1
Q
- Which of the following is the common cause of earthquakes? A. tsunami B. seismic waves C. eruption of the volcano D shifting of tectonic plates
A
D
2
Q
- What is the basis for classifying volcanoes? A. Chemical Composition B. Geographical location C. Height, shape, and size D. History of eruptions
A
D
3
Q
- Which theory states that the lithosphere is divided into large slabs of solid rocks and continuously moves? A. Continental drift B. Convection theory C. Plate tectonic theory D. Seafloor spreading
A
C
4
Q
- Which of the following best describes an active volcano?
A
A
5
Q
- What is the continuously moving part of the earth’s crust? A. fault B. fissure C. fracture D. plates
A
D
6
Q
- Which statement best describes the location of most earthquake epicenters relative to the location of volcanoes around the world? A. They are far from one another. B. They are situated beneath the ocean C. They are situated at the same location D. They are a few kilometers away from each other.
A
C
7
Q
- Based on P-S wave travel time differences (Station A: 3m 25s; B: 3m 58s; C: 4m 27s; D: 4m 58s), which station is closest to the epicenter? A. A B. B C. C D. D
A
A
8
Q
- Which correct sequence should you follow to locate an epicenter? I. Determine P-S arrival time difference II. Use triangulation III. Obtain data from 3 stations IV. Determine distance from station. A. I, III, II, IV B. III, I, IV, II C. III, IV, I, II D. IV, II, I, III
A
B
9
Q
- How will you relate the distributions of mountain ranges, earthquake epicenters, and volcanoes? A. Found between B. Found in same places C. Only with earthquake epicenters D. Only with volcanoes
A
B
10
Q
- What makes up the lithosphere? A. upper mantle B. continental crust C. crust and the upper mantle D. continental and oceanic crust
A
C
11
Q
- Which of the following is an example of a transform plate boundary? A. Himalayas B. East Pacific Rise C. San Andreas Fault D. Mid Atlantic Ridge
A
C
12
Q
- Which of the following represents a convergent boundary?
A
B. -><-
13
Q
- The movement of the lithospheric plates is facilitated by a soft, weak, and plastic-like layer. Which layer is described? A. asthenosphere B. crust C. lithosphere D. mantle
A
A
14
Q
- Which of the following shows that the Himalayas formed because of collision? A. Two oceanic plates B. Two continental plates C. Any two tectonic plates D. A continental plate and an oceanic plate
A
B
15
Q
- According to the diagram, which of the following plates is all oceanic crust?
A. African Plate
B. Nazca Plate
C. North American Plate
D. South American Plate
A
B.
16
Q
- According to the diagram, which of the following is the largest plate?
A. African Plate
C. Pacific Plate
B. Eurasian Plate
D. South America
A
C.
17
Q
- Which event takes place when two tectonic plates move away from each other? A. Subduction occurs B. Mountains are formed C. Lithosphere is neither created nor destroyed D. Molten rocks escape from the earth’s mantle to the surface
A
D
18
Q
- What happens during a convergent boundary? A. The crust separates. B. A new crust is created. C. Plates slide past each other. D. The older crust is melted by subduction.
A
D
19
Q
- Which of the following is associated with a divergent plate boundary? A. deep-focus earthquakes B. deep-sea trenches C. island arcs D. rift valleys
A
D
20
Q
- Based on the world map, which tectonic plates correspond to subduction zones? A. A and B B. B and C C. C and D D. A and D
A
D
21
Q
- As India and Australia move in opposite directions, which type of plate boundary will be created? A. convergent B. divergent C. normal fault D. transform fault
A
B
22
Q
- Right in the middle of the island, you can find a rift valley. What type of plate boundary exists? A. convergent B. divergent C. transform fault D. subduction zone
A
B
23
Q
- At the Alpine Fault in New Zealand, two plates slide past each other. What plate boundary exists there? A. convergent B. divergent C. subduction zone D. transform fault
A
D
24
Q
- Which tectonic plates exist in the San Andreas Fault? A. African and Antarctic B. Pacific and North American C. Eurasian and Indo-Australian D. South American and North American
A
B
25
25. What geologic feature forms when a divergent boundary occurs beneath oceanic crust? A. Alps B. Mid-Atlantic Ridge C. San Andreas Fault D. Great Rift Valley System
B
26
26. Along converging plates in the Pacific, which of these should you NOT expect to see? A. active volcanoes B. mountain range C. rift valley D. trench
C
27
27. Why does the oceanic crust sink beneath the continental crust at a subduction zone? A. The oceanic crust has a greater density. B. It is pushed from the ridge C. Continental crust is denser D. Pulled by magnetic field
A
28
28. In a hot spot (Volcano A over plume, B at 10km, C farthest), what is true of their ages? A. C is youngest B. A is older than C C. B is oldest D. Volcano B is younger than C
D
29
29. In which layer were the deepest explorations made by miners? A. crust B. inner core C. mantle D. outer core
A
30
30. Which part of the Earth is most likely the cause of Earth's magnetic field? A. asthenosphere B. core C. lithosphere D. mantle
B
31
31. Why are body waves not recorded in the P-wave shadow zone? A. Both refracted by outer core B. Both absorbed C. P absorbed, S refracted D. P-waves are refracted while S-waves are absorbed
D
32
32. How do scientists know that the Earth has layers? A. Waves go straight B. Waves travel horizontally C. Waves move side-to-side D. Seismic waves change speed and direction
D
33
33. Which part of the Earth is compared to the pit of a peach? A. crust B. mantle C. outer core D. Inner Core
D
34
34. What technique was used to develop the theory of seafloor spreading? A. Gravity Survey B. Seismic Survey
C. Magnetic survey D. Echo-sounding
D
35
35. Where does seafloor spreading occur? A. Himalayas B. Oceanic rift zones C. Mid-oceanic ridges D. San Andreas Fault
C
36
36. How does slab pull contribute to tectonic plate movement? A. Slow currents B. Edges pull down C. Weight of ridge D. The denser plate sinks back into the mantle under gravity.
B/D
37
37. How does ridge push occur? A. Conveyor belt B. Magma rises/moves away C. Gravity causes lower plate to push D. Sliding edges pull down
B/C
38
38. Which diagram best illustrates the convection currents in the mantle?
A
39
39. How does heat travel through the Earth's layers? A. Heat from the core passes through conduction to the mantle.
B. Heat from the mantle passes to the core and to the lithosphere.
C. Heat from convection currents in the core passes through radiation in the mantle.
D. Heat from radiation in the core passes through convection currents in the mantle
D
40
40. How do scientists use sound waves to figure out the shape of the ocean floor?
A. The longer it takes a sound wave to return to the ship, the colder the water
B. The longer it takes a sound wave to return to the ship, the deeper the water
C. The less time it takes a sound wave to return to the ship, the deeper the water
D. The longer it takes a sound wave to return to the ship, the shallower the water
B
41
41. What is the driving force that facilitates the slow movement of lithospheric plates? A. Atmosphere B. Moon gravity C. Magnetic force D. convection current in the mantle
D
42
42. Which of the following can be used as evidence for seafloor spreading? A. Rocks get older moving away B. Rocks get younger moving away C. Matching magnetic polarity D. Both A and C
D
43
43. What is the name of the Mesozoic supercontinent consisting of all present continents? A. Eurasia B. Gondwanaland C. Laurasia D. Pangaea
D
44
44. What was the name of the floral fossils used by Alfred Wegener? A. Glossoplanits B. Glossopteris C. Mesosauraus D. Metosanous
B
45
45. Which would NOT be direct evidence for continental drift? A. Identical fossils B. Continents currently move several meters every year C. Identical rocks D. Jigsaw puzzle fit
B
46
46. If all inner layers were firm solid, what would happen to Pangaea? A. Remained supercontinent B. Same as today C. Disappeared D. Stretched
A
47
47. Why are rocks used to support continental drift? A. Climates B. Fossils in rocks C. Similar rock structures found on different continents D. Appalachian vs Greenland mountains
C
48
48. Why do most geologists reject Wegener's idea of Continental Drift? A. Afraid of new ideas B. Different evidence C. Interested in millions of years ago D. Wegener could not identify the force that could move the continents
D
49
49. How does magnetic field reversal occur?
A. When Earth's magnetic field suddenly disappears for short periods
B. When Earth's magnetic field leaves the north pole and enters the south pole
C. When Earth's magnetic field leaves the south pole and enters the north pole
D. When Earth's magnetic field suddenly runs east/west instead of south/north
B
50
50. How many reversals of the Earth's magnetic field are depicted in the diagram? A. 3 B. 4 C. 6 D. 7
A
51
51. What discovery about the ocean floor is associated with seafloor spreading?
A. Mountains are denser than the mantle.
B. The rotational poles of the Earth have migrated.
C. The crust of the continents is denser than the crust of the ocean.
D. The oceanic crust is very young relative to the age of the continental crust
B
52
52. If Glossopteris fossils were found in Antarctica, what does this indicate about its former climate? A. Dry B. Polar C. Temperate D. Antarctica had a tropical climate before.
D
53
1. What portion of EM radiation can be seen through the human eye? A. microwaves B. radio waves C. ultraviolet radiation D. visible light
D
54
2. What do all electromagnetic waves have in common in a vacuum? A. energy B. frequency C. speed D. wavelength
C
55
3. Which property of light causes a rainbow to form? A. absorption and diffraction B. absorption and reflection C. interference and refraction D. refraction and reflection
D
56
4. Which color has the longest wavelength? A. blue B. green C. red D. yellow
C
57
5. What is the frequency of the violet color with a wavelength of 400 nm? A. 590 THz B. 630 THz C. 675 THz D. 750 THz
D
58
6. Which color has a wavelength of 510 nm? A. blue B. green C. indigo D. orange
B
59
7. Based on the information, which electromagnetic source is MOST HARMFUL? A. microwave oven B. radio transmitter C. UV lamp D. X-ray machine
D
60
8. Which form of EM radiation has the most penetrating ability? A. gamma rays B. infrared radiation C. microwaves D. red light
A
61
9. Which of the following is the correct sequence of electromagnetic spectrum in order of increasing frequency? A. x-ray, ultraviolet radiation, radio waves, microwaves and gamma ray B. gamma ray, X-ray, ultraviolet radiation, visible light, and infrared radiation C. infrared radiation, radio waves, ultraviolet radiation, X-ray, and microwaves D. radio waves, microwaves, infrared radiation, visible light, and ultraviolet radiation.
D
62
10. Practical application: infrared light. A. diagnosing bone fractures B. fiber optic communications C. night vision goggles D. sterilization of water
C
63
11. Practical application: ultraviolet radiation. A. diagnosing bone fractures B. fiber optic communications C. night vision goggles D. sterilization of water
D
64
12. Practical application: visible light. A. diagnosing bone fractures B. fiber optic communications C. night vision goggles D. sterilization of water
B
65
13. Practical application: X-ray. A. diagnosing bone fractures B. fiber optic communications C. night vision goggles D. sterilization of water
A
66
14. What is the frequency range of UV radiation? A. 3.5x10^9 - 3x10^11 Hz B. 3.5x10^11 - 3x10^14 Hz C. 7.5x10^14 - 3x10^16 Hz D. 7.5x10^16 - 3x10^19 Hz
C
67
15. What is the range of wavelengths to which our eyes are sensitive? A. 1x10^-3 - 1x10^-1 m B. 4x10^14 - 7.5x10^14 m C. 4x10^-7 - 7x10^-7 m D. 7x10^-7 - 1x10^-3 m
C
68
16. What is the energy of the wave with a frequency of 3x10^16 - 3x10^19 Hz? A. 2x10^-22 - 3x10^-19 J B. 2x10^-17 - 2x10^-14 J C. 3x10^-19 - 5x10^-19 J D. 5x10^-19 - 2x10^-17 J
B
69
17. What is the wavelength of a sonar signal with a frequency of 288 Hz and speed of 1.45x10^3 m/s? A. 2.07 m B. 4.18 m C. 5.03 m D. 6.45 m
C
70
18. What is the energy, in Joules, of a sonar signal associated with this frequency (288 Hz)? A. 0.97x10^-19 J B. 1.91x10^-31 J C. 2.30x10^-36 J D. 3.72x10^-56 J
B
71
19. An FM radio station broadcasts at a wavelength of 3.31m. What is the frequency? A. 6.34x10^7 Hz B. 8.09x10^8 Hz C. 9.06x10^7 Hz D. 9.93x10^8 Hz
C
72
20. Which of the following EM waves has a very broad part of the EM spectrum? A. gamma ray B. infrared radiation C. radio waves D. ultraviolet radiation
C
73
21. Which of the following EM wave regions has a shorter wavelength? A. infrared B. microwave C. radio D. X-rays
D
74
22. Why does a pencil appear broken at the water's surface? A. speed increases B. speed decreases C. speed remains the same D. speed stops
B
75
23. Why are UV, X-rays, and gamma rays considered ionizing radiation? A. eject protons B. eject photons C. eject neutrons D. eject electrons
D
76
24. Which is the correct hypothesis in terms of difference of UVA and UVB? A. UVA has greater energy B. UVA has shorter wavelength C. All are bad D. UVA penetrates dermis while UVB burns superficial layers
D
77
25. Why does overexposure to UV light result in sunburn whereas visible light does not? A. UV carries less energy B. UV carries less energy C. UV carries more energy and can break bonds D. UV carries more energy and cannot break bonds
C
78
26. What relationship exists between the number of images and the angle between two mirrors? A. angle increases, images increase B. angle decreases, images decrease C. angle increases, images increase D. angle increases, images decrease
D
79
27. How many images are formed at an angle of 45 degrees? A. 3 B. 5 C. 7 D. 11
C
80
28. Which formula determines the number of images formed by two mirrors? A. N=180-θ B. N=(180/θ)+1 C. N=(360/θ)-1 D. N=(360/θ)+1
C
81
29. How should mirrors be arranged for an infinite number of images? A. parallel B. perpendicular C. small angle D. 180 degrees
A
82
30. A 7cm bulb is 30cm from a concave mirror (f=10cm). How far is the image? A. 10.0 cm B. 13.0 cm C. 15.0 cm D. 18.0 cm
C
83
31. What is the magnification of the image in question 30? A. -0.10X B. -0.30X C. -0.45X D. -0.50X
D
84
32. What is the height of the image in question 30? A. -3.5 cm B. 4.8 cm C. 5.7 cm D. 7.5 cm
A
85
33. What type of mirror do dentists usually use? A. concave B. convex C. plane D. both
A
86
34. Which letters can you read properly in a plane mirror? A. B, C, E, G B. J, K, L C. M, T, U, V D. N, P, Q, Z
C
87
35. Which hypothesis is correct for the lens shown? A. converging lenses real/enlarged B. converging lenses inverted/virtual C. diverging lenses real/diminished D. diverging lenses erect/virtual/diminished
D
88
36. Where should an object be placed for a concave mirror image to be the same size? A. focus B. center of curvature C. between focus and vertex D. between center and focus
B
89
37. Which is the correct ray diagram for a real, inverted, and enlarged image? A. Diagram A B. Diagram B C. Diagram C D. Diagram D
D
90
38. Why do you see your face clearly in still water? A. dispersion B. specular reflection C. diffused reflection D. reflected in different directions
B
91
39. Which produces an upright image smaller than the object? A. concave mirror/lens B. concave mirror/convex lens C. convex mirror/concave lens D. convex mirror/convex lens
C
92
40. Which instrument is most similar to the eye? A. camera B. eyeglasses C. microscope D. telescope
A
93
41. Object location for a magnifying glass: A. at 2F' B. at infinity C. beyond 2F' D. between F' and V
D
94
42. Object location for a telescope: A. at 2F' B. at infinity C. beyond 2F' D. between F' and V
B
95
43. Object location for a photocopy machine: A. at 2F' B. at infinity C. beyond 2F' D. between F' and V
A
96
44. What force happens when north poles of two magnets are close? A. downward B. attraction C. repulsion D. none
C
97
45. Which metal should be used to make the relay core? A. aluminum B. bronze C. iron D. silver
C
98
46. Which DOES NOT apply to electricity and magnetism? A. Battery converts chemical to electrical B. Magnet pushed in wire produces current C. Compass needle deflected near current D. Electric current in one coil affects another
A
99
47. What happens to a bar magnet when broken in half? A. loses magnetism B. both halves are magnets C. one half one pole D. one half two south poles
B
100
48. What energy transformation takes place in a motor? A. chemical to mechanical B. electrical to mechanical C. heat to mechanical D. mechanical to electrical
B
101
50. How can the turning effect be increased?
A. Use thinner wire for the coil.
B. Reduce the size of the current.
C. Increase the number of turns on the coil.
D. Reverse the direction of the magnetic field
C
102
1. Which of the following is the main task of the Nervous System? A. Produce blood cells B. Remove wastes from the body C. Break down food to be used by the body D. Receive, process, and react to the messages.
D
103
2. How does the cerebellum function? A. activity, thought, and emotion B. breathing, heart rate, and blood pressure C. channel, and signal D. posture, balance, and coordination
D
104
3. Based on the illustration, which of the following is the second type of nerve fiber? A. Cell body B. Dendrite C. Myelin sheath D. Nucleus
B
105
4. Claire has a brain injury; she knows what she wants to say but can't vocalize the words. Which area of her brain is responsible for the ability to speak fluently? A. Broca's area B. Central sulcus C. Gyrus D. Wernicke's area
A
106
5. When a person's temporal lobe is damaged, which sensation will likely be affected? A. Hearing B. Taste C. Touch D. Vision
A
107
6. Which system equips a hiker to react quickly when she sees a fox run into the path in front of her? A. Autonomic Nervous System B. Parasympathetic Nervous System C. Peripheral Nervous System D. Sympathetic Nervous System
D
108
7. Which of the following glands secretes substances and influences various target organs? A. endocrine glands B. gastric glands C. intestinal glands D. salivary glands
A
109
8. From the following situations, what triggers your body to release adrenaline? A. You've had too much to eat. B. You feel threatened by a big vicious dog. C. You are waking up from a long night of sleep. D. You don't have enough calcium in your bloodstream.
B
110
9. How would these results be different if this individual was unable to produce sufficient levels of insulin? A. The level of blood glucose would be constant. B. The average level of blood glucose would be lower. C. The minimum level of blood glucose would be lower D. The maximum level of blood glucose would be higher.
D
111
10. Based on the figure, what does the graph represent? A. An allergic reaction B. An antigen-antibody reaction C. Maintenance of homeostasis D. Glands-Hormones coordination
C
112
11. Which statement best describes the events shown in the diagram? A. Secretions provide the energy needed for metabolism. B. The secretions of all glands speed blood circulation in the body. C. Secretions help the body to respond to changes from the normal state. D. The raw materials for the synthesis of secretions come from target cells
C
113
12. In developed countries, what is the average age at which a girl will have her first period? A. 11 B. 12 C. 14 D. 16
B
114
13. What day of the cycle is considered as day 1? A. Day of ovulation B. First day of Luteal phase C. First day of menstrual bleeding D. Last day of follicular phase
C
115
14. Which of the following is the reproductive system's primary function? A. Achieve homeostasis B. Ensure the survival of the species. C. Remove wastes from the body D. Adapt to environmental changes
B
116
15. Where does fertilization normally occur? A. endometrium B. fallopian tube C. ovary D. uterus
B
117
16. When does the follicular phase take place? A. between day 1 and 6 B. between days 12 and 16 C. between day 6 and 12 D. between 15 and 28
C
118
17. Which of the following hormones works with estrogen to prepare the endometrium for the implantation of a fertilized egg? A. Follicle Stimulating Hormone B. Gonadotrophin Releasing Hormone C. Luteinizing Hormone D. Progesterone Hormone
D
119
18. How does the vas deferens function? A. Produces sperm cells. B. Secretes thick and clear mucus. C. Carries sperm from the testes to the urethra. D. Provides liquid in which sperm can swim.
C
120
19. Why do males have testicles that are located outside of their bodies? A. The testicles do not fit in an internal location. B. Achieve the required number of sperm cells. C. Sperms need a shorter distance to travel during intercourse. D. Require a lower temperature than the body for the survival of the sperm.
D
121
20. What happens to the unfertilized ovum? A. It migrates back to the fallopian tubes. B. The egg automatically disappeared C. Another egg is immediately released. D. It disintegrates and is absorbed into the uterine lining.
D
122
21. What are the two ways in which the female reproductive system protects itself from pathogens? I. Cervix mucus, IV. Acidic pH. A. I and II B. III and IV C. II and III D. I and IV
D
123
22. Why is homeostasis important to the human body? A. Homeostasis responds to different stimuli. B. Homeostasis transmits information in the nerve cell C. Homeostasis allows the perpetuation of an organism D. Homeostasis helps to maintain a stable internal environment.
D
124
23. What process is being described when a piece of information in a strand of DNA is copied into a new molecule of messenger RNA? A. DNA Replication B. Mutation C. Transcription D. Translation
C
125
24. The sequence of bases in one DNA strand is AATGCCAGTGGT. If this strand is transcribed, what would be the corresponding complement? A. AGCAGGCAGGGT B. TCGTCCGTCTAG C. TTACGGTCACCA D. UUACGGUCACCA
D
126
25. How do ribosomes select the correct tRNAs? A. The ribosome acts on the presence of primer. B. The ribosome binds to the appropriate mRNA. C. The ribosome binds based on the anticodons. D. Depending on their abundance in the cytosol.
C
127
26. How does the Central Dogma of Genetics state the usual order of events in protein synthesis? A. DNA -> Protein -> RNA B. DNA -> Ribosome -> Protein C. DNA -> RNA -> Protein D. RNA -> DNA -> Protein
C
128
27. The diagram (Acosta et. al.) shows which cellular process? A. DNA Replication B. Mutation C. Transcription D. Translation
D
129
28. Where is the binding site of mRNA during the translation process? A. Aminoacyl site B. Small ribosomal subunit C. Promoter sequence D. Large ribosomal subunit
B
130
29. Which sequence of bases in the codon of the mRNA codes for amino acid lysine? A. AAU, AAC B. AAA, AAG C. ACC, CAA D. AUA, AGG
B
131
30. Which codon sets represent the amino acid proline? A. AUC, ACC, ACA, ACG B. CCU, CCC, CCA, CCG C. GUC, GCC, GCA, GCG D. UAU, UAC, UAA, UAG
B
132
31. What is the proper sequence of these events: 1. Polypeptide assembled, 2. Amino acid separate, 3. tRNA links to mRNA, 4. Transcription, 5. Stop codon, 6. mRNA links to ribosome? A. 152346 B. 436215 C. 463215 D. 135426
C
133
32. How did you change the original structure of the chromosomes in translocation chromosomal mutation? A. Broke a part B. Broke a part and attached it to another chromosome C. Broke a part, reversed and reinserted it D. Loss of a segment of DNA
B
134
33. What is the cell division error that causes Down Syndrome? A. Deletion of chromosome 20 B. Three copies of chromosome 18 C. Nondisjunction resulting in three copies of chromosome 21 D. Translocation of chromosome 13
C
135
34. Which of the following BEST illustrates the translocation mutation? A. Image A B. Image B C. Image C D. Image D
D
136
35. Why is mutation important in the process of evolution? A. Explains the link between organisms B. Infers ancestry C. Mutation creates a new DNA sequence/allele D. Mutation causes gene variants to disappear
C
137
36. How will you describe the relationship that exists among DNA, a gene, and a chromosome? A. Gene contains chromosomes B. Chromosome contains genes composed of DNA C. Chromosome contains genes composed of protein D. Gene contains chromosomes composed of protein
B
138
37. Who presented the Theory of Evolution based on Natural Selection? A. Charles Darwin B. John Dalton C. Gregor Mendel D. Jean Baptiste de Lamarck
A
139
38. Where can you find most of the fossils? A. Igneous rocks B. Granite rock C. Metamorphic rocks D. Sedimentary rocks
D
140
39. Why do organisms with close biochemical similarities show stronger evolutionary relationships? A. Varied ancestry B. Similarities in ancestors and kinds of proteins C. Similar patterns during early development D. Same vestigial structures
B
141
40. Which of the following statements best explains the Theory of Natural Selection? A. Acquired characteristics B. Organisms develop structures to survive C. Organs not used disappear D. Organisms with desirable characteristics survive
D
142
41. How will you define population? A. Group of same species in a certain area B. Group of same species in a different area C. Group of different species in a certain area D. Group of different species in a different area
A
143
42. Which pair of organisms is least related to each other (based on amino acid differences)? A. Fruit fly-pigeon B. Fruit fly-wheat C. Human-horse D. Human-wheat
B
144
43. Which organism is closely related to humans? A. Chimpanzee B. Horse C. Pigeon D. Rhesus Monkey
A
145
44. Why is biodiversity an important factor in environmental stability? A. Provides population density B. Influences growth C. Stops growth D. Sustains the flow of energy on the food web
D
146
45. Duck population observes more aggression and less healthy young. What will happen? A. Population will decrease B. Population will increase C. Not affected D. Remain the same
A
147
46. Batangas Kapeng Barako values of biodiversity described? A. Direct economic value B. Aesthetic value C. Indirect economic value D. Both A and B
D
148
47. Which of the following gases is NOT included in the category of greenhouse gases? A. Ammonia B. Carbon dioxide C. Methane D. Nitrous oxide
A
149
48. Which of the following is the most effective carbon sink? A. Acacia B. Narra tree C. Mangroves D. Rocky areas
C
150
49. What environmental outcome is likely to occur through human actions/population growth? A. Environmental sustainability is endangered B. Environment is always resilient C. Environment benefits D. Actions suggest increase in conservation
A
151
50. How should the coral reef be used to conserve its resources? A. Destructive fishing B. Promote as ecotourism destination C. Collect corals as souvenirs D. Sell coral fish to pet shops
B
152
49. How will you describe the two set up of magnetic coil?
(Magnetic Coil,n.d.)
A. In set up A, the magnet is at rest inside the moving coil.
B. There is relative motion between the magnet and coil in set up B.
C. There is a relative motion between the magnet and coil in set up A.
D. In set up B, the magnet is being pulled out of the moving coil with the same speed
B
153
1. Gay-Lussac's law describes how two quantities change when the volume remains the same. What are these changing quantities? A. Pressure and number of moles B. Pressure and temperature C. Pressure and volume D. Pressure and number of particles
B
154
2. What gas law states that "the amount of a gas in a mole is directly related to its volume at constant pressure and temperature"? A. Avogadro's law B. Boyle's law C. Charles's law D. Gay-Lussac's law
A
155
3. Which of the following mathematical equation expressed Combined Gas Law? A. P1V1=P2V2 B. P1T2V2=P2T1V1 C. P1V1T2=P2V2T1 D. V1T2n2=V2T1n1 [cite: 23]
C
156
4. Which of these statements is TRUE about gases? A. They have high density. B. They have definite shapes. C. They have high molar mass. D. They are more compressible than solids. [cite: 28]
D
157
5. Which of the following refers to the "standard pressure"? A. 105 kPa B. 760 torr C. 760 cmHg D. 780 psi [cite: 33]
B
158
6. How does the kinetic molecular theory describe gases? A. Gases consist of very tiny molecules. B. There is force of attraction between and among gas molecules. C. Gas molecules are changing and energy is gained during collision. D. The average kinetic energy for molecules is the same for all gases as the temperature increases. [cite: 38]
A
159
7. Practical application of Charles' Law: A. Cloud Formation B. Fire extinguisher C. Hot air Balloon D. Vehicle air bags [cite: 44, 51]
C
160
8. Practical application of Combined Gas Law: A. Cloud Formation B. Fire extinguisher C. Hot air Balloon D. Vehicle air bags [cite: 44, 53]
A
161
9. Practical application of Boyle's Law: A. Cloud Formation B. Fire extinguisher C. Hot air Balloon D. Vehicle air bags [cite: 44]
B
162
10. Practical application of Ideal Gas Law: A. Cloud Formation B. Fire extinguisher C. Hot air Balloon D. Vehicle air bags [cite: 44, 56]
D
163
11. Why does a can collapse when a vacuum pump removes air from the can? A. The vacuum pump creates a force that crushes the can. B. The inside and outside forces balance out and crush the can. C. The atmosphere exerts pressure on the inside of the can and crushes it. D. The unbalanced outside force from atmospheric pressure crushes the can. [cite: 57, 72]
D
164
12. How does Robert Boyle conclude his observation of a gas? A. If the volume of a gas is increased, the temperature decreases. B. If the volume of a gas is decreased, the pressure is also decreased. C. If the pressure on a gas is increased, the volume it occupies decreases. D. If the pressure on a gas is increased, the volume it occupies is also increased. [cite: 73, 76]
C
165
13. When the temperature of a gas is increased within a closed container, pressure increases due to: A. The spaces between the molecules of gas increase. B. The spaces between the molecules of gas decrease. C. The frequency of collisions between molecules and the container walls increases. D. The frequency of collisions between molecules and the container walls decreases. [cite: 78, 81]
C
166
14. Records show that the incidence of tire explosions is high during the summer. Best explanation? A. There is too much air in the tire. B. Vehicle tires are not well maintained. C. There are more travelers during summer vacation. D. High temperatures cause the air inside the tire to expand. [cite: 83, 84, 88]
D
167
15. Describe the setup in Figure 1 (Confined Gas in a Container at Increasing Pressure): A. Volume is inversely proportional to absolute temperature. B. Volume is directly proportional to pressure at constant temperature. C. When volume increases, the rate of collisions decreases, and pressure increases. D. When the volume decreases, the molecular frequency of collision increases, and the pressure increases. [cite: 89, 90, 94]
D
168
16. Which is most likely to happen when a closed vessel filled with gas is shaken for 2 minutes? A. Pressure inside decreases. B. Temperature inside increases. C. Both temperature and pressure inside increase. D. Both temperature and pressure decrease. [cite: 95, 98]
C
169
17. What law demonstrates Figure 2: Egg in a Bottle Experiment? A. Boyle's Law B. Charles' Law C. Combined Gas Law D. Gay-Lussac Law [cite: 112, 120]
D
170
18. What law demonstrates Figure 3: Comparing the balloon in an ice bath (A) and a warm bath (B)? A. Boyle's Law B. Charles' Law C. Combined Gas Law D. Gay-Lussac Law [cite: 123, 127, 130]
B
171
19. A gas occupies 12.30 L at 4.00 cmHg. What is volume when pressure is increased to 60.00 mmHg? A. 0.82 L B. 8.20 L C. 40.00 L D. 95.12 L [cite: 133, 136]
B
172
20. A balloon was inflated to 5.0 L to 7.50 L at 7.0°C. What is its new temperature if it landed in an oven? A. 187 K B. 273 K C. 340 K D. 420 K [cite: 138, 143]
D
173
21. Collect a gas at 620 mmHg and 177 K at 1.3 L. What will volume be at STP? A. 1.45 L B. 1.64 L C. 4.43 L D. 4.55 L [cite: 144, 150]
B
174
22. At -13°C the tire pressure is 1.5 atm. If volume is constant, what is pressure after warming to 15°C? A. 1.51 atm B. 1.66 atm C. 1.75 atm D. 1.87 atm [cite: 159, 165]
B
175
23. What is the volume occupied by 2.34 grams of carbon dioxide gas at STP? A. 0.07 L B. 0.84 L C. 1.19 L D. 1.35 L [cite: 166, 168]
C
176
24. Which of these is NOT a type of chemical reaction? A. Combination B. Decomposition C. Substitution D. Sublimation [cite: 167, 171]
D
177
25. What scientific law explains a balanced chemical equation? A. Law of Chemical Reaction B. Law of Conservation of Energy C. Law of Conservation of Mass D. Law of Definite Proportion [cite: 173, 172]
C
178
26. Which of the following is a factor that affects the rate of chemical reaction? A. Number of moles B. Pressure C. Surface area D. Volume [cite: 173]
C
179
27. Correct coefficient to balance: [ ] KClO3 -> [ ] KCl + [ ] O2? A. 2 2 2 B. 1 2 2 C. 2 2 3 D. 2 3 4 [cite: 174, 179]
C
180
28. Al + HCl produces Aluminum chloride and hydrogen. What type of reaction is this? A. Combination B. Decomposition C. Double replacement D. Single replacement [cite: 181, 186]
D
181
29. Balanced chemical equation for the reaction of Aluminum and Hydrochloric acid? A. Al + 2HCl -> AlCl2 + H2 B. Al + HCl -> AlCl3 + H C. 2Al + 6HCl -> 2AlCl3 + 3H2 D. H + AlCl -> Al + HCl [cite: 187, 196]
C
182
30. How many phosphorus atoms are there in the reactants for P + O2 -> P2O5? A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. 4 [cite: 201, 204]
A
183
31. How many oxygen atoms are there in the product for P + O2 -> P2O5? A. 1 B. 2 C. 5 D. 10 [cite: 201, 212]
C
184
32. Which of the following is correctly balanced? A. 2HCl + NaOH -> NaCl + H2O B. 4Fe + 3O2 -> 2Fe2O3 C. Al + 3HCl -> AlCl3 + H2 D. N2 + 2H2 -> 2NH3 [cite: 210, 211]
B
185
33. Type of chemical reaction: NaOH + KNO3 -> NaNO3 + KOH? A. Combination B. Decomposition C. Double displacement D. Single displacement [cite: 226, 233]
C
186
34. Correct order to balance a chemical equation (I to IV)? A. I, II, III, IV B. II, IV, III, I C. IV, I, III, II D. III, II, I, IV [cite: 231, 247]
D
187
35. Which is an example of a combination reaction? A. CaCO3 -> CaO + CO2 B. 2HgO -> 2Hg + O2 C. CuCl2 + Zn -> ZnCl + Cu D. N2 + 2O2 -> 2NO2 [cite: 248, 261]
D
188
36. What factor explains why powdered sugar dissolves faster than granulated? A. Concentration B. Nature of reactants C. Surface area D. Temperature [cite: 262, 264]
C
189
37. Which statement is NOT true about factors affecting the rate of reaction? A. Catalyst speeds up rate B. Higher temp = higher rate C. Smaller surface area = faster rate D. Higher concentration = faster rate [cite: 265, 266]
C
190
38. Which statement about collisions is CORRECT? A. Bonds are broken by a catalyst B. Reaction occurs without collision C. Molecules collide to form new bonds D. Reactants collide with sufficient energy to break bonds [cite: 267, 270]
D
191
39. Why do fresh fish and meat not in a refrigerator show signs of spoilage? A. Catalyst reaction B. Pressure changes C. Concentration of reactants D. Presence of microorganisms [cite: 271, 275]
D
192
40. Analyze Figure 4. Evidence that a gas is the end product? A. Gas is not soluble in water B. Bubbles are formed and collected C. Acids always produce gases D. No filter funnel used [cite: 287, 293]
B
193
41. Variables tested for aspirin dissolving rate: I. Conc, II. Pressure, III. Surface area, IV. Temp? A. I and II B. II and III C. III and IV D. I, II, III, and IV [cite: 298, 309]
C
194
42. Which will increase the rate of reaction? A. Lowering temp B. Decreasing pressure C. Breaking solid into small pieces D. Decreasing concentration [cite: 312, 315]
C
195
43. Amino acids are the building blocks of: A. Carbohydrates B. Lipids C. Nucleic acids D. Proteins [cite: 317, 322]
D
196
44. Disaccharides are double sugars. Which one is NOT? A. Galactose B. Lactose C. Maltose D. Sucrose [cite: 321, 323]
A
197
45. Which group comprises the four main biomolecules? A. Protein, lipid, nucleic acid, triglyceride B. Protein, lipid, carbohydrate, nucleotide C. Carbohydrate, protein, lipid, nucleic acid D. Carbohydrate, protein, nucleic acid, amino acid [cite: 327, 331]
C
198
46. What organs in the body store glycogen? A. Liver and bile B. Liver and spleen C. Liver and muscle D. Liver and Adipose tissue [cite: 333, 347]
C
199
47. Which does NOT show the difference between DNA and RNA? A. DNA double/RNA single B. DNA deoxyribose/RNA ribose C. DNA uracil/RNA thymine D. DNA self-replicating/RNA synthesized [cite: 349, 353]
C
200
48. Protein structure giving final 3D shape (alpha helix and pleated sheet folded)? A. Primary B. Secondary C. Tertiary D. Quaternary [cite: 355, 363]
C
201
49. How are essential amino acids obtained? A. Diet B. Cytosol C. Liver D. Ribosome [cite: 358, 359]
A
202
50. Which biomolecule causes a person to gain more weight (burning 1g fat releases twice the energy of starch)? A. Carbohydrate B. Fat C. Nucleic acid D. Protein [cite: 367, 369]
A
AALIS NAA AKO
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