1
Q
Describe the main issues associated with the transport of broilers
A
- Susceptible to heat stress and dehydration
- Compromised capacity to respond to acute thermal challenge
- Implications for welfare and meat quality
2
Q
Describe the main issues associated with the transport of end of lay hens
A
- Higher proportion of DOA
- Poor feather, excessively vulnerable to wet and cold
- Prolonged pre-transport food withdrawal
- Decreased habituation to transport stress
- Longer journeys
3
Q
Describe the main issues associated with the transport of day old chicks
A
- Thermal stress
- Air mixing in stacked containers
- Can tolerate long journeys due to yolk sac reserves
4
Q
Describe the main issues associated with the transport of pullets
A
- Well feathered, fully fed and hydrated
- Usually free from metabolic disease
- Withstand greater excursions in ambient thermal conditions compared to chicks or spent hens
5
Q
What is the role of the AWO in poultry transport?
A
- Must identify animals that need to be slaughtered first
- Identify welfare needs
- Any measures to improve welfare e.g. methods to cool animals in hot weather
6
Q
What are the 2 most relevant zoonotic agents associated with poultry?
A
- Campylobacter
- Salmonella
7
Q
Outline testing requirements for Campylobacter
A
- No legal requirement to test for this on farm or in abattoirs
- Limited testing carried out by producers and processors
- May be requested by consumer
8
Q
What regulation covers the testing for Salmonella?
A
EC 2160/2003 and 646/2007
9
Q
Why is Salmonella testing required?
A
For surveillance of disease and information from tehse tests included in FCI
10
Q
How is the regulation that applies to Salmonella in poultry implemented? What are the aims?
A
Through the National Control Programme (NCP)
- Aims to reduce Salmonella spp of public health significance and targets breeders, layers, broilers and turkeys
11
Q
How is Salmonella testing in broilers and fattening turkeys carried out?
A
2 pairs of boot swabs per flock within period of 3 weeks before slaughter. With turkeys, can also use 1 pair of boot swabs and a dust sample
12
Q
When is Salmonella testing carried out in broiler and turkey breeders?
A
- Day old
- 4 weeks of age
- 2 weeks before coming into lay or before are moved to the laying accomodation
13
Q
When and how is Salmonella testing carried out in layers during lay?
A
- 2 pairs of boot swabs (barn or free range), or 2x150g composite faeces sample (of cage reared)
- taken between 22-26 weeks of age
- Repeated every 15 weeks during production
14
Q
When and how is Salmonella tested in turkeys in lay?
A
2 pairs of boot swabs every 3 weeks
15
Q
What are the requirements regarding the FCI/production report for poultry?
A
- Producer produces the report
- Must be available to OV 24 hours before kill
- Report must state that the flock is under veterinary supervision
16
Q
What are important general signs of notifiable diseases in poultry?
A
- Should provide evidence of active notifiable diseases on FCI
- Typically signs seen on farm
- Birds crated on arrival to slaughterhouse may be dead, have respiratory signs or visibly affected (discoloured comb/wattles, nasal discharge)
17
Q
What are the 2 main notifiable diseases of relevance in poultry?
A
Highly Pathogenic Avian Influenza
Newcastles disease
18
Q
Describe the clinical signs of Newcastle disease
A
- Respiratory distress (gaping beak, coughing, sneezing, gurgling, rattling)
- Nervous signs (tremor, paralysis, twisting of neck)
- Green-yellow diarrhoea
- Depression
- Inappetance
- Loss of production in layers
19
Q
Describe the clinical signs of HPAI
A
- Swollen head
- Blue discolouration of neck and throat
- Inappetance
- Respiratory distress
- Diarrhoea
- Drop in laying
- Inncreased mortality
20
Q
What are the 2 types of Avian influenza?
A
- Highly pathogenic
- Low pathogenic
21
Q
Which avian influenza types are notifiable?
A
- High pathogenic
- Low pathogenic H5 and H7
22
Q
Describe the clinical signs of LPAI
A
- Less serious
- Mild breathing problems
- Affected birds will not always show clear signs
23
Q
When should the FCI for poultry be completed?
A
Can be completed up to 1 week before animals are sent to slaughter
24
Q
What information is included in a poultry FCI?
A
- Farm and house of origin
- Intended date of slaughter
- Number of birds for slaughter
- Flock mortality
- Diseases diagnosed
- Results of any laboratory tests
- Any medication given
- Previous post mortem results from farm
25
Describe the best animal welfare practices for birds waiting to be shackled
- Light kept low in shackling and lairage areas
| - Minimise stress in order to reduce risk of wing fractures on shackling
26
Describe the cleaning and disinfection practices in the transport of birds
- Crates cleaned and disinfected before leaving premises to avoid risk of disease spread
- Lorry cleaned and disinfected before leaving the premises
27
Describe the AMI of poultry
- Individual inspection not feasible
- Aim is to verify welfare and identify conditions that may be zoonotic
- Should include listening to birds and observation of a random sample
- Performed on farm and at slaughterhouse
28
What must be included in the OV inspection for AMI on farm?
- Assessment of tidiess/cleanliness
- Check all records
- Observe general status of birds
- Check individual birds for pododermatitis, breast blisters, cleanliness of feathers
- Check environment for litter, ventilation, light
- Provide information of general health and welfare status of flock
29
What can the AMI of poultry at the slaughterhouse include?
- Cleanliness of birds and crate
- DOAs
- Trapped wings
- Broken wings
30
Outline the flow diagram of poultry plants
- Lairage, shackling, stunning
- Bleeding
- Scalding
- Defeathering
- Whole bird PMI
- Hock cutting
- Evisceration
- Offal PMI
- Washing
- Chilling
31
Outline the EU legislation regarding bleeding of birds
- Shall not be slaughtered by automatic neck cutters unless it can be ascertained whether or not neck cutters have effectively severed both blood vessels
- Could be done by cutting the vessels or cutting the head
- Where not effective, shall be slaughtered immediately
32
How long must birds be left to bleed out fully?
- Turkeys and geese: 2 mins
| - Other birds: 09 seconds
33
Outline the regulations on bleeding following gas stunning of birds?
- Already dead following gas
- No welfare concerns at bleeding stage
- Personnel do not need to be trained in animal welfare
34
What temperature should be used for scalding of broilers?
50-54degreesC
35
What is a potential disadvantage of scalding birds?
Water set to remove feathers, not decontamination, so may lead to cross-contamination
36
Outline the process of defeathering
- Feathers removed after scalding
- Remove by rolling rubber fingers on surface of carcass
- May be point of cross contamination
37
Outline the process of evisceration of birds
- Usually mechanical in high throughput plants
| - 2 pieces of equipment, first to open vent second to remove viscera
38
What is a potential risk at the evisceration stage in birds and how can this be overcome?
- Cross contamination with faecal matter/pathogens
| - Appropriate cleaning and disinfection essential
39
Give examples of production faults found in poultry PMI
- Inadequate bleeding (redneck)
- Poor defeathering
- Bruises and fractures
- Overscald
- Mechanical damage
- Contamination
40
Give examples of disease findings in poultry PMI
- Water belly (ascites)
- Emaciation
- Dermatitis
- Anaemia
- Jaundice
41
Give examples of diseases that may be found in the PMI of poultry offal
- Collibacillosis
- Hepatitis
- Coccidiosis
- Congenital defects
42
What is an important requirement regarding the PMI of the carcass and offal of poultry?
Must be able to correlate the 2 i.e. match the offal to the carcass
43
Describe the best hygienic practice for chilling of poultry carcasses
- Chilled down to 4degreesC by air and water jets (reduce dehydration)
- After period of maturation of usually 8-10 hours (shorter if electric stimulation used in earlier stages) are ready for bagging whole or portioning
44
Describe the best animal welfare practices for birds in lairage
- Pre-arranged, scheduled arrival to avoid long waiting times
- good ventilation in lairage, controlled temperature, controlled humidity
45
Describe the best animal welfare practices for birds at shackling
- Can be performed with birds dead or alive depending on stunning method
- If gas: shackled after stunning, no risk of pain due to trauma
- Electrical stunning requires shackling before, personnel require welfare training
46
Describe the signs of effective stunning in birds
- Loss of nictitating reflex
- No rhythmic breathing
- Constant rapid body tremors
- Wings held tight against body
47
Describe the signs of effective killing of birds
- Loss of nictitating reflex
- No breathing
- Pupils dilated
- Wings drooping
48
Outline the requirements for waterbath stunning of birds
- Good size and depth for birds that are intended to be processed in the slaughterhouse
- Must be able to adjust water level to ensure contact with bird's heads
- All species must be in water up to wing base
- Entrance must be electrically insulated ramp, no overflow of water at entrance
- Adequate current and duration of exposure (min 4 seconds)
49
Outline the disadvantages of electrical/water bath stunning of birds
- Requires live shackling
- Conscious birds (aversive, painful)
- Some birds inadequately/not at all stunned
- pre-stun shocks possible
50
Outline controlled atmosphere stunning of birds in general
- Several gas mixtures can be used
- Results in death
- Important to maintain equipment properly
51
Outline controlled atmosphere stunning of birds with carbon dioxide at high concentration
- Minimum 40% CO2
- Exposure must lead to anoxia
- No animal must enter if concentration falls below 40%
- Method not allowed for geese and ducks
52
Outline controlled atmosphere stunning of birds with carbon dioxide in 2 phases
- Exposed to concentraiton of 40% CO2
| - Once unconscious, use higher CO2 concentration
53
Outline controlled atmosphere stunning of birds with carbon dioxide mixed with inert gases
- Exposed directly or progressively to gas mixture containing up to 30% CO2 with inert gases
- Leads to anoxia
- Unlawful to put birds in chamber when CO2 above 30% or oxygen above 2%
54
Outline controlled atmosphere stunning of birds with inert gases
- Expose directly or indirectly to gas mixture containing inert gases
- Leads to anoxia
- Oxygen concentration by volume must be below 2% but can rise to 5% for no more than 30s
55
Outline some advantages of controlled atmosphere stunning of birds
- No shackling
- All birds stunned, no recovery
- Improved working conditions at shackling point
- Improved meat quality
56
Outline some disadvantages of controlled atmosphere stunning of birds
- Initial aversion (unpleasant, pain)
- Respiratory effects (difficulty breathing)
- Behaviour effects (convulsions, injuries sustained while flapping)
57
Outline head only electrical stunning in birds
- Large scale slaughterhouses
- Minmum current for chicks 240mA, turkeys 400mA
- Electrodes good contact with animal, must make animal unconscious
58
What are the requirements of the head only electrical stunning equipment used in birds?
- Must have visible or audible device indicating length of time of its application to the animal
- Should also clearly indicate to the operator the voltage and current under load
59
Outline use of the penetrative captive bolt in the stunning of birds
- Positioned so bolt enters through cerebral cortex
| - Continuous checks after each shot to ensure full bolt retraction
60
Outline the use of the non-penetrative captive bolt in the stunning of birds
Correct positioning critical to avoid fracture of skull
61
What are the options and regulations for emergency killing of poultry?
- Manual cervical dislocation: birds <3kg, max 70 birds/day/person
- Mechanical cervical dislocation: birds up to 5kg
- Gas can be used on premises in case of disease control
62
Outline the UK guidance for the slaughter of poultry for home consumption
- If no other method of stunning available, stun birds up to 3kg by manual cervical dislocation
- If larger than 5kg, must use other methods e.g. electrical stunning
63
Compare PMI of birds to that of mammals
- Mammals entire carcass and parts of are inspected individually
- Birds, only a sample is inspected
64
What are the duties of the OV regarding bird PMI?
- Daily inspection of the viscera and body cavities of a representative sample of birds
- Detailed inspection of a random sample of birds (or parts of birds) declared unfit for human consumption after PMI
- Any further investigations considered necessary when there is a suspicion that meat may be unfit for human consumption
65
What legislation provides the minimum rules for the protection of chickens for meat production?
European Council Directive 2007/43/EC
66
What is included in the European Council Directive 2007/43/EC?
- Detailed legislative provisions to welfare of broilers on farm
- Number of animal based outcome parameters used to identify possible on-farm welfare problems
67
What indicators are used under the legislation to identify possible on-farm bird welfare problems?
- Cumulative daily mortality
- Ascites
- Cellulitis
- Dermaitis
- DOA
- Emaciation
- Joint lesions/arthritis
- Septicaemia/respiratory
- Total rejections
-
68
What happens if the welfare indicators on bird PMI exceed a set percentage?
- Triggers action under the European Council Directive 2007/43/EC
- Report automatically generated and sent to OV for review
- Report to APHA
69
What factors influence the development of Food Pad Dermatitis in birds?
- Litter type and quality
- Water drinker type
- Bird age
- Ventilation and drinker management
- Feed source and quality
- Breed
- Enteric disease (more faeces)
70
What are the classifications of Foot Pad Dermatitis?
- 0: healthy food
- 1: mild lesions (significant, but restricted)
- 2: severe lesions (extended and severe)
71
When and how are trigger reports regarding bird welfare generated?
- Automatic following upload of data onto system following PMI
- Generate reports if on or more condition goes over process 1 trigger levels
- Or if house mortality is above set level
- If 3 or more conditions are above the process 2 trigger level
72
What actions may the APHA take following the generation of a post-mortem condition welfare report?
- May decide visit is necessary
| - May request farmer to produce health plan with own vet to prevent similar situations recurring
73
List abnormalities commonly identified on poultry PMI
- Ascites
- Airsaculitis
- Cellulitis/dermatitis
- DOA
- Emaciation
- Joint lesions
- Resp problems
- Pododermatitis
- Hepatitis
- Perihepatitis/peritonitis
- Runts
- Salpingitis
- Tumours (rare
- Conditions associated with machinery
74
What are the rejection requirements following identification of pericarditis in poultry PMI?
- Whole animal rejected if active and sever
- Whole animal rejected if secondary conditions are present
- Whole animal rejected if birds are positive for Salmonella enteritidis or typhimurium according to FCI
75
When does total rejection of poultry carcass, including blood and offal, occur?
- No AMI, no FCI
- Systemic disease identified
- In presence of gross contamination where trimming is impracticable
76
What conditions require only partial rejection of poultry carcass?
- Localised contamination (including bile staining)
- Localised mechanical damage (breakage of skin)
- Condition where only part of the carcass or single organ is affected
- Resolved sub-acute pericarditis can result in partial rejection
77
Outline the method for poultry PMI
- Cut skin at point of keel, peel skin back to reveal pectoral muscle
- Assess condition and colour
- Peel skin down towards vent, dislocate hips, assess cartilage (should be white, necrosis common)
- Identify crop, should be empty
- Assess symmetry and health of legs
- Assess skin in vent area
- Open body cavity by peeling back pectoral muscles and cutting ribs
- Deflect rib cage
- Assess heart and liver
- Assess gizzard, intestines and air sacs
- Assess lungs
- Assess proventriculus, spleen, gall bladder
- Assess Bursa of Fabricius
78
Why does cellulitis lead to rejection of poultry?
Suggests systemic bacterial infection
79
Describe the appearance of visceral gout in poultry PMI
Chalky white material in viscera
80
Describe the appearance of and consequences of identification of hepatitis on poultry PMI
- Hepatomegaly
- Friable, necrotic foci, lesions
- Partial or full rejection depending on extent of spread
81
Why might a full crop lead to rejection?
Potential source of contamination of carcass and other carcasses with feed
82
What conditions are likely to be found on poultry legs at PMI?
- Some abrasions and fractures from shackling
- Food pad dermatitis
- Swellings
83
What is GID? Describe its appearance
Coenurus cerebralis, larval stage of Taenia multiceps
| - Forms cysts in sheep brains, multiple scolices (hydatid sand), small white dots, cauliflower appearance
84
Describe the common manifestation of Cysticercus tenuicollis in sheep
- Often seen as while lines in liver, can also appear in other tissues
- Described as lesions of "serpentine migration of Cysticercus tenuicollis"
85
What are the 2 methods for identification of Trichinella spiralis? Compare
- Trichonoscopy: muscle sample, squeeze between 2 slides
- Muscle sample digestion by enzymes and subsequently view on microscope, increased sensitivity as can increase sample volume
86
Compare the hydatid cysts and cysts formed by Cysticercus tenuicollis
- Hydatid cysts are within tissue
| - Cysts from Cysticercus would form on the surface
87
Explain the different appearances of Cysticercus tenuicollis infestation`
- Can be seen as cyst or serpentine migration pattern
- Time required to form cyst and so occurs in older infections
- Cyst is fluid filled on the surface of the tissue and with single white protoscolex
88
Explain the difference between meat quality and carcass quality
- Meat quality is about the compositional quality, physical properties and eating qualities
- Carcass quality is about conformation, fatness and weight
89
What factors can affect carcass quality?
- Breed
- Sex
- Age
90
What are the requirements regarding beef carcass classification?
- Under Beef Carcass Classification Scheme, abattoirs slaughtering >75 adult bovine animals/week on a rolling yearly average bases are required to register and classify carcasses
- Small scale operators may choose to do this
- Classified in accordance with "Community Scale"
- Carcasses labelled with classification, records kept
- People carrying out classification need to be licensed
91
What is the purpose of the Beef Carcass Classification Scheme?
- Ensure adult bovine animals are uniformly classified and producers guaranteed fair payment for cattle delivered to slaughterhouses, based on the Community (EU) Grading Scale
- transparency of market in carcass to benefit of all sectors of industry
92
What are the specifications that beef carcasses must be dressed in line with?
- Standard specification
- EC reference specification
- UK specification
93
What are the dressing requirements of the standard specification for cattle?
- Cod/udder fat on
- Crown fat on
- Bed fat on
- Brisket fat on
- Thin skirt on
94
What are the dressing requirements of the EC Reference specification for cattle?
- Cod/udder fat off
- Crown fat off
- Bed fat on
- Brisket fat on
- Thin skit off
95
What are the dressing requirements of the UK specification for cattle?
- Cod/udder fat off
- Crown fat off
- Bed fat off
- Brisket fat off
- Thin skirt off
96
How is beef carcass conformation assessed?
- Visual assessment of overall shape and flesh coverage of the carcass
- EUROP scale
- Classes U, O and P are subdivided into upper (+) and lower (-) bands
97
How is beef carcass fat assessed?
- Assessed by visual appraisal of external fat development
- Fat covered give by classes 1-5
- 1: low, 2: slight, 3: average, 4: high, 5: very high
- Classes 4 and 5 are subdivided into L (leaner) and H (fatter)
98
How is conformation and fat class denoted for cattle?
- Conformation given before the fat class
| - E.g. carcass of confromation R and fat class 4L, recorded as R4L
99
Give the meaning of each of the EUROP classes
- (S = superior)
- E = excellent
- U = very good
- R = good
- O = fair
- P = poor
100
What are the requirements for lamb carcass classification?
- Not mandatory
- But most UK slaughterhouses grade carcasses on EUROP payment grid as in beef
- Assessed for conformation and fat cover
VPH
flashcards
Decks in class (14)
# Cards
