Sec+ - Study #5 Flashcards

(34 cards)

1
Q

refers to the extra work or cost that results from taking shortcuts or quick fixes in software development instead of implementing the best long-term solution.

It’s like cutting corners when building a house — it’s faster now, but you’ll spend more time and money fixing the problems later.

A

Technical Debt

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2
Q

is a security behavior where, if a security control (like a firewall, intrusion prevention system, or authentication server) fails or goes offline, it allows traffic or access to continue instead of blocking it.

If an authentication server fails and the system is in ___, users might be granted access to continue working — even without proper authentication.

A

fail-open mode

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3
Q

means that if a security device or control (like a firewall, authentication system, or intrusion prevention system) fails or stops working, it blocks all access or traffic until it’s restored.

A

Fail-closed mode

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4
Q

a formal contract between a service provider and a customer that defines the expected level of service — including performance standards, responsibilities, and consequences if those standards aren’t met.

A cloud provider guarantees 99.9% uptime per month.
If downtime exceeds this, the provider must give a service credit to the custome

A

SLA

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5
Q

promotes the seamless collaboration of security teams and developers by integrating code changes regularly into a shared repository. This practice helps in identifying and addressing security issues early in the development process, ensuring that security is prioritized throughout the software development lifecycle.

Ex. Github

A

Continuous integration

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6
Q

happens when two or more processes or threads try to access or modify the same resource at the same time, and the final outcome depends on which one finishes first. This can lead to unpredictable behavior or security vulnerabilities.

Ex. An attacker might exploit a banking app by sending two withdrawal requests at nearly the same time — before the balance updates — causing double withdrawal.

A

Race Condition

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7
Q

is the process of digitally signing software or code using a cryptographic certificate to verify who created it and ensure that it has not been altered or tampered with since it was signed.

Ex. It’s like putting a wax seal on a letter — if the seal is intact, you know who sent it and that nobody changed the contents.

A

Code signing

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8
Q

is the process of testing and evaluating software while it’s running to find vulnerabilities, bugs, or security issues that only appear during execution.

ex. A cybersecurity analyst runs an unknown executable in a sandbox to see if it tries to connect to a malicious server or modify system files — revealing if it’s malware.

A

Dynamic analysis

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9
Q

the latest Wi-Fi security standard, designed to provide stronger encryption, better password protection, and improved defense against attacks compared to older versions

ex. If an attacker captures Wi-Fi traffic at a coffee shop using ___, they can’t read your data — even if the network is public or they later learn your password.

A

WPA3

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10
Q

framework for network authentication — it allows different methods (like passwords, certificates, or smart cards) to verify a user’s identity before granting network access, especially in wireless and VPN connections.

ex. When an employee connects to a company’s secure Wi-Fi, __ ensures they can only join if their device has a valid digital certificate, preventing outsiders from logging in.

A

EAP (Extensible Authentication Protocol)

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11
Q

is a network protocol that provides centralized authentication, authorization, and accounting (AAA) for users who connect to a network. It’s commonly used for Wi-Fi, VPNs, and remote access.

Ex. An employee connects to the company’s WPA2-Enterprise Wi-Fi. The access point sends their username and password to the __, which verifies the credentials and allows network access if valid.

A

RADIUS server

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12
Q

is a protocol used to access and manage directory services over a network. Directory services store information about users, groups, devices, and resources, making it easier to organize, search, and authenticate them.

Ex. A company uses __ to manage employee accounts. When an employee logs into their workstation, the system queries the __ directory to verify the username and password, then grants access to network resources based on their group membership.

A

LDAP (Lightweight Directory Access Protocol)

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13
Q

is how malicious software spreads from one system to another. It’s the set of techniques attackers use to make malware move, multiply, and infect more devices or systems.

ex. A user receives an email with an attachment that runs a downloader. The downloader installs a worm that scans the LAN for vulnerable RDP servers, brute‑forces weak passwords, and copies the malware to other systems — quickly turning one infected PC into dozens.

A

Malware propagation

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14
Q

the channel attackers use to send instructions to compromised machines (bots/agents) and to receive data (stolen files, status, logs) from them. It’s how a threat actor controls and coordinates malware or a botnet after initial compromise.

ex. A laptop gets infected with malware that secretly connects to a remote server on the internet. The server tells the malware what to do, like stealing files or spreading to other devices. The attacker can watch and send new instructions through this channel.

A

C2 Communication

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15
Q

A company’s access control mechanism determines access to resources based on users’ job functions. The system enforces access control based on these predefined responsibilities, and users do not have the discretion to modify or override access permissions.

A

RBAC

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16
Q

It’s like granting access depending on multiple factors — not just the job title, but also things like location, time, device, or security clearance.

Ex. An employee can access financial reports only if they are in the Finance department, using a company laptop, and it is during business hours.

17
Q

Grants or denies access to resources based on predefined rules or conditions set by administrators, rather than roles or attributes.

Ex. A server is configured so that any login attempts after 8 PM are denied, no matter who the user is.

A

Rule-Based Access Control

18
Q

is a quantitative measure, usually expressed as a number between 0 and 1, or as a percentage, indicating the statistical likelihood of a risk event

19
Q

is a way to categorize the seriousness or impact of a problem, vulnerability, or incident, usually from low to critical, to help prioritize responses.

ex. A vulnerability that allows an attacker to take full control of the company’s main database is rated critical, while a bug that causes a minor display error on a website is low severity.

A

Severity ranking

20
Q

the percentage of an asset’s value that would be lost if a specific threat or incident occurs. It helps quantify potential financial or operational impact in risk assessments.

A

Exposure factor

21
Q

the process of identifying, assessing, and prioritizing risks to an organization’s assets, systems, or operations, often to decide how to manage or mitigate them.

ex. A web server stores customer data. A vulnerability in the server software could be exploited. The security team:
-Identifies the vulnerability.
-Estimates a 10% chance it’s exploited and a potential $50,000 loss.
-Calculates risk: 0.1 × 50,000 = $5,000 expected loss.
-Decides whether to patch immediately or implement additional controls.

A

Risk analysis

22
Q

The process of detecting, investigating, and responding to cybersecurity incidents to minimize damage, recover quickly, and prevent future incidents.

ex. t’s like a fire drill for cyberattacks — when something goes wrong, you follow a plan to contain the problem, fix it, and learn from it.

A

Incident response

23
Q

is an individual or organization that determines the purposes and means of processing personal data. They decide what data is collected, how it is used, and for what reasons.

ex. An online store collects customer names, addresses, and payment info to process orders. The store is the data __ because it decides what information is collected and how it’s used.

A

Data Controller

24
Q

is the individual or entity responsible for the overall management, protection, and classification of specific data. They ensure that the data is accurate, secure, and used properly.

ex. In a hospital, the medical records department head is the data ___ of patient records. They determine who can access the records, how long they are stored, and how they must be protected.

25
A data __ is an individual or team responsible for the day-to-day management, storage, and protection of data according to the policies set by the data owner. Think of a data __ as the “caretaker of the data” — they don’t decide how it’s used, but they make sure it’s stored safely and handled properly. ex. In a company, the IT team acts as data __ for employee records. They back up the files, control access permissions, and ensure the database is secure, while the HR manager (data owner) decides who can see the records.
Data Custodian
26
A data __ is an individual or organization that handles, stores, or manages the data but does not decide its purpose or use. Think of a data __ as the “worker handling the data” — they follow instructions from the data controller but don’t decide what to do with the data Ex. A cloud storage provider hosts a company’s customer database. The company (data controller) decides what data is collected and how it’s used, while the cloud provider (data __) stores and manages the data securely.
Data Processor
27
provides network services directly to end-users or applications, enabling software to communicate over a network. Think of it as the interface between your apps and the network — it lets programs like web browsers, email clients, and messaging apps send and receive data.
Application layer (Layer 7)
28
Definition: Handles the transmission of raw bits over a physical medium (cables, radio waves, etc.). Simple Explanation: It’s the hardware layer — wires, switches, and signals that move the 1s and 0s.
Physical Layer (Layer 1)
29
Definition: Provides node-to-node data transfer and handles error detection/correction on the physical link. Simple Explanation: It’s like traffic control on a single road — ensuring data gets from one device to the next without collisions.
Data Link Layer (Layer 2)
30
Definition: Responsible for routing packets across networks and assigning logical addresses (like IP addresses). Simple Explanation: It’s the GPS of the network — figuring out the path from sender to receiver.
Network Layer (Layer 3)
31
Definition: Provides end-to-end communication, error checking, and data flow control between devices. Simple Explanation: It’s the delivery service — making sure all pieces of data arrive correctly and in order.
Transport Layer (Layer 4)
32
Definition: Manages connections between applications on different devices, including setup, maintenance, and termination. Simple Explanation: It’s the conversation manager — starting, keeping, and ending discussions between apps.
Session Layer (Layer 5)
33
Definition: Translates, encrypts, and compresses data so that applications can understand it. Simple Explanation: It’s the translator or encoder — making sure the data format makes sense for the receiving application.
Presentation Layer (Layer 6)
34
Application Layer (Layer 7)