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SBA example questions Flashcards

(51 cards)

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1
Q

Describe Cellulitis

A

Bacterial Skin Infection

  • affects the deeper layers of skin and underlying tissues.
  • bacteria enters through a break (e.g: cut, wound, insect bite)
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2
Q

What are the signs and symptoms of cellulitis?

A
  • pain/tenderness
  • swelling of the lymph nodes
  • fever
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3
Q

Where is cellulitis most likely to occur?

A

In the lower legs.

(but can occur on any part of the body)

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4
Q

Treatment for Cellulitis.

A

oral antibiotics - mild cases

IV antibiotics - sever cases or when oral AB aren’t effective

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5
Q

What is discoid lupus erythematous?

A

Chronic Skin Condition (autoimmune)

  • primarily affects the skin
  • development of coin shaped lesions on the skin
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6
Q

How is discoid lupus erythematosus diagnosed?

A
  • skin biopsy findings
  • blood tests
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7
Q

How would Discoid Lupus Erythematous be treated?

A
  • topical corticosteroids
  • topical calcineurin inhibitors
  • antimalarials
  • sun protection
  • intralesional steroid injections (injected directly into the lesions)
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8
Q

What is Treacher Collins Syndrome?

A
  • genetic disorder
  • combination of craniofacial and ear abnormalities
  • impacts development of bones and tissues in the face

distinct facial features - THE KID IN WONDER

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9
Q

What are the sings and symptoms of Treacher Collins Syndrome?

A
  • underdeveloped jaw
  • malformed cheekbones
  • downward slanting palpebral fissures
  • lower eye colobomas (notches in the lower eyelids)
  • ear abnormalities
  • airway/breathing difficulties
  • speech/hearing impairments
  • cleft palate
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10
Q

How is Treacher Collins Syndrome managed?

A
  • surgical intervention
  • hearing aids
  • speech therapy
  • airway management
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11
Q

What is the cause of Treacher Collins Syndrome?

A
  • mutations in the TCOF1, POLR1C or POLR1D genes
  • these genes impact the development of neural crest cells

(neural crest cells are important for the formation of facial bones during embryological development)

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12
Q

What is a clinical audit?

A

Systemic process to review and evaluate the quality of pt care within a healthcare setting.

(ensures healthcare services are in line with established standards)

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13
Q

8 Components of Clinical Governance

A
  1. pt centred care
  2. quality and safety
  3. clinical effectiveness
  4. risk management
  5. education / training
  6. leadership and culture
  7. clinical audit and monitoring
  8. information and communication
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14
Q

What is Clinical Effectiveness?

A

Extent of interventions having the desired outcome under everyday clinical conditions.

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15
Q

A child presents with swollen gingiva and erythema.

How would this be managed?

A
  1. Address the cause of inflammation (gingivitis? Acute herpetic gingivostomatitis?)
  2. OHI, TBI
  3. Supragingival PMPR
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16
Q

Why shouldn’t aspirin be given to children?

A

Causes Reye’s Syndrome - swelling in the liver and the brain.

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17
Q

What information should be on a PSD when providing LA or fluoride?

A
  • pt information (name, DOB, RQ)
  • agent being prescribed
  • directions for use (apply x amount, how many times per day)
  • route of administration
  • start and finish dates
  • signature
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18
Q

What concentration of fluoride should be prescribed for a 15 year old with HIGH caries risk?

A

From 10+ years: duraphat 2,8000

(duraphat 5,000 is used in 16+)

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19
Q

What are the properties of amalgam?

A
  • high compressive strength
  • 45-70 MPa tensile strength
  • good shear strength and fatigue resistance
  • adapts well to cavity prep to prevent microleakage
  • good dimensional stability to minimise expansion upon setting
  • corrosion resistant
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20
Q

What 4 factors can cause implant recession?

A
  1. biological factors / mechanical factors
  2. improper implant placement
  3. inadequate soft tissue thickness
  4. complications during healing
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21
Q

What impact would implant recession have on its success?

Study These Flashcards
A

Exposes parts of the implant structure (e.g: abutment or implant collar).

  • impacts aesthetics
  • more susceptible to peri-implantitis
22
Q

GA fasting rule (2-4-6)

Study These Flashcards
A

2 hours - clear fluid
4 hours - breast milk
6 hours - solids and nonhuman/formula milk children

23
Q

Sharps Protocol

Study These Flashcards
A
  1. encourage bleeding from the wound
  2. wash with soap and water
  3. cover with waterproof dressing
24
Q

What to do if a pt collapses and you suspect cardiac arrest.

Study These Flashcards
A

DRS ABC

Danger
Response
Airway
Breathing
Circulation

CPR
call 999
call for help
(3 Cs)

25
Dose of adrenaline for >6 years.
0.15 mg/ml
26
Dose of adrenaline for 6-12 years.
0.3 mg/ml
27
Dose of adrenaline for 12+ years.
0.5 mg/ml
28
Which type of LA would you give for a **proximal restoration of a LL1**?
Buccal infiltration.
29
Which type of restorative material could be used for **root caries**?
GIC
30
**Why shouldn’t amalgam be used in pregnant or breastfeeding women?**
There is no evidence to say it is harmful, there is more of an environmental concern.
31
How many cusps do the lower 6th, 7th and 8th molars have?
6 = 5 7 = 4 8 = 4
32
Why is **lidocaine** recommended in **paediatric pts**?
lower risk of systemic toxicity compared to other LAs
33
Benefits of **Mepivicaine**:
- similar to lidocaine in terms of onset and duration - can be used as an alternative for pts with **allergies to other LA**
34
Benefits of **Prilocaine and Bupivicaine**:
- longer duration of action compared to lidocaine - often used for **longer dental procedures**
35
Which treatment would **NOT** be carried out for a patient with endocarditis?
Sub Gingival PMPR
36
If a 12 year old has no caries/restorations and good OH, **how often should radiographs be taken**?
Every 12-24 months
37
Name 5 potential causes for lichenoid reactions.
1. Medications (beta-blockers, NSAIDs, antimalarials) 2. Metals (e.g: gold, amalgam) 3. Autoimmune Diseases (rheumatoid arthritis, lupus) 4. Contact Allergens 5. Genetic Predisposition / Unknown Cause
38
Which condition is usually referred to as ‘cheesy molars’?
Molar-Incisor Hypomineralisation
39
What is **Ectodermal Dysplasia**?
Group of genetic disorders that primarily affect the development and function of the ectodermal structures (skin, hair, nails, teeth and sweat glands).
40
A father comes in with the child - he is not married to the mother but is on the birth certificate, can he consent for treatment?
If he is on the PR form. (being listed on the birth certificate does not necessarily confer legal custody/guardianship)
41
Which type of local anaesthetic would be suitable for a **pregnant patient?**
Lidocaine
42
What is a **melanoma**?
Type of skin cancer originating from melanocytes (pigment-producing cells). - considered the most aggressive form of skin cancer. - occur on the skin, eyes and mucous membranes.
43
**What type of medication are bisohosphinates?**
Antiresorptive Medication - slow down bone loss with osteoporosis.
44
What type of medication is **Ciclosporin**?
Immunosuppressant
45
What oral side effect do patients taking Ciclosporin suffer from?
Gingival Hyperplasia
46
When is Chlorhexidine prescribed?
To help control bacterial growth, particularly in **gingivitis** or following dental procedures. **Broad Spectrum Antibacterial**
47
What is the difference between the cause of disquamative gingivitis and gingivitis?
Disquamative gingivitis is associated with an underlying autoimmune/vesicobullous disorder whereas gingivitis occurs due to the accumulation of dental plaque.
48
How does the presentation of disquamative gingivitis differ from gingivitis?
The gingiva appear shiny and red with erosion/ulceration.
49
How much ppm would be recommended in a toothpaste for a 5 year old?
1000ppm is recommended from 3-6 years
50
How many ppm would be recommended in a toothpaste for 8 year olds?
1350-1500 ppm from 7-10 years
51
How much ppm should be recommended for children over 10?
1450ppm like adults
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