1
Q
Deconditioning syndrome is the condition that may lead to orthostatic hypotension. According to that statement, which one is true:
a. Due to lack of mobility, there is increase in venous return and decrease in stroke volume.
b. Decrease of flexibility can cause joint contracture
c. Diuresis, increase blood flow and plasma volume
d. Increase cardiac output.
A
A
2
Q
- These statements regarding pressure ulcers are true, except
a. Optimizing wound healing, promote granulation and re-epithelization
b. Relief pressure
c. Location of development of pressure ulcer is not important
d. Bony prominence is the common site
A
C
3
Q
- These statements regarding stroke management are true, except
a. Resolution of ischemic penumbra
b. Resolution of edema and diaschisis
c. ..
d. Increase activity through spared alternative pathway
A
ga
4
Q
- Glasgow Coma Scale, Rancho Los Amigos are scoring methode of consciousness. These statements are true expect:
a. Grade IV Rancho Los Amigos is localized response .
b. GCS M5 V4 E3 is localized response to pain and eye to speech.
c. No response to pain is grade I in Rancho Los Amigos
d. Grade 4 in GCS is spontaneous eye movement
A
ga
5
Q
- Neurogenic bladder is lack to sensitivity to feel dysuria as a symptom of infection. Symptom of urinary tract infection that usually appear is:
a. Fever
b. Autonomic dysreflex syndr.
c. Increase spasticity
d. All true
A
ga
6
Q
- In neurogenic bladder management, to perform ICP we should assess the following, except:
a. Hand function to perform ICP
b. Sacral sensitivity
c. Cognitive is not important
d. BCR is positive, in the integrity of pudendal nerve S2-4
A
ga
7
Q
- Spasticity in traumatic brain injury have many consequences because it can cause the following condition, except:
a. Increase metabolic demand that can cause increase intracranial pressure.
b. Liver function should be evaluate if the therapy included Dantrolene
c. Significant etiology for contracture
d. Tendon lengthening should be done as soon as possible.
A
ga
8
Q
- The condition below is not true for Parkinson:
a. Slowing in movement can reduce ADL
b. Stage I Hoeh and Yahr include both side
c. Rigidity is not velocity dependent
d. Shuffling and dragging pattern of walking is one of some characteristic
A
ga
9
Q
- In diabetic neuropathy, the following conditions are true, except:
a. Erectile impotence is sudomotir autonomic syndrome
b. Glove and stocking distribution of decreased sensory
c. Loss of sensory of pain and temperature can cause foot ulcer.
d. Sensory disfunction is the dominant symptom
A
ga
10
Q
- This condition is true for carpal tunnel syndrom, except:
a. Median nerve enclosed by carpal bones and transversal carpal ligament.
b. Diagnosed typical sensory deficit only
c. Tendon flexors also compressed.
d. Tinnel and Phalen test are the provocative test
A
ga
11
Q
- Occlusion of cerebry media artery can cause the following condition, except:
a. Dysarthria and clumsy hand only
b. Contra lateral hemiparese and sensory more involve on upper extremity
c. Aphasia if there is involvement of language center
d. Contralateral hemianopia
A
ga
12
Q
- Wallenberg’s Syndrome has characteristic like below, except:
a. Contralateral pain and temperature
b. Ipsilateral ataxia
c. Horner syndrom
d. Ipsilateral paralysis of soft palate
A
ga
13
Q
Poor prognostic of stroke:
a. Prolong flaccid
b. Twitchel describe synergy pattern followed by normal volitional movement
c. If lesion affect middle cerebral artery, LE more recover than UE.
d. Proprioceptive is the important key function to motoric re-learning
A
A
14
Q
Impairment to perceive and differ stimulus while the sensory still intact is:
a. Aphasia
b. Dysarthria
c. Apraxia
d. Agnosia
A
ga
15
Q
Below is true for central cord syndrome, except:
a. .
b. Usually happen in older patient
c. Increase loss in lower extremities
d. Perianal sensory is normal
A
ga
16
Q
Below is true for spinothalamic tract, except:
a. Origin site from anterior horn
b. Crossing the mid line in spinal chord
c. Lamina I, III, IV at dorsal horn are site of original site
d. Convey pain and temperature
A
ga
17
Q
- Below is true for dorsal collum medial lemnicus pathway, except:
a. primary afferent from muscle and joint
b. proprioceptive of light touch and vibration
c. innervation of predominant ext. and axial motoric muscle
d. .
A
ga
18
Q
- Spastic hemiplegic of arm, forearm and leg in Brown Sequard Syndrome result from lesion :
a. Anterolateral syndr
b. Fasiculus and gracilis
c. Lateral corticospinal
d. Fasiculus and cuneatus
A
ga
19
Q
- This condition is true for claw hand except:
a. Positive Phalen
b. Thenar weakness
c. Palm paresthesia
d. Lack of electrodiagnosis
A
ga
20
Q
- this condition is true for Brown Sequard Syndrome at C4 except:
a. ipsilateral proprioseptive, pain and temperature sensory below injury
b. ipsilateral spastic hemiplegic of arm, forearm and leg
c. ipsilateral gracilis cuneate, dorsolateral funiculus
d. ipsilateral loss of pain, temperature beginning one level below lesion
A
ga
21
Q
- Motoric and sensory nerve conduction :
a. Unmyelinated nerve fibre
b. Light myelinated nerve fibre
c. Fastest myelinated nerve
d. All of the above
A
ga
22
Q
- H reflex is:
a. Analog with ankle reflex
b. Created from supramaximal stimulation of anterior horn
c. Action potential due to stimulation of motor neuron
d. None true
A
ga
23
Q
- The following condition is not indication for electrodiagnosis:
a. Asissted in determine the chronicity
b. Asissted in diagnosed UMN lesion
c. Confirm radiculopathy
d. Confirm peripheral nerve injury
A
ga
24
Q
- Contra indication of electrodiagnosis except:
a. Multiple medication, include inhalation
b. Muscle biopsy
c. Included therapy with coumadine
d. Therapy included defibrillator
A
ga
25
27. Weakness in nerve entrapment is due to :
a. Neuropraxia
b. Denervation
c. Axonotmesis
d. Neurotmesis
ga
26
A woman 30 years old, slim, complain 30 degree flexion contraction of 5th digit, abduction and grip strength 4/5, MMT 5/5, decrease in sensory of 4th – 5th digit, medial palm
a. TOS
b. Ulnar nerve entrapment at elbow
c. Compression of Guyon’s canal
d. All of above
ga
27
```
A woman 30 years old, slim, complain 30 degree flexion contraction of 5th digit, abduction and grip strength 4/5, MMT 5/5, decrease in sensory of 4th – 5th digit, medial palm
Test including:
a. MRI
b. EMG
c. Nerve conductive study
d. Arteriography
```
ga
28
32 years old man, hit his finger. His finger can passively repair to full extension. Treatment included:
a. Splinting proximal interphalanges in extension for 6 weeks
b. Central slip adv.
c. Lateral band transfer
d. Soft tissue release
ga
29
This condition is not true for Carpal Tunnel Sy, except:
a. Tendon flexor digitorum superficialis
b. Flexor pollicis longus
c. Flexor carpi ulnaris
d. Flexor carpi radialis
C
30
Tarsal Tunnel Syndrome is the condition when there is entrapment of :
a. Tibial nerve
b. Sural nerve
c. Superficial peroneal nerve
d. Saphenous nerve
ga
31
Brachial Plexus Injury, if the condition is winging of the scapula, the lesion will affect:
a. Root
b. Trunk
c. Division
d. Chord
ga
32
Wrist drop, the lesion included:
a. Mid trunk
b. Medial chord
c. Posterior chord
d. Lateral chord
ga
33
35. Musculocutaneus nerve innervates the following muscles except:
a. Brachioradialis
b. Biceps
c. Brachialis
d. Coracobrachialis
ga
34
TOS can happen if :
a. Hypertrophy of anterior scalenus muscle
b. Hypertrophy of medial scalenus muscle
c. Hypertrophy of pectoralis major
d. Hypertrophy of pectoralis minor
A
35
Median nerve entrapment can cause the following condition, except:
a. Posterior interosseus syndrome
b. Anterior interosseus syndrome
c. Pronator teres syndrome
d. CTS
ga
36
Spasticity can happen due to:
a. Muscle spindle decreased sensitivity
b. Muscle spindle very sensitive
c. GTO decreased sensitivity
d. GTO very sensitive
ga
37
The following is pathopysiology of the development of musle spasticity :
a. The muscle spindle becomes less sensitive
b. The muscle spindle becomes very sensitive
c. The GTO becomes less sensitive
d. The GTO very sensitive
ga
38
The anterior cruciate ligament (ACL) is generally injuried of what type of injury ?
a. Hyperextension with valgus
b. Pure varus
c. Flexion, valgus, external rotation
d. Direct trauma
ga
39
When a meniscus tear is present, when is the most common finding with a murray’s test ?
a. locking
b. Pain
c. Limited
d. Audible clunk
ga
40
What is the appropriate initial treatment of an older patient with a degenerative meniscal tear ?
a. Up to three cortisone injections over 3 weeks period as symptomps indicate.
b. Immediate arthroscopy with a partial meniscectomy
c. Prolonged non weight bearing
d. Trial of nonsteroidal anti inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) & activity modification
ga
41
The Principal ion needed for muscle contrantion is…….,which is stored in the…….
a. Calcium, sarcoplasmic reticulum
b. Sodium,sarolemma
c. Calcium, tranverse tubules
d. Sodium, sarcoplasmic reticulum
ga
42
The measure of VO2 max is fundamental measure of the ?
a. Physiologic functional capacity for exercise
b. Physiologic anaerobic functional capacity
c. Physiologic ability to generate power from immediate energy sources
d. Skeletal muscle dependence on Oxi Physiologicgenase
ga
43
The component of fitness include all of the following :
a. Cardiorespirator y endurance, muscular strength, BMI & force expiratory vol.in one second
(FEV1)
b. Cardiorespirator y endurance, muscular strength & endurance, flexibility,BMI, muscular
strength & endurance.
c. Cardiorespirator y endurance, flexibility, BMI,muscular strength & endurance
d.Cardiorespiratory endurance, muscular strength, …body mass, flexibility
ga
44
Propioceptive neuromuscular facilitation is a form of :
a. Muscular strength
b. Muscular endurance training
c. Flexibility
d. Cardiorespiratory training
ga
45
All of the following are true regarding exercise & post stroke care, except :
a.Strength training can safely be used in most post stroke rehabilitation programs to improve
muscle strength & overall balance.
b. Exercise has shown benefit for primary prevention but not secondary….
ga
46
What is the mos dangeorous complication of dysphagia :
a. Dehydration c.Malnutrition
b. Aspiration d.Emotional problem
ga
47
Exercise training in pulmonary rehabilitation must consider all of these aspect, except :
a. Nutritional status c.Blood gas analysis
b. Cardiovascular problem d.Height of the patient
ga
48
These are possible mechanism contributing to dyspnea in COPD, except:
a. increase ventilatory demand b.Dynamic airway compression
c. Dynamic hyperinflation d.Upper & LE muscle weakness
ga
49
Diseasse specific Health Related Quality Of Life Questionnaires in COPD problem are all of
These, except :
a.Short-form 36 questionnaire c.SGRQ
b.Chronic respiratory disease questionnaire d.Breathing problem Questionnaire
ga
50
Respiratory musle training has potential benefits especially in patients with :
a. Mild COPD C.Low general endurance
b. Weaning failure d.Mild COPD &…..
ga
51
Minimal clinically important difference of 6 MWT that was evidence based is:
a. 76 m (range 54-93 m)
b. 106 m (range 74-113 m)
c. 54 m (range 37-71 m)
d. 34 m (range 21-54 m)
ga
52
All the statement below are heart disease that need cardiac rehab program, except:
a. post MCI
b. post CABG
c. chronic congestive heart failure
d. severe aritmia
ga
53
if patient with post MCI become very frail, exercises training is prescribed as this:
a. intensity as low as 60% of max HR
b. intensity 60% of max HR
c. Intensity 60-70% max HR
d. Intensitiy 70-80% max HR
ga
54
One of the statement below are an absolute contraindication to be tolerated in exercises:
a. significant pulmonary hypertension
b. tachyaritmias or bradyaritmias
c. unstable angina with recent chest pain
d. moderate valvular heart disease
ga
55
The most commonly used treadmill protocol that can be tolerated better by patient with CHF is:
a. Noughton b. Weber c. Balke d. Modified Bruce
ga
56
The syanotic type of congenial heart defect is:
| a. VSD b. ASD c. Transpotition of Great artery d. patent ductus arteriosus
ga
57
This specific exercise training for patient with post CABG should be avoid is:
a. aerobic training
b. anaerobic training
c. endurance training
d. strengthening training
ga
58
Beneficial effect of exercise training for cardiac rehab is, except:
a. reducing plasma glucose
b. increase LDL cholesterol
c. Increase HDL cholesterol
d. lowering resting blood pressure
ga
59
. The trainer for PWD in CBR area is:
| a. family b. cadres c. formal leader d. community
ag
60
Self survey should be done after:
a. training CBR cadres
b. village mini workshop
c. dissemination information at provincial level
d. implementation of CBR manual
ga
61
If the PWD lives in CBR area has been going to Rehab Dept. so the PWD:
a. do not need the manuals because already treated by professionals
b. Still need the manual for home program
c. still need CBR program tohave support from community
d. still need CBR program to reach 23 criterias of independency
ga
62
```
Metricts consist of:
a. type of disability
b type of activity
c. type of disabililty and activity
d. type of disability activity and 23 criterias of independency.
```
ga
63
Type 2 diabetic patients should recommended exercise if blood glucose level:
a. exceed 250 mg/dl
b. equivalent 250 mg/dl or less than 250 mg/dl
c. 250 mg/dl with ketosis
d. recommended exercise in all blood glucose level
ga
64
Exercise for diabetic patient is beneficial because:
a. increase blood glucose level
b. increase insulin sensitivity
c. increase insulin resistance
d. increase lipid blood level
ga
65
All of factors are required for diabetic shoes, except:
a. wide toe box
b. rocker bottom sole
c. insole made of soft material that even distribution of plantar pressure
d. heels must greater/higher than 2 inches
ga
66
. this exercise component is better to be avoided for osteoporotic patients:
a. resistance
b. aerobic low impact
c. isotonic
d. isometric
ga
67
Drop foot deformity is the result from Morbus Hansen neuropathy of:
a. n. tibialis posterior
b. n. peroneus
c. n. femoralis
d. n. ischiadicus
ga
68
pressure garment is external pressure to prevent hypertrophic scar of burned patients with purpose:
a. reduce capillary perfusion
b. increase tissue oxygenation
c. increase cellular activity
d. increase collagen sintesization
ga
69
Range of motion exercises for all joints are acceptable for osteoporotic patient, except:
a. flexion of the trunk
b. lateral bending of the trunk
c. rotation of the trunk
d. extension of the trunk
ga
70
A 50 year old woman complains of pain around her right arm after having carried a heavy bg on her forearm. The pain is aggravated when doing overhead activities or raising the arm. On examination there is palpable tenderness over the proximal area of the right arm. You are thinking of a biceps tendinitis, and so you will have to do a thourough physical examination to determine your final diagnosis and management
72. The physical examination will typically reveal:
a. Absent or diminished biceps tendon reflexes
b. decrease ROM of the right arm
c. tenderness over the lateral aspect of the right arm
d. significant palpable tenderness at the bicipital groove
ga
71
A 50 year old woman complains of pain around her right arm after having carried a heavy bg on her forearm. The pain is aggravated when doing overhead activities or raising the arm. On examination there is palpable tenderness over the proximal area of the right arm. You are thinking of a biceps tendinitis, and so you will have to do a thourough physical examination to determine your final diagnosis and management
which test(s) is/ are most appropriate
a. Speed’s test
b. Yergason test
c. Impingement test
d. All of the above
ga
72
Which of the following is the correct description of Speed’s test?
a. the examiner provides resistance to abduction of the shoulder with the elbow in extension and supination of the forearm.
b. The examiner provides resistance to forward flexion of the shoulder with the elbow in extension and supination of the forearm
c. the examiner provides resistance to abduction of the shoulder with the elbow in extension and pronation of the forearm
d. the examiner provides resistance to external rotation of shoulder with elbow in flexion and supination of the forearm.
ga
73
which of the following is the correct description of Yergason’s test?
a. the examiner provides resistance against supination of the forearm with elbow flexed at 90 degrees
b. the examiner provides resistance against supination of the forearm with elbow in extension
c. the examiner providers resistance against pronation of the forearm with elbow flexed at 90
d. the examiner provides resistance against pronation of the forearm with the elbow in extension
ga
74
wanita 26 tahun came to rehabilitation unit with hope of recovering her walking ability, she had a vehicle accident 1 years ago
Sensory function was N down to level as high as the belly button diminished from the lower abdomen & below was absent on ankle level. Muscle strength was good on each side of the ue, but on both LE the muscle contraction was barely palpable. Which of following statement for this patient true ?
The NL of this patient is T20
The NL of this patient is T9
The NL of this patient is T12
The NL can not determined.
ga
75
Which study is best for assessing the size of intertubercular groove ( in biceps tendiditis) ?
a. electrodiagnosis
b. plain radiology
c. athrography
d. USG
B
76
appropriate process for therapy of biceps tendonitis:
a. corticosteroid injection into the biceps tendon
b. corticosteroid injection surrounding tissue of the tendon
c. progressive ressistance exercise
d. arthroscopy
B
77
25 th, perempuan, kecelakaan 1 tahun lalu, paraplegi. Sensori normal sampai ke belly button, di bawah pusat tidak ada sensori. Kekuatan otot pada UE rata-rata good, pada LE hanya teraba kontraksi.
78. a. The neurological level is T10
b. the neurological level is T9
c. the neurological level is T12
d. the neurological level can not determined
D
78
25 th, perempuan, kecelakaan 1 tahun lalu, paraplegi. Sensori normal sampai ke belly button, di bawah pusat tidak ada sensori. Kekuatan otot pada UE rata-rata good, pada LE hanya teraba kontraksi
next step examination for functional diagnosis is:
a. plain X-ray of the vertebrae
b. anal sensation and anal voluntary contraction
c. ACR and BCR examination
d. ice water test
B
79
25 th, perempuan, kecelakaan 1 tahun lalu, paraplegi. Sensori normal sampai ke belly button, di bawah pusat tidak ada sensori. Kekuatan otot pada UE rata-rata good, pada LE hanya teraba kontraksi.
walking prognosis for this patient;
a. good, because tha patient is still young
b. good ifshe can do very hard training
c. poor ,because it has been a year after the injury
d. poor, because the motor score is only 60
C
80
25 th, perempuan, kecelakaan 1 tahun lalu, paraplegi. Sensori normal sampai ke belly button, di bawah pusat tidak ada sensori. Kekuatan otot pada UE rata-rata good, pada LE hanya teraba kontraksi
program for ambulation training are, except:
a. strengthening of UE
b. strengthening of LE
c. balance trainging
d. endurance training
B
81
Laki-laki, usia 18 tahun, kecelakaan 2 minggu lau. Dua hari lalu masuk unit rehabilitasi menggunakan kursi roda standar. Sensori intak sampai jari tengah tangan, di bawahnya 0. Kekuatan otot UE :sampai elbow ekstensor normal, di bawahnya fair. Kekuatan otot LE: fair sampai knee ekstensor, di bawahnya poor. Anal voluntary contractin lemah. Pasien memakai indwelling catheter.
82. functional diagnosis pasien ini:
a. SCI AIS C, neurological level C8
b. SCI AIS D neurological level C8
c. SCI AIS C, neurological level T1
d. SCI AIS D, neurological level T1
A
82
Laki-laki, usia 18 tahun, kecelakaan 2 minggu lau. Dua hari lalu masuk unit rehabilitasi menggunakan kursi roda standar. Sensori intak sampai jari tengah tangan, di bawahnya 0. Kekuatan otot UE :sampai elbow ekstensor normal, di bawahnya fair. Kekuatan otot LE: fair sampai knee ekstensor, di bawahnya poor. Anal voluntary contractin lemah. Pasien memakai indwelling catheter
Which statement is true;
a. SCI AIS C: incomplete SCI with motor preserved below the neurological level, and at least half of the key muscle have strength of 3.
b. SCI AIS C incomplete SCI with motor preserved below the neurological level, and more than half of the key muscle have strength of 3 or more.
c. SCI AIS D: incomplete SCI with motor preserved below the neurological level, and at least half of the key muscle have strength of 3 or more
d. SCI AIS D : incomplete SCI with motor preserved below the neurological level, and at least half of the key muscle have strength of 3 or more
A
83
Laki-laki, usia 18 tahun, kecelakaan 2 minggu lau. Dua hari lalu masuk unit rehabilitasi menggunakan kursi roda standar. Sensori intak sampai jari tengah tangan, di bawahnya 0. Kekuatan otot UE :sampai elbow ekstensor normal, di bawahnya fair. Kekuatan otot LE: fair sampai knee ekstensor, di bawahnya poor. Anal voluntary contractin lemah. Pasien memakai indwelling catheter
for bladder management, the measurement are, except:
a. voiding diary
b. ice water test
c. urine analyze and urine culture
d. bladder volume capacity
B
84
Laki-laki, usia 18 tahun, kecelakaan 2 minggu lau. Dua hari lalu masuk unit rehabilitasi menggunakan kursi roda standar. Sensori intak sampai jari tengah tangan, di bawahnya 0. Kekuatan otot UE :sampai elbow ekstensor normal, di bawahnya fair. Kekuatan otot LE: fair sampai knee ekstensor, di bawahnya poor. Anal voluntary contractin lemah. Pasien memakai indwelling catheter
the patient has increase in patella tendon jerk, and has clonus. What is you inform about this condition?
a. intermitten catheterization is contraindicated
b. the ICP can be done more than 5 times a day
c. no connectivity between this condition and the ICP
d. the condition can influence difficulty for ICP later
D
85
long flexor tendon of the hand area mostly innervated by:
a. C6
b. C7
c. C8
d. T1
C
86
In advance carpal tunnel syndrome, these muscles are very weak, except:
a. first lumbrical
b. flexor pollicis brevis
c. abductor pollicis brevis d. opponent pollicis
A
87
The smallest unit of contraction:
a. skeletal muscle cell
b. extrafusal fiber
c. sarcomere
d. actin and myosin
D
88
a 23 years man, EMG reveals 4+ fibrillatiuon at level C5-C6. No voluntary contraction in C5-C6. nerve conduction study of median and ulnar are normal. Where is the injury:
a. neuropraxia with good prognosis
b. roots avulsion with por prognosis
c. severe brachial plexus injury of lateral cord
d. severe brachial plexus injury of upper trunk
A
89
A woman came after a removal of the cast because of proximal radial fracture. There is weakness in pronation, wrist flexion, finer thumb flexion. Normal median nerve at the wrist. 70% conduction block at mid humerus. Fibrillation and sharp waves in intrinsic muscles. What is your next step?
a. refer for nerve exploration
b. MRI
c. wrist splint and reassurance of favorable program
d. ES
D
90
Influence of EMG results, except:
a. types of electrodes
b. body temperature
c. age
d. sex
D
91
Pitfalls of EMG can get:
a. level or location of the pathology
b. severity of the pathology
c. motor and sensory conduction velocity
d. etiology of the pathology
D
92
These are correct about H-reflex, except:
a. polysynaptic
b. average value is 29 ms in adult
c. typical test for S1 root
d. H is for Hoffman
A
93
An hour after nerve lesion, nerve conduction velocity distal of the lesion is normal. There is no respond proximal of the lesion. The injury is:
a. , neuropraxia
b. axon cachexia
c. axonotmesis
d. Neurotmesis
A
94
All are correct about NCV, except:
a. antidromic technique
b. ortodromic technique
c. ring electrode
d. needle electrode
C
95
All are influence muscle strength contraction, except:
a. amount of actin and myosisn
b. number of motor unit
c. starting poiny or position of muscle contraction
d. muscle volume
C
96
Not radial lesion:
a. ape hand
b. weak finger extensors
c. forearm in pronation position
d. wrist in flexion position
A
97
These are correct about EMG or NCV, except:
a. know function of motor unit
b. know level of pathology
c. nerve conduction study
d. know etiology of the pathology
D
98
4 years child, tetraplegy, normal cognition, increase tone in LE, able to sit, weak trunk, normal head control. There is flexor posture in right UE. What is the type of wheelchair?
a. hemi wheelchair for self propulsion
b. standard wheelchair since the powered wheelchair is not safe
c. no wheelchair and motivate to walk
d. powered wheelchair
C
99
Stroke on posterior inferior cerebellar artery, what is the syndrome?:
a. Benedict
b. Wallenberg
c. Millard-Gubler
d. Foville
B
100
True about Bell’s palsy:
a. usually bilateral
b. clear recovery at least in 50% cases
c. rarely affect taste
d. decrease ipsilateral facial sensation
B
101
Muscle dystrophy. Exercise program for respiration:
a. increase maximal inspiration pressure
b. clinically efficient, proven by spirometry
c. decrease incidence of pneumonia
d. increase endurance of respiratory muscles
D
102
Stroke patient, language problem. Fluent and good comprehension, can not do repetition. The Lesion is on:
a. Wernicke
b. prefrontal
c. angular gyrus
d. arcuata fasciculus
ga
103
Stroke, weak LE more than UE:
a. anterior commitant artery
b. anterior cerebral artery
c. middle cerebral artery
d. posterior cerebral artery
B
104
Gross Motor Function Measurement of 3:
a. walking without restriction
b. self mobility with limitation, need powered assistive devices
c. walking with assistive devices
d. walking without assistive devices
C
105
Dyskinetic type:
a. chorea: slow rhythmic movement, abnormal movement
b. athethosis: slow writhing involuntary movement of agonist and antagonist muscle;es, increase with emotion
c. dystonia: uunsteadyness with uncoordinated movement
d. ataxic: abrupt, irregular, jerky movement
B
106
Spastic, goal of AFO in equines foot:
a. prevent contracture
b. improve alignment of hind foot
c. control excessive knee extension in stance
d. all of the above is true
A
107
Oxygen debt in COPD, except:
a. inadequate gas exchange
b. bent forward and kyphotic posture
c. loss of tone of abdominal muscles
d. increase elasticity of lung tissue
ga
108
Wheel chair using, energy expenditure is equivalent to:
a. less than walking downstairs
b. less than bedside commode
c. more than standing relax
d. all of the above is true
C
109
Wheel chair using, energy expenditure is equivalent to:
a. less than walking downstairs
b. less than bedside commode
c. more than standing relax
d. all of the above is true
D
110
After transradial amputation of dominance hand :
a. learn to write with the prosthese
b. return to activity with hand prosthese
c. switch hand dominance
d. dependent in all activity
C
111
Ischial containment socket design for an above knee prosthesis:
a. the medial-lateral diameter is generally wider than anterior posterior diameter, allowing containment of ischium and ramus
b. pressure over Scarpa’s triangle forces the ischium into a posterior ischial containtment area.
c. containing of the ischium, trochanter, and distal femur securely within the socket provides improved biomechanical function of the hip abductors to help stabilize the pelvis during stance phase
d. suction suspention is required for fitting of an ischial-containment socket
C
112
Circumducted gait in patient with above kee amputation, caused by:
a. rigid heel in SACH foot
b. inadequate friction in prosthese knee unit
c. prosthesis foot is set in dorsiflexion
d. inadequate socket suspension
D
113
Transfemoral amputasi dengan execesive knee flexion during stance phase :
Hip Flexion contraction
114
In Spastic, AFO to correct severe equines foot :
a. double up right short leg brace with klenzak ankle.
b. Spring assist dorsifleksor AFO
c. Molded AFO
d. double upright short leg brace dengan …
ga
115
Chronaxy is :
a. twice rheobase
b. time to elicit muscle contraction as same as twice rheobase
ga
116
Not true about prosthesis.
a. false joint between prosthesis & limb
b.
c. Good sensory feedback
ga
117
Mechanism of radiant heat th/:
a. converse on heat
b. high energy photon penetrate
c. converted to heat
d. all of the above
ga
118
ES for denervated muscle use:
a. rectangular type
b. sinusoidal type
c. homofaradic type
d. exponential type
ga
119
therapy cause burn to internal bone fixation :
a. Galvanic current
b. US
c. high freq SWD
d. High freq MWD
ga
120
Terminal device prosthetic:
a. Glenohumeral flexion
b. Glenohumeral ext
c. Biscapular elevation
d. Biscapular adduction
ga
121
When upper extremity prosthetic fitting
a. within the 1st month
b. residual limb strength full
c. patient request prosthesis
d. residual limb volume has stabilized
ga
122
true about prosthesis
c. good sensory feedback
123
Stages of swallowing below is true, except:
a. oral phase include propulsion of bolus to the faring by tongue
b. oral preparatory phase include initiation of swallowing response
c. Esophageal phase include bolus moves through esophagus through stomach by peristaltic
d. the pharyngeal stage there is elevation and anterior movement of the larynx.
ga
124
Physical examination in OA Shoulder :
a. Pasif & aktif ROM limited
b. Only aktif rom limited
ga
125
Screening procedure symptoms of dysphagia:
1. coughing behavior
2. history of pneumonia
3. residual food in mouth
4. food squeeze out of the nose
ga
126
OA classification:
1. primary OA if predisposition function is clear
2. Idiopathic or primary OA
3. Secondary OA does not follow local p
4. trauma lead to secondary OA
ga
127
Initial treatment of Bicipital tendinitis:
1. Anti inflammatory medication
2. Therapeutic modality
3. Avoidance of activities provoke pain
4. Aggressive strengthening of the shoulder
ga
128
Staging of joint damage in hemophilia:
1. Hemarthrosis
2. Inflammation stage
3. Panarthritis
4. Regressive stage
ga
129
Characteristic of OA wrist:
1. Joint space narrowing
2. Subchondral sklerosis
3. Osteophyte formation
4. Osteopenia
ga
130
Influence of cond-velocity
1. age
2. sex
3. room temperature
4. skin colour
ga
131
Motor unit:
1. target system in EMG
2. Consist of 1 motor cell in anterior horn of med.spin and muscle fibers innervated
3. electrical action called MUAP
4. Muscle fiber depends on particular muscle
ga
132
Can detected by EMG:
1. Disturbance of peripheral nervous system
2. disturbance of neuromuscular junction
3. distrubance of muscle function
4. the level or location of peripheral nerve injury
ga
133
shoe wear modification for rheumatoid foot;
1. BY Controlling instability
2. relieving pressure
3. many of the more disabling hindfoot and forefoot can be delayed or alleviated
4. allowing patient to continue effective ambulation
ga
134
Requirement of good shoe in normal child:
1. quadriangular in shape
2. flexible
3. Flat with no heel elevation
4. Porous to prevent skin maceration
ga
135
. The Aim of Rehabilitation for disfagia:
1. Prevent aspiration
2. Maintain nutrition intake
3. reestablish oral eating safest level
4. determine surgery indication
ga
136
Clinical exam for disfagia
1. language
2. ability to mobilisation
3. Posture
4. quality for respiration
ga
137
Positition sense could be abnormal:
1. Brown-sequard syndrome
2. Tabes dorsalis
3. subacute combined degeneration
4. anterior cord syndrome
ga
138
. the following is correct about muscle spindle
1. stimulated sudden elongation muscle
2. Main function to monitor muscle tone
3. the fastest primary afferent fiber coming from nuclear bag
4. innervated by gamma motor neuron
ga
139
Typical spasticity pattern in stroke
1. retraction, depression and internal rotation of shoulder
2. protraction and external rotation of shoulder
3. flexion and adduction of fingers
4. forearm extension
ga
140
functional outcome of L2 paraplegia AIS A :
1. independent bladder and bowel
2. independent ambulation axillary crutches + KAFO
3. independent pressure sore relieve
4. requieres no wheelchair for ambulation
ga
141
Stroke vertebrobasilar manifestation:
1. ataxia
2. global aphasia
3. hemiplegia alternans facialis
4. uninhibited neurogenic bladder
ga
142
proprioceptive disturbances:
1. brown-sequard syndrome
2. Tabels dorsalis
3. stroke
4. funiculus anterior lesion
ga
143
Biofeedback therapy:
1. muscle reeducation for volitional move
2. reeducation for pelvic floor musculature
3. inhibite spasticity
4. to strengthen muscle
ga
144
Blindness in leprosy:
1. n. opticus
2. n. trigeminal
3. n. ocullomotor
4. n. facialis
ga
145
Inhibitory nociceptive:
1. endorphin
2. GABA
3. serotonin
4. glutamate
ga
146
Thickening of the nerve frequently in leprosy:
1. greater retroauricular nerve
2. musculocutaneus nerve
3. radiocutaneus nerve
4. radial nerve
ga
147
management for insensitive foot in leprosy:
1. local antibiotic
2. UV lamp
3. underwater US
4. soaking, oiling and scrapping the foot
ga
148
predictor for Bell’s palsy:
1. promotion health
2. slowing disease progression
3. prolongation of function independence
4. prevention of aortic anerism
ga
149
Predictor of poor prognosis in Bells’ palsy:
1. DM
2. Hypertension
3. Pregnancy
4. Dryness of the eye
ga
Semester 8
flashcards
Decks in class (4)
# Cards
