SOP

Question 1

What situations require the donning of oxygen masks?

Answer 1

1. Loss of cabin pressure (aircraft altitude above 10,000’)
2. Use of fire extinguisher
3. First indication of noxious fumes/smoke

Question 2

When is the speed reduction for holding initiated?

Answer 2

3 minutes or less from clearance limit so that the aircraft will cross the fix, initially, at or below the maximum holding airspeed

Question 3

Where are the minimum holding speeds found?

Answer 3

Chapter 9 of the Aircraft Performance Manual

Question 4

Max holding speed - min holding alt through 6,000 ft

Answer 4

200 KIAS

Question 5

Max holding speed - 6,001 ft through 14,000 ft

Answer 5

230 KIAS (may be restricted to 210 KIAS)

Question 6

Max holding speed - above 14,000 ft

Answer 6

265 KIAS

Question 7

When is windshear detection activated?

Answer 7

between 10 and 1500 ft radio altitude during the initial takeoff, go-around and final approach phases of flight

Question 8

When is windshear escape guidance mode engaged?

Answer 8

Manually: pressing the Go Around Button while a windshear is detected
Automatically: operating in go-around or takeoff mode and a windshear condition is detected
Automatically when thrust levers position is above 78 degrees and a warning windshear condition is detected

Question 9

When will windshear conditions not be detected?

Answer 9

if either EGPWS or the Radar Altimeter is unavailable

Question 10

Windshear recovery maneuver actions and callouts (PF)

Answer 10

• Autothrottles disconnect, “FIREWALL THRUST”, press TO/GA, set thrust
• Autopilot disconnect, roll wings level
• Rotate toward 15 degrees pitch then follow FD (if EGPWS inop rotate to 15 degrees or PLI, whichever is lower)
• Respect stick shaker, do not alter gear/flap configuration until terrain clearance is assured
• Resume normal flight path, retract gear/flaps

Question 11

Windshear recovery maneuver actions and callouts (PM)

Answer 11

monitor and call out information on flight path (“300 FEET DESCENDING; 400 FEET CLIMBING”), advise ATC

Question 12

The windshear escape maneuver should be performed whenever the following happens:

Answer 12

• a warning windshear is annunciated during approach or after lift-off
• a caution windshear is annunciated during approach and the captain decides to perform the recovery
• a caution windshear is annunciated after lift-off
• Whenever the captain decides to perform the recovery techniques

Question 13

When must an EGPWS recovery be initiated?

Answer 13

If a “PULL UP” or “TERRAIN, TERRAIN PULL UP” alert occurs at night or in IMC

Question 14

EGPWS recovery action and callouts (PF)

Answer 14

• Autothrottles disconnect, “FIREWALL THRUST”, set firewall thrust
• Autopilot disconnect, roll wings level, rotate to 15 degrees, respect stick shaker/buffet
• Confirm speedbrakes stowed, do not alter gear/flap configuration until terrain clearance is assured
• Climb to a safe altitude, resume normal flight

Question 15

EGPWS recovery action and callouts (PM)

Answer 15

• verify all actions complete, monitor radio altimeter and callout flight path information (“300 FEET DESCENDING, 400 FEET, CLIMBING)
• call out the safe altitude “MSA IS 3,400 FEET”, advise ATC

Question 16

Resolution advisory (RA) action

Answer 16

press and hold TCS and follow RA PFD guidance, respect stall, GPWS, or windshear warnings, perform go around with CLIMB RA and in landing configuration

Question 17

Stall recovery technique (PF)

Answer 17

• autothrottle disconnect, “FIREWALL THRUST”, set firewall thrust
• autopilot disconnect, roll wings level
• adjust pitch as required, respect stick shaker/buffet
• confirm speedbrakes stowed, do not alter gear/flap configuration
• resume normal flight, retract gear/flaps as required

Question 18

Stall recovery technique (PM)

Answer 18

verify all actions have been complete, monitor and call out flight path information “300 FEET DESCENDING, 400 FEET CLIMBING”

Question 19

Fly By Wire Power Up Built-In Test (PBIT) consists of:

Answer 19

1. a 3 minute electrical test
2. a one minute hydraulic test
   Perform PBIT test if “FLT CTRL BIT EXPIRED” EICAS message is displayed

Question 20

When will an electrical PBIT test be interrupted?

Answer 20

1. any hydraulic pump is running
2. the Flight Control Mode Panel switches are cycled
3. The AC power supply is interrupted

Question 21

When do the PBIT tests activate?

Answer 21

electrical - automatically upon power up
hydraulic - all three hydraulic systems are pressurized for at least one minute and the reservoir temperature is greater than 10C

Question 22

When will a hydraulic PBIT test be interrupted?

Answer 22

any flight control surface is moved while the test is running

Question 23

When must the hydraulic systems warm-up procedure be accomplished?

Answer 23

before starting engines in case of reservoir temperatures below -18C

Question 24

Which lights are turned on for the preflight inspection?

Answer 24

RED BCN and NAV lights

Question 25

Static dischargers per wing

Answer 25

3 on the aileron and 6 on the winglet

Question 26

Static dischargers on tail

Answer 26

3 on each elevator and 4 on the rudder/vertical stabilizer

Question 27

Stabilized engine indications

Answer 27

``` N1...27% ITT...460C N2...62% Fuel Flow...Approximately 480 lbs/hr Oil Pressure...Greater than 25 psi ```

Question 28

Engine start procedure

Answer 28

Start/Stop...START, then RUN Observe N2 increasing 7% N2...IGN A or B displayed 20% N2...N1 increasing, fuel flow increasing at lightoff (within 5 s after fuel flow)...ITT increasing at approx. 50% N2...IGN A or B extinguishes, oil pressure positive

Question 29

Engine warm up time

Answer 29

Before applying takeoff thrust, allow the engines to warm up for two minutes (begins at ITT red line rescheduling)

Question 30

Abnormal engine start conditions

Answer 30

1. no oil pressure indication at idle N2 2. oil pressure stabilizes below the engine limits 3. hung start (stagnant N1 or N2) 4. hot start (rapid ITT rise or ITT above red line) 5. no ITT rise within 5 seconds on ground or 30 seconds in flight after fuel flow is started 6. an intermittent electrical pneumatic or starter malfunction occurs before the starter disengagement

Question 31

Normal straight ahead taxi speed should not exceed

Answer 31

30 knots

Question 32

Tail tip (max) turning radius E170

Answer 32

54 ft. 3 in.

Question 33

Winglet (max) turning radius E175/upgrade winglet

Answer 33

57 ft. 9 in.

Question 34

Single engine taxi is not authorized when:

Answer 34

1. ice accretion is anticipated 2. contaminated surface and/or braking action less than good 3. RVR less than 1200 ft 4. 2 min warm up cannot be accomplished 5. stations use power-out taxi

Question 35

minimum duct pressure for external air start

Answer 35

33 psi (based on 54C OAT)

Question 36

PSI range for crossbleed start

Answer 36

40 to 45 psi

Question 37

Takeoff briefing for taxi checklist items

Answer 37

Initial - heading, altitude, fix; Unique - airport advisory information, noise abatement, engine failure procedures; Significant - terrain/obstacles, and weather conditions

Question 38

When "TOGA" is called the PM will verify:

Answer 38

- TO and AT annunciate green - ATTC status (green ARMED) - Takeoff N1

Question 39

Approved takeoff flap settings (ERJ170)

Answer 39

1, 2, and 4

Question 40

Engine severe damage is initially identified by:

Answer 40

- decreasing engine N1/N2 and vibration indications - vibration/noise from affected engine - yaw - surge/stall

Question 41

Engine severe damage can be confirmed after airborne by:

Answer 41

- seized N1 or N2 - zero oil pressure - ITT rise - vibration indications

Question 42

After confirming engine severe damage follow:

Answer 42

- normal climb profile except fly the runway heading or follow the applicable route manual "engine failure - takeoff" procedure - QRC "Engine fire, Severe Damage, or Separation" procedure

Question 43

3 types of compressor/engine stalls:

Answer 43

- single or multiple compressor/engine stalls prior to self recovery - multiple compressor/engine stalles requiring pilot action to recovery - a non-recoverable compressor/engine stall

Question 44

Compressor/engine stalls are initially identified by:

Answer 44

- loud bang and yaw - vibration - engine instrument fluctuation - ITT rise - flames from inlet and tailpipe

Question 45

Compressor/engine stalls can be confirmed after airborne for:

Answer 45

single/multiple with self recovery - engine returns to normal multiple requiring pilot action - stall symptoms cease when the thrust lever is retarded non recoverable - stall symptoms do not cease until engine is shut down or fails

Question 46

After confirming compressor/engine stalls follow:

Answer 46

- normal climb profile except fly the runway heading or follow the applicable route manual "engine failure - takeoff" procedure - QRC "Engine fire, Severe Damage, or Separation"

Question 47

Engine failure initial callout

Answer 47

The first pilot recognizing the engine failure will make the callout "Engine Failure", but will not identify the engine.

Question 48

Recommended max angle of climb

Answer 48

Vfs

Question 49

Recommended max rate of climb

Answer 49

Vfs+50 or Mach 0.60

Question 50

How to adjust VAPP for surface wind

Answer 50

add one half of the steady headwind component and all of the gust factor to the VREF

Question 51

Minimum and maximum VREF adjustment

Answer 51

min - 5 knots max flaps 5 - 20 knots max flaps full - 15 knots

Question 52

Recommended landing flaps setting

Answer 52

Flaps 5 unless braking conditions are less than FAIR then use FULL

Question 53

Automation usage for all precision approaches with visibility less than 3/4 miles or 4,000 RVR

Answer 53

autopilot shall be engaged from at least the FAF until the "Landing" callout by the PF

Question 54

A missed approach must be executed if any of the following conditions occur after passing the Final Approach Fix during a CAT II ILS:

Answer 54

- approach becomes unstable - no Approach 2 annunciated by 500' AGL - a malfunction occurs rendering the airplane unable to complete a CAT II approach - inability to acquire required visual references to descend below DH and/or 100 feet above TDZE - any reason either crew member thinks a go-around is the safest course of action

Question 55

For all non-precision approaches, if the ceiling is less than 1,000 feet and/or the visibility is less than 3 miles...

Answer 55

the autopilot shall be engaged from at least the FAF until the "Landing" callout by the PF

Question 56

Lateral modes for VOR approach

Answer 56

PF - LNAV (pink), PM - VOR (green or pink preview)

Question 57

Lateral modes for LOC, LDA (non-prec), LOC (BC) approach

Answer 57

PF - LOC (green), PM - LOC (green or pink preview)

Question 58

Lateral and vertical modes for RNAV/GPS LNAV/VNAV (DA)

Answer 58

PF - LNAV (pink)/VGP, PM - LNAV (pink)/VGP

Question 59

Lateral and vertical modes for RNAV/GPS LNAV (MDA)

Answer 59

PF - LNAV (pink)/FPA, PM - LNAV (pink)/FPA

Question 60

How to calculate VDP using milage

Answer 60

HAT / 300

Question 61

Weather mins for circling approach

Answer 61

ceiling - at least 1,000 ft or the charted minimum descent altitude for the procedure to be flown, whichever is greater visibility - at least 3 miles or the charted visibility minimums for the procedure to be flown, whichever is greater

Question 62

Mandatory flap setting for single engine approaches

Answer 62

flaps 5

Question 63

For instrument and visual approaches the PF may call "Landing" when:

Answer 63

- the aircraft is cleared to land - the aircraft is in position to land safely - the runway environment will remain in sight until touchdown

Question 64

Wing tip or engine nacelle strike occurs at what bank angle?

Answer 64

18 degrees or 16 degrees with gear struts compressed

Question 65

Engine cool down before shutdown

Answer 65

2 minutes

Question 66

Tail tip (max) turning radius E175

Answer 66

57 ft 3 in

Question 67

Min runway for turn around 170/175

Answer 67

170 - 54 ft 8 in | 175 - 59 ft 2 in