would the chemical
action be slowed, resulting in underdevelopment?
a. 21 ºC (70 ºF)
b. 16 ºC (60 ºF)
c. 32 ºC (90 º F)
d. 30 ºC (86 ºF)
A
b. 16 ºC (60 ºF)
19
Q
- The shape of the film characteristic curve is relatively
insensitive to changes in X- or gamma-radiation
quality, but is affected by changes in the:
a. geometric factors.
b. film graininess.
c. subject contrast.
d. degree of development.
A
d. degree of development.
20
Q
- Light crimp marks appearing on a developed
radiograph are the result of:
a. static marks.
b. scratch~s on lead foil screen.
c. poor handling before exposure.
d. poor handling after exposure.
A
c. poor handling before exposure.
21
Q
- Physical damage to the film emulsion caused by sudden extreme temperature change is called:
a. reticulation.
b. frilling.
c. blisters.
d. streaks.
A
a. reticulation.
22
Q
- When using acid to make the stop bath mixture, the acid is added slowly to the water for which of the following reasons?
a. To produce a more uniform mixture.
b. To prevent rapid oxidation resulting in a cloudy stop bath.
c. To prevent a rapid rise of the solution temperature.
d. To prevent the acid from spattering.
A
d. To prevent the acid from spattering.
23
Q
- Certain materials cause contamination and result in fog in the radiograph. Which one of the following should not be used as a material for holding processing solutions?
a. AISI Type 316 stainless steel.
b. Enamelware.
c. Aluminum.
d. Plastic.
A
c. Aluminum.
24
Q
- Processing tanks should be periodically cleaned and sterilized. Which of the following agents in solution is recommended?
a. Sodium hypochlorite.
b. Acetone.
c. Household detergent.
d. Hydrochloric acid (diluted).
A
a. Sodium hypochlorite.
25
137. The most commonly used acid in preparing stop baths to arrest the development process is:
a. sulfuric.
b. glacial acetic.
c. muriatic.
d. hydrochloric.
b. glacial acetic.
26
138. Holding all other parameters constant, an increase in time of development of a given film will result in a characteristic curve showing:
a. increased contrast and Increased speed.
b. increased contrast and decreased speed.
c. decreased contrast and increased speed.
d. decreased contrast and decreased speed.
a. increased contrast and Increased speed.
27
139. In manual processing, if it is not possible to use a stop bath, films should be:
a. placed directly in the fixer solution.
b. placed directly in the fixer solution with a 1 min reduction in development time.
c. rinsed in running water for at least 2 min before fixing.
d. rinsed in running water for at least 2 min with a 1 min. reduction in development time before fixing.
c. rinsed in running water for at least 2 min before fixing.
28
140. The primary reason why visual (under safelight conditions) development of radiographs should be avoided is:
a. it is difficult to discern the image with the light output provided by a safelight.
b. the appearance of a developed but unfixed radiograph will be different in the dried state.
c. removal of the film from the developer will affect the development time.
d. film type and speed affect the appearance of images when exposed to a safelight.
b. the appearance of a developed but unfixed radiograph will be different in the dried state.
29
141. Better quality radiographs can be obtained when expertly done by manual processing rather than by automatic processing, but most processing is performed automatically because:
a. manual processing is time consuming and automatic processing produces consistency and control.
b. it is difficult to train and keep manual processing personnel.
c. automatic processors are easier to maintain.
d. chemical temperatures and solutions are difficult to maintain in darkrooms where manual processing is practiced.
a. manual processing is time consuming and automatic processing produces consistency and control.
30
142. The function of the developer is to:
a. stop the process.
b. harden the emulsion.
c. recover silver.
d. change exposed silver halide crystals to metallic silver.
d. change exposed silver halide crystals to metallic silver.
31
143. The best method of arresting the development process is to place the film in:
a. an acid stop bath.
b. a fixer solution.
c. a water rinse.
d. a wetting solution.
a. an acid stop bath.
32
144. The most important function of the fixer is to:
a. neutralize alkali from developer.
b. remove undeveloped silver salt.
c. increase density.
d. harden the emulsion.
b. remove undeveloped silver salt.
33
145. Wetting agents are used primarily as a deterrent for:
a. reticulation.
b. changes in density.
c. water spots.
d. frilling.
c. water spots.
34
146. Ideally after processing, radiographs should be stored at a relative humidity of:
a. 10%.
b. 30 to 50%.
c. 70 to 80%.
d. any percentage, since relative humidity is not an important consideration.
b. 30 to 50%
35
147. In manual processing, the cascade method of washing film is desirable. To be effective, the hourly flow of water should be:
a. 1-2 times the volume of the tank.
b. any amount, since the water flow rate has no bearing on film washing.
c. 12-16 times the volume of the tank.
d. 4-8 times the volume of the tank.
d. 4-8 times the volume of the tank.
36
148. Which of the following is not a requirement for illuminators used in the interpretation of radiographs?
a. A light source of sufficient intensity to view the area of interest of the radiograph.
b. Sufficient masking to avoid glare from the edges of the radiograph.
c. A foot-operated ON-OFF switch.
d. Diffuse the light evenly over the viewing area.
c. A foot-operated ON-OFF switch.
37
149. For the routine viewing of high-density film, a high-intensity illuminator with an adjustable light source should be used. Such a viewer should allow viewing of densities at least up toon a characteristic curve:
a. 1.5
b. 2.5
c. 4.0
d. 10.0
c. 4.0
38
150. When viewing radiographs, the film viewer should provide light of an intensity that is evenly distributed with an adjustment to vary the intensity. In addition, the film viewer should have:
a. a viewing surface at a 900 angle.
b. fresh bulbs.
c. a diffusing medium.
d. a light green color.
c. a diffusing medium.
39
151. To prevent damage to films, which of the following should be provided when viewing radiographs?
a. Masks or screens.
b. Foot switch.
c. Heat filter,
d. Opal glass,
c. Heat filter,
40
152. The contrast sensitivity of the human eye is greatest when the surroundings compared to the area of interest on a radiograph have:
a. about the same brightness.
b. a lower brightness.
c. a higher brightness.
d. any brightness, since brightness is not a factor in contrast sensitivity.
a. about the same brightness.
41
153. For best contrast sensitivity, the film viewing room should have lighting:
a. as dark as possible.
b. approximately 38 lm.
c. approximately 70 lm.
d. as light as the area of interest in the film being reviewed.
d. as light as the area of interest in the film being reviewed.
42
154. When reviewing film, background lighting should:
a. be virtually eliminated.
b. not reflect on the film under examination.
c. be carefully filtered.
d. be approximately 20 lm.
b. not reflect on the film under examination.
43
155. A stereoscope is a device that:
a. projects the contents of a pair of stereo radiographs on a screen, giving spatial resolution to indications in the radiographs.
b. permits each eye to see only one of a pair of stereo radiographs.
c. by exposing two film cassettes simultaneously from different angles, enables the production of radiographs.
d. allows accurate measurements of the shift of an image in a set of stereo radiographs made for the purpose of parallax.
b. permits each eye to see only one of a pair of stereo radiographs.
44
156. The density of any radiographic image is primarily dependent upon:
a. the kilovoltage of the source of radiation.
b. the amount of radiation absorbed by the emulsion of the film.
c. the scintillator detector.
d. the automatic processing.
b. the amount of radiation absorbed by the emulsion of the film.
45
157. Incident light of an intensity of 2.2 Ix (200 ftc) on an area of film of 1.3 density transmits an intensity of 107.6 Ix (10 ftc). What is the intensity transmitted in the area of the film measuring 2.3 density?
a. 53.8 Ix (5 ftc)
b. 5.4 Ix (0.5 ftc)
c. 10.8 Ix (1 ftc)
d. 1.1 Ix (0.1 ftc)
c. 10.8 Ix (1 ftc)
46
158. Which of the following is independent, for most practical purposes, of the wavelength and distribution of the radiation reaching the film?
a. Subject contrast.
b. Radiographic contrast.
c. Film contrast.
d. Definition.
c. Film contrast.
47
159. The relationship between film exposure and the resulting film density of any particular film is:
a. the unsharpness.
b. the film contrast.
c. the subject contrast.
d. the source-to-film distance.
b. the film contrast.
48
160. As the kilovoltage is increased, the subject contrast:
a. increases.
b. decreases.
c. remains the same.
d. increases directly with E2.
b. decreases.
49
161. Radiographic image quality may be adversely affected by poor subject contrast; this may be caused by:
a. time.
b. source strength.
c. source distance.
d. insufficient absorption differences in the specimen.
d. insufficient absorption differences in the specimen.
50
162. The film contrast for the specimens being radiographed may be determined from:
a. the size of film.
b. the radiation quality.
c. the slope of the characteristic curve for the film.
d. wavelength of the radiation.
c. the slope of the characteristic curve for the film.
51
163. By increasing the source-to-film distance in a given exposure, the image sharpness is:
a. increased.
b. decreased.
c. not affected.
d. decreased by a negligible amount.
a. increased.
52
164. What is the effect of the sensitivity of a radiograph when the physical size of a gamma source is increased without changing any other exposure factors?
a. Sensitivity and geometric unsharpness are increased.
b. Geometric sharpness and definition are increased.
c. Physical source size does not affect sensitivity.
d. Geometric sharpness is increased and sensitivity is decreased.
d. Geometric sharpness is increased and sensitivity is decreased.
53
165. The image sharpness of an object is not affected by:
a. the type of film.
b. the type of screen.
c. radiation quality.
d. masking.
d. masking.
54
166. When a lead screen radiograph of an object shows a poorly defined image of the object, one course of action to correct this may be to:
a. change to a coarse-grain film.
b. use an X-ray tube of larger focal spot.
c. increase source-to-film distance.
d. change to fluorescent screens.
c. increase source-to-film distance.
55
167. When using lead foil intensifying screens, a fuzzy radiographic image is a sign:
a. of oil or grease on the screens.
b. that tin coating was used on the screens.
c. of poor screen-to-film contact.
d. of foreign material between the screen and the film.
c. of poor screen-to-film contact.
56
168. A mottled radiograph is caused by:
a. removing the paper interleaving before the exposure.
b. using tin-coated lead screens.
c. X-ray diffraction effects.
d. exposure geometry.
d. exposure geometry.
57
169. During the loading of a film cassette, the lead foil screens are scratched. The resulting radiograph would show:
a. no change since deep scratches are related to the
b. broad fuzzy light lines corresponding to the scratches.
c. defined dark lines corresponding to deep scratches.
d. random film indications due to scatter caused by scratches.
c. defined dark lines corresponding to deep scratches.
58
170. The appearance of colored stains on a processed radiograph could be caused by:
a. neutralization of the acid in the fixer solution.
b. neutralization of the alkaline content in the fixer solution.
c. acidification of the fixer solution.
d. underdevelopment,
a. neutralization of the acid in the fixer solution.
59
171. Deep scratches in lead screens result in dark lines on the radiograph. These are due to:
a. the loss of absorbing characteristic of the lead foil, resulting in more of the X-ray source reaching the film.
b. the scratch resulting in a greater surface area of lead, causing a larger electron emission area, which affects the exposure of the film.
c. the air gap between the deep scratch and film.
d. lack of emulsification.
b. the scratch resulting in a greater surface area of lead, causing a larger electron emission area, which affects the exposure of the film.
60
172. Prolonged washing of film in water above 20 °C (68 °F) has a tendency to:
a. crystallize the gelatin.
b. soften the gelatin.
c. cause a yellow stain.
d. cause the image to fade.
b. soften the gelatin.
61
174. Using the formula given above, calculate the specimen thickness if the equivalent sensitivity is
2.6% based on seeing the 4T hole in an ASTM #40 IQI.
a. 1.35 in.
b. 3.17 in.
c. 2.56 in.
d. 2.17 in.
d. 2.17 in.
61
173. Using the formula given above, calculate the equivalent sensitivity of an ASTM #20 IQI showing the 2T hole on a 1.25 in. thick specimen.
a. 2.0%
b. 1.6%
c. 18%
d. 1.4%
b. 1.6%
62
175. The DIN type IQI is which type of image quality indicator?
a. A plaque type.
b. A stepped type.
c. A wire type.
d. An indirect imaging type.
c. A wire typ
63
176. Omission of the stop bath or rinsing of the film may cause:
a. streaking of the film.
b. yellow staining of the film.
c. fogging of the film.
d. frilling of the emulsion.
b. yellow staining of the film.
64
177. In automatic processing, poor drying of film can be attributed to which of the following if the drying temperature and air circulation in the drying section are found to be acceptable?
a. Underreplenishment of the fixer solution.
b. Infrequent use of the processor.
c. Roller alignment in the wash section.
d. Overdevelopment.
a. Underreplenishment of the fixer solution.
65
178. A milky appearing fixer solution could be caused by:
a. the fixer being too warm or exhausted.
b. a sudden change in temperature.
c. use of a carbonate developer.
d. use of fine-grained film.
a. the fixer being too warm or exhausted.
66
179. If an exposure time of 1 min was necessary using a 1.8 m (6 ft) source-to-film distance for a particular exposure, what time would be necessary if a 0.9 m (3 ft) source-to-film distance is used and all other variables remain the same?
a. 2 min
b. 15 s
c. 4 min
d. 30 s
b. 15 s
67
180. The mathematical rule of exposure that governs the time-distance relation of the basic exposure calculator is:
a. the exposure time (T) required for a given exposure is directly proportional to the square of the source-to-film distance (D).
b. the exposure time (T) required for a given exposure is inversely proportional to the square of the source-to-film distance (D).
c. the exposure time (T) required for a given exposure is inversely proportional to the milliamperage (M).
d. the exposure time (T) required for a given exposure is directly proportional to the milliamperage (M).
a. the exposure time (T) required for a given exposure is directly proportional to the square of the source-to-film distance (D).
68
181. Filtering an X-ray beam is analogous to:
a. decreasing the kilovoltage.
b. increasing the kilovoltage.
c. decreasing the milliamperage.
d. increasing the milliamperage.
b. increasing the kilovoltage.
69
182. The primary function of a filter is to:
a. reduce the penetrating ability of the radiation.
b. absorb longer wavelengths, which can produce increased scatter.
c. reduce exposure time.
d. eliminate most of the undercut caused by scatter.
d. eliminate most of the undercut caused by scatter.
70
183. Which of the following materials are typically used for filtration purposes in industrial radiography at energies of 150-400 kV?
a. Aluminum/magnesium.
b. Lead/copper.
c. Stainless steel/steel.
d. Cadmium/zinc.
b. Lead/copper.
71
184. A filter in the X-ray tube beam has the effect of:
a. hardening the radiation beam.
b. softening the radiation beam.
c. dispersing the radiation beam.
d. increasing the beam intensity.
a. hardening the radiation beam.
72
185. Scattered radiation originating in matter outside the specimen is most serious for specimens which have high absorption for X-rays. One of the most satisfactory arrangements for combining effectiveness and convenience to reduce scatter when radiographing steel is to:
a. cut out diaphragms from lead sheet.
b. pack barium clay around the specimen.
c. use a liquid absorber.
d. surround the object with copper or steel shot.
d. surround the object with copper or steel shot.
73
186. The primary purpose of using two or more films of unequal speed in the same cassette is to:
a. eliminate retakes due to incorrect exposure time.
b. eliminate retakes due to artifacts on the film.
c. cover a wide range of thickness in one exposure.
d. reduce the scatter to the total image.
c. cover a wide range of thickness in one exposure.
74
187. When two different films are selected for a multifilm technique, their speeds must be such that on their characteristic curves there is:
a. some overlap on the density axis.
b. no overlap on the density axis.
c. some overlap on the log E axis.
d. no overlap on the log E axis.
c. some overlap on the log E axis.
75
188. If the thickness range of a specimen is too great for a single exposure, a multifilm technique may be used. If two films of different speeds are selected for this example, the log relative exposure range for these two films is the difference in:
a. log exposure between the value at the high-density end of the faster film and the low-density end of the slower film curve.
b. log exposure between the value at the low-density end of the faster film and the high-density end of the slower film.
c. log exposure between the value at the low-density end of the slower film and the high-density end of the faster film.
d. log exposure between the value at the high-density end of the slower film and the low-density end of the faster film.
d. log exposure between the value at the high-density end of the slower film and the low-density end of the faster film.
76
189. A setup by which an arrangement of prisms or mirrors permits each eye to see but a single one of a pair of radiographs is known as:
a. stroboradiography.
b. parallax radiography.
c. stereo radiography.
d. autoradiography.
c. stereo radiography.
77
190. Select the one advantage stereo radiographs have over films produced by the parallax method.
a. They permit correct spatial relation.
b. They use inexpensive viewing devices.
c. They do not require special reading glasses.
d. They use two films.
a. They permit correct spatial relation.
78
191. Using the parallax method for triangulation with the film in contact with the object and shifting the source an equal distance in two directions from its original position for location of a discontinuity, it is revealed that the discontinuity shift is less than half the shift of the source side marker. The discontinuity is:
a. nearer the film plane.
b. nearer the source side.
c. on the source-side surface.
d. on the film-side surface.
a. nearer the film plane.
79
192. A discontinuity was found by radiography in a
76 mm (3 in.) thick weld. The source-to-film distance was 510 mm (20 in.). A second exposure was made with the source shifted 102 mm (4 in.) parallel to the film plane. It was noted that the discontinuity image moved 16 mm (0.625 in.) as compared with the original exposure. Determine the distance of the discontinuity above the film.
a. 82 mm (3.24 in.)
b. 32 mm (1.25 in.)
c. 69 mm (2.70 in.)
d. 7 mm (0.27 in.)
c. 69 mm (2.70 in.)
80
193. Radiography performed using high-intensity X-ray beams to produce a single stop-motion image or a series of sequential images of high-speed dynamic phenomena is:
a. microradiography.
b. autoradiography.
c. stroboradiography.
d. flash radiography.
d. flash radiography.
81
194. Electron radiography is primarily used for radiography of:
a. high atomic number (Z) materials.
b. thin metallic specimens.
c. very thin nonmetallic specimens.
d. a combination of high and low atomic number materials.
c. very thin nonmetallic specimens.
82
195. An electron emission radiograph shows surface details only; in this regard, it is similar to:
a. a macroradiograph.
b. a microradiograph.
c. a photomicrograph.
d. tomography.
c. a photomicrograph.
83
196. The principle of electron emission radiography is based on:
a. differential absorption.
b. diffraction caused by crystalline structure.
c. differences in electron emission from an irradiated specimen, resulting from greater emission from higher atomic number materials.
d. differences in film density caused by the differential penetrating ability of the various energy electrons.
c. differences in electron emission from an irradiated specimen, resulting from greater emission from higher atomic number materials.
84
197. Which one of the following is not a commonly accepted use of microradiography?
a. Determination of segregation of constituents in thin alloy sections.
b. Detection of minute discontinuities.
c. The study of biological sections.
d. The study of crystalline structure.
d. The study of crystalline structure.
85
198. X-ray devices used in microradiography typically operate at potentials up to:
a. 50 kV
b. 100 KV
c. 150 kV
d. 200 kV
a. 50 kV
86
199. A method for distinguishing between diffraction mottling and other causes of mottling is to:
a. re-expose the film using a much lower exposure factor.
b. change the angle of incidence of the beam by 1-5° and re-expose.
c. lower the kilovoltage and re-expose.
d. re-expose without using lead screens.
b. change the angle of incidence of the beam by 1-5° and re-expose.
87
200. Filters and screens are devices used by radiographers to control diffraction effects. If spurious indications appear in the finished radiograph and diffraction is suspect, what technique aids or corrections can be made to the technique to eliminate suspect diffraction patterns?
a. Raise the kilovoltage.
b. Lower the kilovoltage.
c. Change the radiation center 127 mm (5 in.) from the previous location.
d. Change the class and type of film used from type I to type 2.
a. Raise the kilovoltage.
88
201. X-ray diffraction patterns appearing in a radiograph are typically observed in the radiography of:
a. thick castings at greater than 1 MeV.
b. thin metallic specimens with large grain size.
c. thin metallic specimens with fine grain size.
d. thick metallic specimens with low atomic number (Z).
b. thin metallic specimens with large grain size.
89
202. The radiographic appearance of diffraction patterns is mottled and may be confused with which one of the following sets of indications?
a. Porosity or segregation.
b. Oxidation or burn-through.
c. Porosity or burst.
d. Misruns or porosity.
a. Porosity or segregation.
90
203. In routine thickness gaging setups using gamma-ray sources, which one of the following radiation detectors is most commonly used?
a. Anthracene crystal.
b. Ionization chamber.
c. Sodium iodide crystal.
d. Geiger-müller tube.
b. Ionization chamber.
91
204. Of the following, which gaging application is most suitable for using gamma rays?
a. Cigarette density gaging.
b. Thickness gaging of thin foils such as condenser papers.
c. Paper thickness gage.
d. Liquid density gage.
d. Liquid density gage.
92
205. Using geometric enlargement principles, determine the image size if the object is 150 mm (6 in.) in diameter, the source-to-film distance is 910 mm (36 in.), and the source-to-object distance is 760 mm (30 in.).
a. 180 mm (7.2 in.)
b. 130 mm (5 in.)
c. 370 mm (14.4 in.)
d. 250 mm (10 in.)
a. 180 mm (7.2 in.)
93
206. The focal spot should be as small as possible, because there is a definite relationship between the focal spot size and:
a. radiographic contrast.
b. total radiation output.
c. subject contrast.
d. radiographic definition.
d. radiographic definition.
94
207. A consequence of insufficient heat, or the presence of scale on the fusion face of the weld bevel, may be:
a. incomplete penetration.
b. root concavity.
c. excessive root reinforcement.
d. lack of fusion.
d. lack of fusion.
95
208. A weld made with an excessive number of passes, or inadequate speed of travel, could result in:
a. root concavity.
b. oxidation.
c. excessive root reinforcement.
d. incomplete penetration.
c. excessive root reinforcement.
96
209. A definite discontinuity that exists because of imperfect fusion of two streams of metal that have converged is:
a. a misrun.
b. a cold shut.
c. rat tails.
d. buckles.
b. a cold shut.
97
210. A discontinuity in welds caused by gas entrapment in the molten metal, moisture, improper cleaning, or lack of preheat is called:
a. dross.
b. lack of penetration.
c. porosity.
d. slag inclusion.
c. porosity.
98
211. A discontinuity consisting of one or several parallel fissures caused by the internal rupture or fracture of material while in the hot semiplastic state is called:
a. lack of fusion.
b. tear.
c. unfused chaplet.
d. hot tear.
d. hot tear.
99
212. A term used to describe the oxides and other solids, which are shown radiographically as elongated or rounded inclusions, is:
a. slag.
b. porosity.
c. suck-up.
d. wormholes.
a. slag.
100
213. An indication appearing on a radiograph as a dark, elongated area of varying length or width located at the center of a weld would probably be classified as:
a. aligned porosity.
b. slag line.
c. wagon tracks.
d. lack of penetration.
d. lack of penetration.
101
214. An oval or circular dark spot with smooth edges appearing on the radiograph would most probably be indicative of:
a. burn-through.
b. crater crack.
c. porosity.
d. lack of fusion.
c. porosity.
102
215. An intermittent or continuous dark line found at the edge of the weld groove or bevel would probably be classified as:
a. aligned porosity.
b. slag line.
c. root concavity.
d. crater cracking.
b. slag line.
103
216. A narrow, dark line traveling in irregular directions would generally indicate the presence of:
a. a crack.
b. slag line.
c. aligned porosity.
d. lack of fusion.
a. a crack.
104
217. A very thin, straight, dark line, either continuous or intermittent, located parallel to and normally on one side of a weld would be indicative of:
a. slag inclusion.
b. suck-up.
c. aligned porosity.
d. lack of fusion.
d. lack of fusion.
105
NDT
flashcards
Decks in class (38)
# Cards
-
01 -100100
-
cargar 100 a 200103
-
para cargar 200 a 300102
-
de 300 a 400103
-
cargar de 400 a 48383
-
QUESTIONS SNT-TC-1A62
-
cp 18922
-
METHODOS126
-
METHODOS 2124
-
Manufacturing105
-
Joining and Fastening78
-
cap 1 mat16
-
cap 2 materiales41
-
CAP 3 Materiales20
-
cap 4 Materiales22
-
cap 5 Materiales30
-
cap 6 Materiales37
-
cap 7 Materiales36
-
cap 8 Materiales60
-
cap 9 Materiales29
-
cap 10 Materiales18
-
cap 11 Materiales12
-
cap 12 Materiales100
-
cap 12B Materiales76
-
cap 13 Materiales12
-
cap 14 Materiales7
-
UT-1160
-
UT-2 A197
-
UTL3GUIA125
-
UT-350
-
RT103
-
RT1106
-
RT2104
-
RT3106
-
rt4118
-
rt535
-
rtn1101
-
rtnii124
