1
Q
What are the minimum requirements for Windows 11?
A
- CPU: 1 GHz
- RAM: 4 GB
- Free drive space: 64 GB
- UEFI (secure boot) capable
- TPM 2.0
- DirectX 12
- 720p resolution
These requirements ensure compatibility with Windows 11 features.
2
Q
Name some common system tools in Windows.
A
- Task Manager
- Microsoft Management Console (MMC)
- Event Viewer
- Disk Management
- Task Scheduler
- Device Manager
- Certificate Manager
- Local User and Groups
- Performance Monitor
- Group Policy Editor
- System Information
- Resource Monitor
- System Configuration
- Disk Cleanup
- Disk Defragment
- Registry Editor
Many of these tools have been migrated to the Settings app.
3
Q
True or false: Remote Desktop connection software (RDP) allows a user to control a remote computer’s GUI.
A
TRUE
RDP enables remote access to another computer’s graphical interface.
4
Q
What is the default path for %systemroot% in Windows?
A
C:\Windows
This is where the Windows operating system files are typically stored.
5
Q
What does the dir command do in Windows?
A
Lists the contents of a directory
It is a basic command for navigating file systems.
6
Q
Fill in the blank: The command to remove a directory in Windows is _______.
A
rmdir
This command is used to delete directories.
7
Q
What does the chkdsk /F command do?
A
Locates bad sectors and recovers information
It is a file checking command-line tool in Windows.
8
Q
What is the purpose of the gpupdate command?
A
Forces a device to check for group policy changes
It applies any existing group policy updates immediately.
9
Q
What does the nslookup command do?
A
Queries DNS servers for information
It retrieves DNS details, including IP addresses.
10
Q
What is the maximum number of partitions for a GPT storage drive?
A
128 partitions
GPT allows for more partitions compared to MBR’s limit.
11
Q
What is the most common file system in Windows?
A
NTFS
It is widely used for its features and reliability.
12
Q
What does System Restore do?
A
Fixes issues by reverting to an earlier time
It uses restore points to recover system functionality.
13
Q
What is the Windows Recovery Environment (Windows RE)?
A
Includes System Recovery Options like Startup Repair and Command Prompt
It helps troubleshoot and repair Windows issues.
14
Q
What does the Event Viewer do?
A
Displays errors and warnings in three main log files: System, Application, Security
It helps monitor system health and troubleshoot issues.
15
Q
Fill in the blank: A stop error is also known as a _______.
A
Blue Screen of Death (BSOD)
This error halts the operating system and indicates critical issues.
16
Q
What is the purpose of the ping command?
A
Tests whether another host is available over the network
It helps diagnose network connectivity issues.
17
Q
What does the tracert command do?
A
Displays the route taken by packets to a destination
It helps identify network paths and delays.
18
Q
What is the macOS Dock?
A
An icon bar providing quick access to frequently used apps and files
It helps users manage their applications efficiently.
19
Q
What is Time Machine in macOS?
A
Integrated backup software that creates incremental backups
It helps users restore files and system states easily.
20
Q
What is the function of the Finder in macOS?
A
File manager for navigating folders and managing storage devices
It is essential for file organization in macOS.
21
Q
What does the Keychain Access tool do in macOS?
A
Securely stores and manages user passwords and sensitive notes
It enhances security for user credentials.
22
Q
What is the purpose of Apple ID?
A
Personal account for accessing Apple services like iCloud and the App Store
It centralizes user access to Apple services.
23
Q
Fill in the blank: The App Store is Apple’s curated digital marketplace for _______.
A
discovering, purchasing, installing, and updating macOS applications
It provides a platform for app management on macOS.
24
Q
What does the Terminal provide in macOS?
A
Command-line interface access to the underlying Unix operating system
It is used for advanced user operations.
25
What is the **.dmg** file format used for?
Distributing apps in macOS
## Footnote
It typically requires dragging the contained .app file to the Applications folder.
26
What is the **/Applications** folder in macOS?
Default location for storing user-installed application bundles
## Footnote
It contains .app files for easy access.
27
What is the **/Library** folder used for in macOS?
Holds systemwide settings and application support files
## Footnote
It is shared across all user accounts.
28
What does the **/System** folder contain?
Core macOS operating system files managed by Apple
## Footnote
It is protected by System Integrity Protection (SIP).
29
What is the purpose of **FileVault** in macOS?
Encrypts the entire startup disk to protect data
## Footnote
It secures user information in case of loss or unauthorized access.
30
What does the **find** command do in Linux?
Locates files based on specified criteria
## Footnote
It is essential for file management in Linux.
31
What is the **apt** command used for in Linux?
Installs packages
## Footnote
It is a package management tool for Debian-based systems.
32
Fill in the blank: The **ping** command in Linux is used for _______.
network diagnostics
## Footnote
It tests connectivity to other devices.
33
What does the **curl** command do in Linux?
Requests and transfers data over a URL using various protocols
## Footnote
It is commonly used for web interactions.
34
What does the **ping** command do?
Network diagnostic tool to test whether the device is reachable by sending data packets and measuring response time
## Footnote
It helps in checking connectivity between devices.
35
What is the purpose of the **dig** command?
Finds out information related to DNS
## Footnote
Useful for troubleshooting DNS issues.
36
What does the **curl** command allow you to do?
Request and transfer data over a URL using various protocols such as HTTP, HTTPS, FTP, and more
## Footnote
It is commonly used for testing APIs.
37
What does the **traceroute** command do?
Displays the route taken by packets from source to destination
## Footnote
It helps in diagnosing network routing issues.
38
What information does the **/etc/passwd** file store?
Essential user account information like username, UID, GID, home directory, and shell
## Footnote
This file is viewable by all users.
39
What does the **/etc/shadow** file contain?
Securely holds encrypted user passwords and password aging policies; accessible only by root
## Footnote
It enhances security by restricting access to sensitive information.
40
What is the role of the **bootloader** in Linux?
Software that initializes the hardware and loads the Linux kernel into memory to start the operating system when the computer powers on
## Footnote
It is crucial for the boot process.
41
What is the **root account** in Linux?
The administrative superuser account possessing unrestricted privileges to perform any action on the Linux system
## Footnote
It is essential for system administration.
42
What are the **wireless encryption protocols** mentioned?
* WPA (Wi-Fi Protected Access)
* WPA2
* WPA3
* AES (Advanced Encryption Standard)
## Footnote
WPA3 with AES is considered the best combination for security.
43
What is **RADIUS** used for?
Provides centralized authentication, authorization, and accounting (AAA) for network access
## Footnote
Commonly used in WPA2/WPA3-Enterprise Wi-Fi.
44
What is **Multifactor Authentication (MFA)**?
Enhances security by requiring users to provide two or more different types of proof of identity for authentication
## Footnote
It adds an extra layer of security.
45
What is a **Trojan horse**?
Appears to perform desired functions but actually performs malicious functions behind the scenes
## Footnote
It is a type of malware.
46
What does **spyware** do?
Type of malicious software that is either downloaded unwittingly from a website or installed along with other third-party software
## Footnote
It monitors user activity without consent.
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What is a **keylogger**?
Hardware or software that captures the keystrokes of a keyboard
## Footnote
It is often used for stealing sensitive information.
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What is **ransomware**?
Software designed to hold the computer hostage, encrypting files or locking the computer until the user pays the attacker
## Footnote
Often propagated by a Trojan.
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What is the **best practice for malware removal**?
* Investigate and verify malware symptoms
* Quarantine infected systems
* Disable System Restore in Windows Home
* Remediate infected systems
* Update antimalware software
* Scan and removal techniques
* Reimage/reinstall if necessary
* Schedule scans and run updates
* Enable System Restore
* Educate the end user
## Footnote
Following these steps helps ensure effective malware removal.
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What does **social engineering** refer to?
The act of manipulating users into revealing confidential information or performing other actions detrimental to the user
## Footnote
It includes techniques like phishing, vishing, and shoulder surfing.
51
What is **encryption**?
The act of changing information using an algorithm known as a cipher to make it unreadable to anyone except users who possess the proper key
## Footnote
It is essential for data security.
52
What does **BitLocker** do?
Encrypts an entire drive in Windows; requires TPM (Trusted Platform Module)
## Footnote
BitLocker To Go encrypts USB drives and other removable devices.
53
What is the purpose of **permissions** in Linux?
The most restrictive permission takes effect and overrides the less restrictive permission
## Footnote
This is important for maintaining security.
54
What is **mobile device security**?
* Screenlocks (pattern, PIN, password)
* Invalid attempts lockout
* Remote wipe
* Remote backup
* Antivirus
## Footnote
These measures help protect mobile devices from unauthorized access.
55
What is **incident response**?
* First response
* Identify what happened
* Report through proper channels
* Preserve data and devices
* Document
* Set up chain of custody
## Footnote
It is crucial for managing security incidents effectively.
56
What does **UAC (User Account Control)** do in Windows?
Requires administrative login to perform higher tasks
## Footnote
It helps prevent unauthorized changes to the system.
57
What is a **sandbox testing**?
A testing environment that isolates changes and tests them without affecting the main system
## Footnote
It is used for safe experimentation.
58
Given a scenario
troubleshoot common mobile OS and application issues.
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• Application fails to launch
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• Application fails to close/crashes
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• Application fails to update
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• Application fails to install
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• Slow to respond
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• OS fails to update
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• Battery life issues
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• Random reboots
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• Connectivity issues
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− Bluetooth
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− Wi-Fi
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− Near-field communication (NFC)
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• Screen does not autorotate
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12
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127.0.0.1 is the loopback address.
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APIPA is 169.254.x.x (also known as link-local).
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To use the gateway
computers must be on the same network number as the gateway device. The
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subnet mask defines which portion of the IP address is the network number and which portion is the
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individual host number. Private IP addresses are internal to your network and do not communicate
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directly with the Internet. Public IP addresses communicate directly with the Internet. APIPA
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(Automatic Private IP Addressing) is a system used on Windows to automatically self-assign an IP
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address in the 169.254.x.x range in the absence of a DHCP server. The following table provides a
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snapshot of some key IPv4 and IPv6 address features.
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Address Feature IPv4 Address IPv6 Address
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Loopback address 127.0.0.1 0:0:0:0:0:0:0:1 (::1)
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Networkwide
85
addresses
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IPv4 public address ranges Global unicast IPv6 addresses
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Private network
88
addresses
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10.0.0.0
90
172.16.0.0
91
192.168.0.0
92
Site-local address ranges
93
(FEC0::)
94
Autoconfigured
95
addresses
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IPv4 automatic private IP addressing
97
(169.254.0.0)
98
Link-local addresses of FE80::
99
prefix
100
IPv6 addresses are 128-bit hexadecimal numbers (example:
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2001:7120:0000:8001:0000:0000:0000:1F10).
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::1 is the loopback address.
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Link-local addresses begin with FE80::/10 prefix.
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Common network speeds are 1000 Mbps (gigabit Ethernet) and 10 Gbps (10 Gb Ethernet)
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Common network speeds are 1000 Mbps (gigabit Ethernet) and 10 Gbps (10 Gb Ethernet).
106
Networking protocols include
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FTP (File Transfer Protocol). Ports 20/21. Secure versions: FTPS port 989/990 and SFTP on port
108
22
109
SSH (Secure Shell). Port 22
110
Telnet. Port 23 ( ) not secure
111
SMTP (Simple Mail Transfer Protocol). Port 25. Secure version uses SSL/TLS on ports 587 or
112
465
113
DNS (Domain Name System). Port 53
114
DHCP (Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol). Ports 67/68
115
HTTP (HyperText Transfer Protocol). Port 80
116
NTP (Network Time Protocol). Ports 123 and 1023
117
POP3 (Post Office Protocol). Port 110. Secure version uses SSL/TLS on port 995.
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NetBIOS/NetBT (NetBIOS over TCP/IP). Ports 137–139
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IMAP (Internet Message Access Protocol). Port 143. Secure version uses SSL/TLS on port 993.
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SNMP (Simple Network Management Protocol). Ports 161/162
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LDAP (Lightweight Directory Access Protocol). Port 389. Secure version uses SSL/TLS on port
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636
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HTTPS (HTTP Secure). Port 443
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SMB/CIFS (Server Message Block/Common Internet File System). Port 445
127
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128
14
129
15
130
16
131
17
132
18
133
19
134
20
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RDP (Remote Desktop Protocol). Port 3389
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Twisted pair cabling standards (maximum 328 feet/100 meters):
137
Category 5: rated for 100 Mbps
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Category 5e: Rated for 100 Mbps and gigabit networks
139
Category 6/6a: Rated for gigabit and 10 Gbps networks
140
Plenum-rated cable: fire-resistant cable designed for airways
conduits
141
cannot reach.
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Direct burial cable is used outdoors
8 inches underground
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Wireless Ethernet:
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802.11a
5 GHz speed
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802.11b
2.4 GHz speed; up to 11 Mbps
146
802.11g
2.4 GHz speed; up to 54 Mbps
147
802.11n (Wi-Fi 4)
2.4 and 5 GHz speed; up to 600 Mbps
148
802.11ac (Wi-Fi 5)
5 GHz speed; up to 3.5 Gbps
149
802.11ax (Wi-Fi 6)
2.4 and 5 GHz (6 GHz for Wi-Fi 6E) speed; up to 9.6 Gbps
150
802.11be (Wi-Fi 7)
2.4
151
2.4 GHz channels: 1–11
152
5 GHz channels: 36
40
153
Nonoverlapping channels are a set of wireless frequency channels that do not interfere with each
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other. For example
in the 2.4 GHz band
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nonoverlapping channels for Wi-Fi networks.
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Bluetooth is a short-range technology aimed at simplifying communications and synchronization
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among network devices.
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Bluetooth classes: Class I maximum transmission range: 100 meters; Class II (most common)
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range: 10 meters; Class III range: 1 meter. Class 4 range: 0.5 meter.
160
Cellular: Cellular Internet connections use mobile networks to provide Internet access. These
161
connections are based on technologies such as 4G LTE and 5G.
162
NAT (Network Address Translation): The process of modifying an IP address as it crosses a
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router. Translates from one network to another.
164
Database Servers: Database servers store
manage
165
Examples of popular database management systems include Microsoft SQL Server
Oracle
166
Database
MySQL
167
Port forwarding forwards an external network port to an internal IP address and port.
168
Screened subnet (aka DMZ): Area of network for servers that must be accessible by sources both
169
outside and inside your network
not within LAN
170
QoS (quality of service): Prioritizes computers or applications. Enables administrators to predict
171
monitor
and control bandwidth use to ensure that bandwidth is available to applications that need it.
172
PoE (Power over Ethernet): 802.3af PoE devices send Ethernet data and power over twisted pair
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cable to compliant devices (for example
a PoE injector or switch).
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Video cards typically connect to motherboards by way of x16 PCIe expansion slots. Video
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connector types include DVI
VGA (not digital but analog)
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USB-C.
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USB (Universal Serial Bus). Type A/Type B connectors are used by desktops/laptops
USB-C
194
connectors are used by tablets/smartphones
etc. USB 2.0 (high-speed) = 480 Mbps. USB 3.0
195
(SuperSpeed) = 5 Gbps. USB 3.1 (SuperSpeed+) = 10 Gbps. USB 3.2 = 10/20 Gbps (requires
196
USB-C). USB 4.0 = 40 Gbps (requires USB-C).
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Thunderbolt: Ver 1 = 10 Gbps and uses DisplayPort; Ver 2 = 20 Gbps (also DisplayPort); Ver 3 =
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40 Gbps and uses USB Type C. Ver 4 = 40 Gbps and uses USB Type C.
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Random access memory (RAM): DIMMs include DDR4 (288-pins) and DDR5 (288-pins); none
200
are backward compatible. Example of DDR transfer rate: DDR5-4800 = 38
400 MBps. While the
201
pin count for DDR5 is the same as DDR4
the keying notch and pinouts are different
202
desktop modules incompatible with DDR4 sockets. DDR4 SODIMMs (Small Outline DIMMs) for
203
laptops have 260 pins. DDR5 SODIMMs have 262 pins. ECC RAM detects and corrects errors
204
while non-ECC does not.
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HDD:
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Storage drives are non-volatile devices that store data. Types of drives and interfaces include
207
Hard disk drive (magnetic-based)
208
SSD:
209
Solid-state drive (flash-based). Can be SATA or M.2
210
SATA:
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Serial ATA uses a 15-pin power connector and 7-pin data connector. Rev 3 = 6 Gb/s
Rev
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3.2 (SATA Express) = 16 Gbps.
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RAID: Redundant array of independent (or inexpensive) disks. RAID 0 = striping (not fault
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tolerant)
RAID 1 = mirroring (minimum 2 disks)
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disks)
and RAID 6 = striping with double distributed parity (minimum 4 disks). RAID 10 (1+0) is
216
mirrored sets that are striped (minimum 4 disks).
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ATX 12V 2.x Power Supplies connect to: motherboard (24-pin cable). CPU (4-pin/8-pin). PCIe
218
video (6 or 8-pin) or new 12VHPWR (16 pin). SATA (15-pin). Molex (4-pin).
219
BIOS/UEFI identifies
tests
220
USB flash drive
or network via PXE. CR2032 lithium battery provides backup power.
221
BIOS/UEFI configurations: time/date
boot device priority (boot order)
222
management
WOL
223
enable/disable devices
and intrusion detection. For BIOS/UEFI update
224
The central processing unit (CPU) or processor takes care of most calculations. Speed measured in
225
GHz. PGA (older AMD/AM4 and previous) = Pin Grid Array. LGA (Intel and newer AMD/AM5) =
226
Land Grid Array. L1/L2 cache in each core. L3 cache is shared among entire CPU. Thermal
227
paste/pads are required whenever heat sink is installed. TDP = thermal design power
example: 140
228
watts.
229
Case fans are important to keep components cool. CPU fans and liquid cooling can help keep CPU
230
cool. CPU fan failure and power supply failure can cause system to shut down
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Printer configuration settings: Duplexing = printing on both sides; orientation = portrait or
232
landscape; quality = DPI (600 or 1200)
tray settings (such as size = 8 1/2" × 11").
233
Cloud models: SaaS (Software as a Service)
IaaS (Infrastructure as a Service)
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Service).
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Public cloud:
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the Internet.
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Service provider offers applications and storage space to the general public over
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Private cloud:
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Designed with the needs of an individual organization in mind. Administrator has
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Community cloud:
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more control over the data and infrastructure than is the case with a public cloud.
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Mix of public and private
but multiple organizations can share the public
247
portion.
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Hybrid cloud:
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Somewhere between public and private. Dedicated servers located within the
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organization and cloud servers from a third party form the collective network.
251
Cloud concepts: Metered utilization (service): only the services accessed are paid for. Rapid
252
elasticity: Ability to scale the network quickly. On-demand service means that the cloud service is
253
available at all times. Multitenancy means a single instance of software or infrastructure serves
254
multiple customers (tenants). Tenants share the same resources but maintain separate
secure virtual
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instances.
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Virtualization:
258
Type 1
259
hypervisor is native or bare metal (has direct access to hardware).
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Type 2
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is
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hosted; runs on top of OS. Examples: VMware
Hyper-V
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Bridged (direct access to Internet)
NAT (separated access)
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networking. A virtual sandbox can be any environment created for development
testing
265
that is isolated from any production servers and isolated from the rest of the operating system that
266
the sandbox is running on. Containers are generally used for running applications
while sandboxes
267
are used for testing and analyzing potentially unsafe code or software. A VM provides an abstracted
268
version of the entire hardware of a physical machine
including the CPU
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Containers are portable instances of software with its dependencies that run on a physical or VM.
270
With a virtual desktop infrastructure (VDI)
multiple virtual desktops for multiple users are hosted
271
by a service. It is a technology that hosts desktop environments on a central server.
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CompTIA 6-step
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Test the theory to determine cause.
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Establish a plan of action to resolve the problem and implement the solution.
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Verify full system functionality and
if applicable
283
Document findings/lessons learned
actions
284
Time/Date resets to earlier date? Check lithium battery. For OS
synchronize to a time server.
285
Trouble with CPU? Check CPU fan
heat sink and thermal paste/pads
286
BIOS/UEFI
and whether CPU is secure.
287
Noisy computer? Check CPU fan
case fan
288
RAM issue? Reseat modules; clean with compressed air. Overheating? Try RAM heat sinks. BIOS
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beep codes or displayed errors? Consult motherboard docs and analyze POST beep codes and
290
numbers.
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Power issues? Test AC outlet with receptacle tester. Test power supply with PSU tester: A power
292
supply tester tests 3.3 V
5 V
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replaceable unit).
294
Slow storage drive? Defrag it
use disk cleanup
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recognized? Check connections
check in BIOS/UEFI
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Management.
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Trojan horses:
298
Appear to perform desired functions but actually are performing malicious
299
functions behind the scenes.
300
Software designed to hold the computer hostage
encrypting files or locking the
301
Secretly monitors and transmits a user’s device activity
location
302
communications without their consent
often used for interpersonal spying.
303
Operates directly in system memory (RAM) without installing files onto the hard drive
304
making it harder to detect.
305
Adware:
306
Automatically displays unwanted advertisements
often bundled with free software or
307
through browser pop-ups.
308
Potentially unwanted program (PUP):
309
Software that
while not strictly malicious
310
unwanted and often comes bundled with other downloads
potentially causing ads or performance
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issues.
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Best practice for malware removal:
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Investigate and verify malware symptoms
325
Quarantine infected systems
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Disable System Restore in Windows Home
327
Remediate infected systems by doing steps 5–7
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Update antimalware software
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Scan and removal techniques: Boot into Safe Mode/preinstallation environment and scan.
330
Reimage/reinstall: if steps 5–6 fail
reinstall but back up important data.
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Schedule scans and run updates
332
Enable System Restore and create a restore point in Windows Home
333
Educate the end user
334
Social engineering: The act of manipulating users into revealing confidential information or
335
performing other actions detrimental to the user. Know phishing
vishing
336
impersonation
shoulder surfing
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Network attacks: Know on-path attack
spoofing
339
(distributed denial of service): enabled by a botnet. Evil twin: a rogue and malicious copy of a
340
wireless access point. You should also know what insider threats
business email compromise
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(BEC)
supply chain/pipeline attacks
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Authentication: The verification of a person’s identity; helps protect against unauthorized access.
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Broken down into: 1. Something the user knows (password or PIN); 2. Something the user has (a
361
smart card or other security token); 3. Something the user is (biometric reading: fingerprint or retina
362
scan); or 4. Something a user does (signature or voice print).
363
MFA = multifactor authentication. Example: A password and a smart card.
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UAC (User Account Control) in Windows requires administrative login to perform higher tasks.
365
Security techniques: Access control vestibule or mantrap (quarantine area with two doors and
366
surveillance)
one-time password (OTP: card with changing code)
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smart cards
and ACLs (access control lists).
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Encryption: The act of changing information using an algorithm known as a cipher to make it
369
unreadable to anyone except users who possess the proper “key” to the data.
370
Encrypting File System (EFS):
371
Properties page in Windows.
372
BitLocker:
373
Encrypts one or more files or folders directly within the
374
Encrypts an entire drive in Windows. Requires TPM (Trusted Platform Module).
375
BitLocker To Go encrypts USB drives and other removable devices.
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Storage drive disposal: Destruction (pulverizing/shredding
drilling holes in platters
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degaussing; acquire certificate of destruction when complete). Know regulatory and environmental
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requirements like HIPAA
GDPR
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disposal.
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BIOS/UEFI security includes administrator and user passwords
drivelock passwords
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removable media
UEFI Secure Boot (helps prevent rootkit access) and setting the boot device
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priority to storage drive first.
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Permissions: The most restrictive permission takes effect and overrides the less restrictive
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permission (NTFS vs. share). Inheritance/propagation: If you create a folder
the default action it
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takes is to inherit permissions from the parent folder (so
the parent propagates to the child). If you
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move a folder within the same partition
it retains the permissions. If you move or copy a folder to
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another partition
the (new) folder inherits from the new parent.
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Mobile device security: Screenlocks (pattern
PIN
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wipe
remote backup
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Android and iOS to gain super-user capabilities.
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Wireless security: Change admin password
change/disable SSID
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WPS
use WPA3/AES
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enable content filtering.
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Safety: Do not open power supplies or monitors
test AC outlets before use
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safety datasheets (MSDS)
and consult when encountering a product with chemicals (toner
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cartridges
cleaners).
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ESD = electro-static discharge. Prevent with antistatic strap
mat
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unplug computer
and increase humidity.
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UPS has battery backup for protection during electrical outages.
400
Trouble tickets include user/device information
description of problems
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clearly written.
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Change management: Includes purpose of change
scope of change
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analysis
end-user acceptance
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EBSCOhost: eBook Collection (EBSCOhost) printed on 10/24/2025 12:34:38 PM UTC via WESTERN GOVERNORS UNIVERSITY. All use subject to
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https://www.ebsco.com/terms-of-use.
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971
407
41
408
sandbox testing.
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42
410
43
411
44
412
45
413
46
414
47
415
48
416
49
417
50
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Incident response: First response
identify what happened
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preserve data and devices
document
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Regulated data: Includes PII (personally identifiable information)
PHI (protected health
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information)
personal government-issued information (Social Security card
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(Payment Card Industry Data Security Standards)
and GDPR (General Data Protection Regulation).
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Store in a secure area with encryption and proper permissions
and lockouts.
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Professionalism: Professional appearance
punctuality
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problems
positive attitude
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expectations
avoid distractions (phone calls
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Basic loops (such as
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for
429
) tell a program to execute the same statement several times.
430
PowerShell and Bash will always place a before a variable.
431
$
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Scripting types: Windows PowerShell (.ps1)
batch file (.bat); Linux Bash (.sh); Python (.py);
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Visual Basic script (.vbs); JavaScript (.js).
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Remote access: RDP (Remote Desktop Protocol
port 3389)
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Network Computing (VNC)
Windows Remote Management (WinRM)
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Independent Computing Environments (SPICE).
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AI is making its way into productivity software. Be careful not to accidentally plagiarize the work
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of others
and be cautious when feeding it data that you don’t accidentally give the AI access to your
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local work also. Instead
ask the AI how it would solve a similar problem.
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AI can have bias
can hallucinate when it doesn’t know the answer
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cautious when using the answer that an AI system gives you.
comptia A+ 220-1202
flashcards
Decks in class (2)
# Cards
