CISSP > Secure Design Principles & Models > Flashcards

Secure Design Principles & Models Flashcards

(72 cards)

Study These Flashcards
1
Q
A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What is the principle of Least Privilege according to NIST?

A

Least privilege is the principle that a security architecture should be designed so that each entity is granted the minimum system resources and authorizations that the entity needs to perform its function.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What is the ‘Need to Know’ principle?

A

‘Need to Know’ is a critical component of modern Zero Trust initiatives and must be strictly enforced regardless of the access control model being used.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What is Defense in Depth (DiD)?

A

DiD is a ‘Layered Defense’ approach that utilizes the principles of least privilege and is a function of ‘due care’.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

How can Defense in Depth be applied?

A

It can be applied to physical security or technical controls, and should be systematically planned and designed.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What is a characteristic of physical security in DiD?

A

In physical security, it should be systematically planned and designed with an outward-in or inward-out approach.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What does DiD encompass in terms of technical controls?

A

It can involve a single appliance with multiple integrated engines.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What role does DiD play in supply chain risk management?

A

DiD is a common element of supply chain risk management (SCRM).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What is the principle of Secure Defaults?

A

This principle states that the default configurations of a system are a restrictive and conservative enforcement of the written security policy.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What does Secure Defaults apply to?

A

It applies to the initial configurations of a system, including the securing engineering and design of access controls.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What strategy does Secure Defaults use?

A

It uses a ‘deny unless explicitly authorized’ strategy.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What should ‘as shipped’ configurations not contribute to?

A

‘As shipped’ configurations of a system should not contribute to security policy violations.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What does Secure Defaults aim to avert?

A

It aims to avert situations where systems operating in the default state require configuration by operational users.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What is critical for enabling security defaults?

A

Automation and Infrastructure as Code (IaC) are critical enablers for security defaults.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What does the Fail Securely principle state?

A

It contends that when a system or server fails, it should have the minimum impact possible on the system’s security or functionality.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

How do fail-secure systems react to failure?

A

Fail-secure systems react by denying access or data-in-transit in case of a failure.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What is an example of a fail-secure system?

A

A fail-secure door lock will stay locked in an access control system if power is lost or an internal battery dies.

Example of fail-secure system.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What is a critical requirement of secure coding?

A

Handling error security is a critical requirement of secure coding.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What should security mechanisms allow according to OWASP?

A

Security mechanisms should be designed so that failure allows the same execution path as disallowing the operation.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What should methods like isAuthorize() return on exception?

A

Methods such as isAuthorize(), isAuthenticated(), and validate() should all return false if there is an exception when processing.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What is the principle of Segregation of Duties?

A

It is a principle where more than one subject is needed to complete a particular task.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What does Segregation of Duties involve?

A

It may involve dual operator principles, where two or more subjects are needed to modify or approve.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What is an example of dual operator principles?

A

For certain actions, two signatures or two different key pairs are required, such as for digital signatures.

Example of dual operator principles.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What is the related principle to Segregation of Duties?

A

Rotation of duties is a related principle.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
What does rotation of duties prevent?
It prevents having a single point of failure by rotating people into different job roles or responsibilities.
26
What is an example of rotation of duties?
Mandatory time off or forced vacations, where a secondary principal takes over while the primary person is gone. ## Footnote Example of rotation of duties.
27
What is an example of multiple subjects in access requests?
One user requests access to an application, another person accepts the request, and a third person audits the access.
28
What is an example of multiple subjects in vendor management?
One subject chooses a vendor, another negotiates the service level agreement, and a third manager monitors the vendor's ongoing performance.
29
What is an example of multiple subjects in risk management?
One individual identifies a risk, another person analyzes it, and a third person mitigates the risk with controls.
30
What is an example of multiple subjects in system acquisition?
One administrator requisitions the acquisition of a next-generation endpoint detection and response system (EDR), a second manager approves the purchase, and a third records the purchase in the accounting system and configuration management database.
31
What is a key suggestion from AWS for keeping implementations simple?
Delegate complex tasks to a cloud vendor, such as a Software as a Service provider.
32
How can workloads be designed to reduce blast radius?
By making recurrent, small, revocable modifications and using scalable, loosely coupled designs like microservices.
33
What is a method to decrease operational overhead in cloud services?
Use managed serverless services, such as serverless functions or serverless microservices.
34
What does Privacy by Design entail?
Privacy is integrated into technology, IT systems, services, and products to ensure data protection.
35
What is the focus of the engineering process under Privacy by Design?
Conducting the entire engineering process with privacy in mind, safeguarding personal data as important as any other functionality.
36
What does the foundation of Privacy by Design rest on?
Seven core principles that provide a guiding framework for integrating privacy into daily operations.
37
What is the Shared Responsibility Model (SRM)?
SRM is a security and compliance framework that determines the accountabilities of a cloud service provider (CSP) and consumers.
38
What aspects of the cloud environment does the SRM involve?
It involves the security of every facet of the cloud environment, including infrastructure configuration, endpoints, data, virtual operating systems (OS), virtual appliances, and network controls like firewalls and access rights.
39
What is the CSP's responsibility in the SRM?
The CSP is directed to monitor and react to security threats of the cloud itself and its underlying infrastructure.
40
What are customers responsible for in the SRM?
Customers, including individuals and organizations, are liable for protecting data and other assets such as functions and code they store in or on any cloud environment.
41
What is Data-centric Threat Modeling?
Data-centric Threat Modeling focuses on defending specific types of data within systems (i.e., file, object, block).
42
Why is simply following best practices for security inadequate?
Simply following generic 'best practices' for security is inadequate for protecting critical, high-value data.
43
What does NIST SP 800-154 provide?
NIST SP 800-154 provides information on the basics of data-centric system threat modeling so that organizations can successfully use it as part of their risk management processes.
44
What is Zero Trust?
Zero Trust, or Zero Implied Trust, provides a collection of concepts and ideas designed to minimize uncertainty in enforcing accurate, least privilege per-request access decisions in information systems and services in the face of a network viewed as compromised.
45
What is Zero Trust Architecture (ZTA)?
Zero Trust Architecture (ZTA) is an enterprise's cybersecurity plan that uses Zero Trust concepts and encompasses component relationships, workflow planning, and attribute-based access policies.
46
What constitutes a Zero Trust enterprise?
A Zero Trust enterprise is the network infrastructure, both physical and virtual, and operational policies that are in place for an enterprise as a product of a Zero Trust Architecture plan or initiative.
47
What are the components in a Zero Trust architecture?
Components include a data access policy, public key infrastructure using X.509v3 certificates and TLS 1.2 or higher, identification management, a SIEM system, a CDM system, threat intelligence, and robust activity logging.
48
What is a data access policy in Zero Trust architecture?
A data access policy defines how data can be accessed and by whom, ensuring that only authorized users can access sensitive information.
49
What role does public key infrastructure play in Zero Trust?
Public key infrastructure using X.509v3 certificates and TLS 1.2 or higher is used for secure communications and authentication.
50
What is identification management in Zero Trust?
Identification management is preferably passwordless and uses two-factor authentication with tokens or biometrics.
51
What is a SIEM system?
A SIEM system is used for security information and event management, helping to detect and respond to security incidents.
52
What does a CDM system do?
A CDM system is used for compliance and monitoring, ensuring that security policies are followed.
53
What is the purpose of threat intelligence in Zero Trust?
Threat intelligence provides insights into potential threats, particularly in a hybrid cloud environment.
54
Why is robust activity logging important in Zero Trust?
Robust activity logging is important for visibility into user actions and system events, aiding in security monitoring.
55
What is the fundamental principle of Zero Trust?
Zero Trust moves away from the hardened edge, treating every component on the control plane and data plane as its own security perimeter, with no implicit or implied trust.
56
What is the primary difference between SASE and traditional network architectures?
SASE network architecture leverages cloud security rather than a traditional hub-and-spoke design.
57
What are the components of SASE?
The components of SASE include cloud-hosted security, Firewall-as-a-Service (FWaaS), a Security Web Gateway service, and Cloud Access Security Brokerage (CASB).
58
What are the main goals of Cloud Access Security Brokerage (CASB)?
The three main goals of CASB are compliance, protection from data leak or data loss, and facilitating federated access or single sign-on to multiple SaaS providers.
59
What kind of security does SASE utilize?
SASE uses the most robust transport layer security, often with a software-defined perimeter solution, controllers, and digitally signed APIs.
60
What should you understand about SASE for the CISSP exam?
You should have a high-level understanding of SASE (Secure Access Service Edge) for the CISSP exam.
61
What are Access Control Models?
Security models used to determine which subjects can access resource objects.
62
How are Access Control Models typically implemented?
By enforcing integrity, confidentiality, origin authentication, and nonrepudiation controls such as digital signatures and digital certificates.
63
Who determines how Access Control Models will be used?
The model designer or committee, which can be an individual (e.g., a domain administrator) or a committee/board.
64
What is the best approach to enforce security in Access Control Models?
Using a multilevel or hierarchical approach.
65
What is Mandatory Access Control (MAC)?
A strictly nondiscretionary model that secures data by assigning sensitivity or classification labels.
66
What is the main advantage of MAC?
Access is based on a 'need to know' basis, minimizing scope creep or privilege creep.
67
What model do all MAC systems evolve from?
The Bell-LaPadula model for confidentiality.
68
What does the Bell-LaPadula model focus on?
Ensuring subjects with different clearances are properly authenticated before accessing objects under different classification levels.
69
What type of model is Bell-LaPadula?
A state machine model used to control access in complex systems.
70
What is the Clark-Wilson model focused on?
Information and data integrity.
71
What are Integrity Verification Procedures (IVPs) in the Clark-Wilson model?
Programs or services that run periodic checks to ensure the consistency of Clinical Documentation Integrity rules.
72
What are the goals of the Clark-Wilson model?
To prevent unauthorized modifications and ensure segregation of duties to prevent improper modifications.
CISSP
flashcards
Decks in class (27)
# Cards
Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2026 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions