SC-900 Flashcards

(167 cards)

1
Q

What is the Zero Trust model?

A

A security model that assumes breach and verifies each request as though it originates from an untrusted network.

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2
Q

What are the three principles of Zero Trust?

A
  • Verify explicitly
  • Use least privileged access
  • Assume breach
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3
Q

What is the shared responsibility model in cloud security?

A

Defines which security tasks are handled by the cloud provider vs. the customer.

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4
Q

What is defense in depth?

A

A layered approach to security using multiple protective measures.

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5
Q

What is identity in cybersecurity?

A

The way users and devices are authenticated and authorized.

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6
Q

What is compliance?

A

Adherence to laws, regulations, and policies governing data and operations.

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7
Q

What is governance?

A

The framework for managing and controlling IT resources and data.

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8
Q

What is risk management?

A

The process of identifying, assessing, and mitigating risks.

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9
Q

What is privacy?

A

The protection of personal data and user rights.

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10
Q

What is the Microsoft Trust Center?

A

A resource for information on Microsoft’s security, privacy, and compliance practices.

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11
Q

What is authentication?

A

The process of verifying the identity of a user or device.

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12
Q

What is authorization?

A

The process of granting access to resources based on identity.

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13
Q

What is a security posture?

A

The overall security status of an organization’s systems and data.

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14
Q

What is a security incident?

A

An event that may indicate a breach or attempted breach of security.

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15
Q

What is a threat?

A

A potential cause of an unwanted impact to a system or organization.

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16
Q

What is a vulnerability?

A

A weakness that can be exploited by a threat.

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17
Q

What is an attack vector?

A

A path or method used by a threat actor to gain unauthorized access.

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18
Q

What is a risk?

A

The potential for loss or damage when a threat exploits a vulnerability.

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19
Q

What is a mitigation?

A

A measure taken to reduce the impact or likelihood of a risk.

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20
Q

What is a security control?

A

A safeguard or countermeasure to avoid, detect, or minimize security risks.

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21
Q

What is a policy?

A

A set of rules that govern the behavior of users and systems.

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22
Q

What is a standard?

A

A defined level of quality or compliance.

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23
Q

What is a procedure?

A

A series of steps to accomplish a task or enforce a policy.

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24
Q

What is a guideline?

A

Recommended practices that are not mandatory.

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25
What is a security framework?
A structured set of guidelines for managing security.
26
What is Microsoft Entra ID?
Microsoft’s cloud-based identity and access management service.
27
What is single sign-on (SSO)?
Allows users to access multiple apps with one set of credentials.
28
What is multi-factor authentication (MFA)?
Requires two or more verification methods to access resources.
29
What is Conditional Access?
Policies that control access based on user, location, device, and risk.
30
What is self-service password reset (SSPR)?
Allows users to reset their passwords without admin help.
31
What is identity protection in Entra ID?
Detects and responds to identity-based risks.
32
What is Privileged Identity Management (PIM)?
Manages, controls, and monitors access to important resources.
33
What is role-based access control (RBAC)?
Assigns permissions based on user roles.
34
What is identity governance?
Ensures the right people have the right access to the right resources.
35
What is external identity?
Enables collaboration with users outside your organization.
36
What is access review?
Allows organizations to review and manage user access to resources.
37
What is entitlement management?
Automates access request workflows and approvals.
38
What is hybrid identity?
Combines on-premises and cloud identity solutions.
39
What is passwordless authentication?
Authentication methods that do not require passwords.
40
What is device-based Conditional Access?
Access policies based on device compliance and health.
41
What is Just-In-Time access?
Provides temporary privileged access to resources.
42
What is Entra Verified ID?
Decentralized identity verification solution.
43
What is Entra Permissions Management?
Manages permissions across cloud platforms.
44
What is Entra Workload ID?
Manages identities for applications and services.
45
What is Entra Identity Governance?
Provides tools for managing identity lifecycle and access.
46
What is Entra ID Protection?
Helps detect and respond to identity risks.
47
What is Entra ID Connect?
Synchronizes on-premises directories with Entra ID.
48
What is Entra ID Join?
Allows devices to be joined to Entra ID for management.
49
What is Entra ID B2C?
Provides identity management for consumer-facing applications.
50
What is Entra ID Domain Services?
Provides domain join, group policy, and LDAP support.
51
What is Microsoft Defender XDR?
An extended detection and response solution across Microsoft 365 services.
52
What is Microsoft Sentinel?
A cloud-native SIEM and SOAR solution.
53
What is Microsoft Defender for Endpoint?
Endpoint protection and response solution.
54
What is Microsoft Defender for Identity?
Detects identity-based threats using signals from Entra ID.
55
What is Microsoft Defender for Cloud Apps?
Provides visibility and control over cloud app usage.
56
What is Microsoft Defender for Office 365?
Protects against phishing, malware, and business email compromise.
57
What is Secure Score?
A measurement of your organization’s security posture.
58
What is attack surface reduction (ASR)?
Reduces the areas where your organization is vulnerable to threats.
59
What is threat protection?
Tools and services that detect and respond to threats.
60
What is Microsoft Intune?
Manages devices and apps to ensure security and compliance.
61
What is endpoint detection and response (EDR)?
Detects and investigates suspicious activities on endpoints.
62
What is antivirus protection?
Software that detects and removes malicious programs.
63
What is firewall protection?
Monitors and controls incoming and outgoing network traffic.
64
What is network segmentation?
Divides a network into segments to improve security.
65
What is Microsoft Secure Score dashboard?
Provides insights and recommendations to improve security.
66
What is Microsoft Defender Vulnerability Management?
Identifies and remediates vulnerabilities.
67
What is Microsoft Defender Threat Intelligence?
Provides threat intelligence data and insights.
68
What is Microsoft Defender External Attack Surface Management?
Identifies and monitors external attack surfaces.
69
What is Microsoft Defender Cloud Security Posture Management?
Assesses and improves cloud security posture.
70
What is Microsoft Defender for Containers?
Protects containerized applications.
71
What is Microsoft Defender for Servers?
Provides security for virtual machines and servers.
72
What is Microsoft Defender for SQL?
Protects SQL databases from threats.
73
What is Microsoft Defender for Key Vault?
Monitors and protects Azure Key Vault.
74
What is Microsoft Defender for Storage?
Protects Azure Storage accounts.
75
What is Microsoft Defender for DNS?
Monitors and protects DNS traffic.
76
What is Microsoft Purview?
A suite of compliance and data governance tools.
77
What is Information Protection?
Classifies and protects data based on sensitivity.
78
What is Data Loss Prevention (DLP)?
Prevents sensitive data from being shared inappropriately.
79
What is Insider Risk Management?
Detects and mitigates risks from internal users.
80
What is eDiscovery?
Identifies and delivers electronic information for legal cases.
81
What is Audit in Microsoft Purview?
Tracks user and admin activity for investigation and compliance.
82
What is Communication Compliance?
Monitors communications to ensure policy adherence.
83
What is Records Management?
Helps manage retention and deletion of content.
84
What is Compliance Manager?
Assesses compliance posture and provides improvement actions.
85
What is the Microsoft Service Trust Portal?
Provides access to compliance reports and trust documents.
86
What is sensitivity labeling?
Applies labels to classify and protect data.
87
What is encryption?
Protects data by converting it into unreadable format.
88
What is retention policy?
Defines how long data is kept before deletion.
89
What is litigation hold?
Preserves data for legal investigations.
90
What is content search?
Searches for content across Microsoft 365 services.
91
What is Advanced eDiscovery?
Provides tools for legal case management.
92
What is compliance boundary?
Separates data to meet regulatory requirements.
93
What is privacy management?
Helps organizations manage personal data and privacy risks.
94
What is data classification?
Organizes data based on sensitivity and importance.
95
What is label-based protection?
Applies protection based on assigned labels.
96
What is Microsoft Purview Data Map?
Provides a visual map of data assets.
97
What is Microsoft Purview Data Catalog?
Helps discover and manage data assets.
98
What is Microsoft Purview Data Estate Insights?
Provides insights into data usage and compliance.
99
What is Microsoft Purview Compliance Portal?
Centralized portal for managing compliance features.
100
What is Microsoft Purview Risk and Compliance Score?
Measures and tracks compliance risk levels.
101
What is a network security group?
Provide network layer traffic filtering to limit traffic to resources within virtual networks in each subscription.
102
What are Security baselines used for?
Can be used to apply guidance from the Azure Security Benchmark to services such as Microsoft Entra
103
What are two characteristics of a security information and event management (SIEM) solution?
Collection of data from IT estate and Correlation of data
104
What two characteristics are part of a security orchestration automated response (SOAR) solution?
Action Driven workflows and issue mitigation
105
What are workbooks used for in sentinel?
Can be used to create visual reports of data
106
Which feature is only available in Microsoft Defender for Office 365 Plan 2?
Attack Simulator
107
Which Microsoft solution allows you to meet compliance standards for General Data Protection Regulation (GDPR) and Payment Card Industry (PCI)?
Microsoft Defender for Cloud Apps
108
Which identity provider allows you to use software as a service (SaaS) and platform as a service (PaaS) in Azure with the least administrative effort?
Microsoft Entra ID
108
What are the four pillars of a Cloud Access Security Broker (CASB)?
visibility, compliance, data security, and threat protection
109
What is a capability of Active Directory Domain Services (AD DS)?
manages on-premises systems by using a single identity per user
110
What is Federation?
Federation enables access to services across organizations.
111
The Microsoft approach to privacy is built on
control, transparency, security, strong legal protections, no content-based targeting, and benefits to you
112
Where can you access and review sensitive files from a snapshot of the scanned items?
the Microsoft Purview compliance portal
113
Which feature is only available in the Premium edition of eDiscovery for Microsoft Purview?
Assigning custodians
114
115
What is Microsoft Priva?
A privacy management solution that helps organizations safeguard personal data and manage privacy risks.
116
What are the main capabilities of Microsoft Priva?
* Data subject request management * Privacy risk insights * Policy automation
117
What is a Data Subject Request (DSR)?
A request from an individual to access, delete, or correct their personal data.
118
How does Microsoft Priva help with DSRs?
It automates the discovery and collection of personal data across Microsoft 365.
119
What is the Priva Privacy Risk Management solution?
A tool that identifies and mitigates privacy risks such as data oversharing and data transfers.
120
What is data overexposure?
When personal data is shared beyond its intended audience or scope.
121
What is the benefit of Priva policy automation?
It enables organizations to proactively manage privacy risks with customizable policies.
122
What is Purview Data Map?
A tool that automatically scans and catalogs data assets across hybrid environments.
123
What is Purview Data Catalog?
A searchable inventory of data assets with metadata and lineage information.
124
What is Purview Data Estate Insights?
Provides visibility into data usage, classification, and compliance across the organization.
125
What is Purview Information Protection?
Classifies and protects sensitive data using labels and encryption.
126
What is Purview Data Loss Prevention (DLP)?
Prevents accidental sharing of sensitive information across Microsoft 365.
127
What is Purview Insider Risk Management?
Detects and mitigates risks from internal users based on behavior and activity.
128
What is Purview Communication Compliance?
Monitors communications to ensure compliance with internal policies and regulations.
129
What is Purview Records Management?
Helps manage the lifecycle of content with retention and deletion policies.
130
What is Purview eDiscovery?
Identifies and collects electronic information for legal and compliance investigations.
131
What is Purview Audit?
Tracks user and admin activity for security and compliance purposes.
132
What is Purview Compliance Manager?
Assesses compliance posture and provides actionable recommendations.
133
How does Priva support privacy regulations?
By providing tools to manage personal data in accordance with GDPR and other laws.
134
What is the role of sensitivity labels in Purview?
They classify and protect data based on its sensitivity level.
135
What is the benefit of data classification in Purview?
Helps identify and protect sensitive data across the organization.
136
What is the purpose of Purview’s unified solution?
To provide integrated data governance, risk management, and compliance capabilities.
137
How do Priva and Purview work together?
Priva focuses on privacy management while Purview provides broader data governance and compliance tools.
138
What is the minimum edition of Microsoft Entra ID needed to use Microsoft Entra Privilege Identity Management (PIM)?
Microsoft Entra ID P2
139
What is password hash synchronization
synchronizes password hashes from on-premises Active Directory to Microsoft Entra ID, allowing users to use the same password in both environments.
140
What is pass-through authentication?
user passwords are validated directly against the on-premises Active Directory without storing them in the cloud.
141
What is federated authentication?
method that uses a trusted identity provider (like AD FS) to authenticate users, enabling single sign-on across systems.
142
What is Microsoft Entra Connect?
integrates on-premises directories with Microsoft Entra ID, enabling hybrid identity scenarios like synchronization and authentication.
143
Which two authentication methods are available for self-service password reset (SSPR) in Microsoft Entra ID? Each correct answer presents a complete solution.
Email and Security Questions
144
What does user risk do?
User risk represents the probability that a given identity or account is compromised. User risk can be configured for high, medium, or low probability. Admins can set up this signal without interrupting user sign-ins.
145
What is a user risk in Microsoft Entra ID Protection?
Leaked Credentials
146
What can be used to set up a unified data governance service that enables end-to-end data lineage?
Microsoft Purview
147
In Microsoft Purview, what should you use to identify invoice numbers in data from your organization?
sensitive info types
148
What are types of distributed denial-of-service (DDoS) attacks?
resource layer attacks, protocol attacks, and volumetric attacks
149
What is the purpose of Purview Data Lifecycle Management?
To manage data from creation to deletion in compliance with policies.
150
Which type of identity should you use to allow Azure virtual machines to access Azure Storage without having to handle password changes manually?
managed identity
151
What is Microsoft Entra Password Protection for?
helps you defend against password spray attacks
152
Which condition can you use in a Conditional Access policy to evaluate the likelihood that a user account was compromised?
user risk
153
What can you use to receive alerts for potentially compromised user accounts without blocking the users from signing in?
user risk
154
What feature can you use to assign users with access to resources based on the city attribute of the user?
Microsoft Entra built-in roles
155
What is User Risk?
User risk represents the probability that a given identity or account is compromised. User risk can be configured for high, medium, or low probability. Admins can set up this signal without interrupting user sign-ins.
156
What is the minimum edition of Microsoft Entra that allows you to create access packages for users?
Microsoft Entra ID P2
157
Which Azure feature provides network-level filtering, application-level filtering, and outbound SNAT?
Azure Firewall
158
For which two services can you extend Microsoft Defender for Cloud by obtaining Defender plans?
Azure Storage Azure App Service
159
Which two industry frameworks are used in the Azure Security Benchmark?
Center for Internet Security (CIS) National Institute of Standards and Technology (NIST)
160
Which Microsoft Defender for Endpoint feature regulates access to malicious IP addresses, domains, and URLs?
attack surface reduction (ASR)
161
Which feature in Microsoft Defender for Cloud Apps is used to retrieve data from activity logs?
App connectors
162
For which two services does Microsoft Secure Score provide recommendations?
Microsoft Entra Microsoft Teams
163
Which encryption method uses the same key to encrypt and decrypt data?
symmetric encryption
164
What are the three types of controls used in Microsoft Purview Compliance Manager?
Microsoft-managed controls, shared controls, and customer-managed controls
165
Which three roles have permission to sign in to the Microsoft Purview compliance portal?
Compliance Data Administrator, Compliance Administrator, Global Administrator
166
Where can you access and review sensitive files from a snapshot of the scanned items?
the Microsoft Purview compliance portal