1
Q
Bones which persist within a suture are known as
A
Wormian
2
Q
The mastoid process is located on the
A
Temporal bone
3
Q
Which bone is part of the hard palate? A. Ethmoid B. Maxillary C. Sphenoid D. Vomer
A
Maxillary
4
Q
The lambdoidal suture is made of the \_\_\_and the \_\_\_bones: A. Frontal; parietal B. Temporal; parietal C. Sphenoid; occipital D. Occipital; parietal
A
Occipital; parietal
5
Q
Which of the following forms most of the roof of the nasal cavity? A. Nasal bone B. Ethmoid bone C. Palatine bone D. Maxilla bone
A
Ethmoid bone
6
Q
The skull sutures are classified as: A. Amphiarthrosis B. Synchondrosis C. Diarthrosis D. Synarthrosis
A
Synarthrosis; Amphiarthrosis - Slight movement Synchondrosis - Epiphyseal plate Diarthrosis - Freely moveable Synarthrosis - Immoveable
7
Q
The arcuate foramen is partially formed by the: A. Tectorial membrane B. Posterior atlanto-occipital membrane C. Anterior atlanto-occipital membrane D. Cruciform ligament
A
Posterior atlanto-occipital membrane
8
Q
The vertebral arch connects to the vertebral body via the: A. Lamina B. Pedicle C. Spinous process D. Transverse process
A
Pedicle
9
Q
The fovea dentalis is on the: A. Posterior arch of C1 B. Anterior arch of C1 C. Body of C2 D. Odontoid process of C2
A
Anterior arch of C1
10
Q
The carotid tubercle is found on which cervical vertebra? A. 1 B. 4 C. 6 D. 7
A
C6; C3 - Hyoid C4 - (Cornu) thyroid C5 - (Body) C6 - Carotid/Cricoid
11
Q
The protuberance on the posterior aspect of the superior articular process of a lumbar vertebra is known as the: A. Superior tubercle B. Lateral tubercle C. Accessory process D. Mammillary process
A
Mammillary process
12
Q
The fusion of \_\_\_\_ forms the intermediate sacral crest: A. Costal elements B. Articular processes C. Transverse processes D. Spinous processes
A
Articular processes
13
Q
The jugular notch is located on which structure? A. Clavicle B. First rib C. Corpus sterni D. Manubrium sterni
A
Manubrium sterni
14
Q
How many vertebral sternal ribs are there? A. 3 B. 4 C. 7 D. 10
A
7
15
Q
The Manubrium sterni has a total of how many articular surfaces? A. 4 B. 5 C. 6 D. 7
A
5;
2 - Vertebra
2 - Clavicle
1 - Body
16
Q
Which one of the following is unique to the first rib? A. Costal grove B. Head C. Scalene tubercle D. Angle
A
Scalene tubercle; Costal grove - All but floaters Scalene tubercle (attachment)
17
Q
How many primary ossification centers are found in the lumbar vertebra? A. 3 B. 5 C. 1 D. 6
A
3;
7 - secondary
TP - 2, SP - 1, Mammory - 2, Upper & lower body - 2
18
Q
What is the remnant of the notochord? A. Neural tube B. Neural crest C. Nucleus pulposus D. Sclerotome
A
Nucleus pulposus
19
Q
19. The vertebral bodies are derived from which of the following? A. Myotome B. Sclerotome C. Neural tube D. Neural crest
A
Sclerotome
20
Q
20. In a TYPICAL vertebra there are \_\_\_\_ secondary (2ndary) ossification centers. A. 3 B. 5 C. 7 D. 9
A
5
21
Q
The zygomatic bone provides the origin for which muscle? A. Buccinator B. Platysma C. Masseter D. Frontalis
A
Masseter
22
Q
Which of the following attaches to the coronoid tubercle of the mandible? A. Lateral ptyergoid B. Medial ptyergoid C. Masseter D. Temporalis
A
Temporalis
23
Q
23. Which muscle originates on the posterior tubercle of the atlas and ascends to the occiput? A. Obliquus capitis superior B. Obliquus capitis inferior C. Rectus capitis posterior minor D. Rectus capitis posterior major
A
Rectus capitis posterior minor
24
Q
Which muscle flexes, laterally flexes and rotates the head? A. Longus colli B. Scalenus anterior C. Longus capitus D. Rectur capitis lateralis
A
Longus colli
25
```
Which of the following does NOT contact the axis?
A. Rectus capitis posterior major
B. Inferior oblique
C. Superior oblique
D. Intertransversarius
```
Superior oblique
26
Which of the following is NOT contained within the foremen magnum?
A. Spinal portion of spinal accessory nerve
B. Vertebral artery
C. Arachnoid membrane
D. Meningeal portion of hypoglossal nerve
Meningeal portion of hypoglossal nerve
27
```
The nerves of the brachial plexus pass through the ____ and ____ muscles:
A. Longus capitis; longus cervicis
B. Scalenus posterior; scalenus medius
C. Scalenus medius; scalenus anticus
D. SCM; trapezius
```
Scalenus medius; scalenus anticus
28
```
Which of the following muscles closes the glottis?
A. Styloartenoid
B. Cricoid thyoideus
C. Thyroarytenoid
D. Cricoarytenoid
```
Thyroarytenoid
29
```
Which muscle prevents the tongue from receding posterior and blocking the trachea?
A. Stylohyoid
B. Thyrohyoid
C. Mylohyoid
D. Digastric
```
Stylohyoid
30
```
Which muscle is innervated by both cranial and spinal nerves?
A. Trapezius
B. Rhomboid
C. Latissimus dorsi
D. Levator scapula
```
Trapezius;
| Cranial nerve XI & cervicle nerve
31
```
Where do the muscular fibers of the diaphragm insert?
A. 9th
B. External oblique
C. Phrenic nerve
D. Central tendon
```
Central tendon
32
```
Which is the most superior rib that Rectus abdominus attaches to?
A. 3
B. 5
C. 7
D. 12
```
5
33
```
What does the external abdominal oblique muscle form at its inferior margin?
A. Cremaster muscle
B. Inguinal ligament
C. Iliopsoas muscle
D. Internal oblique muscle
```
Inguinal ligament
34
```
What muscle helps form the urogenital pelvic diaphragm?
A. Coccygeus
B. Pubococcygeus
C. Superficial transverse perineus
D. Deep transverse perineus
```
Deep transverse perineus
35
```
Which of the following muscles originates on the anterior aspect of the sacrum?
A. Transverse abdominous
B. Quadratus lumborum
C. Piriformis
D. Iliacus
```
Iliacus
36
```
What is the deepest muscular portion of the perineum?
A. Ischiocavernosus
B. Sphincter urethrae
C. Coccygeus
D. Levator ani
```
Sphincter urethrae
37
```
The multifidus muscle is most developed in which region?
A. Cervical
B. Thoracic
C. Lumbar
D. Sacral
```
Sacral
38
```
Which muscle originates from the pterygomandibular raphae?
A. Levator palpebrae superioris
B. Buccinator
C. Mentalis
D. Zygomaticus minor
```
Buccinator;
Mentalis - Incisive fossa of mandil
Zygomaticus minor - Molar surface
39
```
The cremasteric muscle is derived from:
A. Internal abdominal oblique
B. External abdominal oblique
C. Transversus abdominis
D. Piriformis
```
Internal abdominal oblique
40
```
Extensors of the vertebral column are derived from:
A. Epimere
B. Hypomere
C. Dermatome
D. Sclerotome
```
Epimere
41
```
41. Which muscles are derived from the second pharyngeal arch?
A. Mastication
B. Facial
C. Swallowing
D. Digestion
```
Facial
42
```
Which muscle is derived from the epimere segments of myotome?
A. Platysma
B. Latissimus
C. Multifidus
D. Sternothyroid
```
Multifidus
43
```
What muscle is derived from the 1st pharyngeal arch?
A. Platysma
B. Sternohyoideus
C. Stylopharyngeus
D. Masseter
```
Masseter
44
```
The intervertebral discs make up what percentage of the total length of the vertebral column?
A. 15
B. 25
C. 35
D. 50
```
25%;
| 75% bone, 25% disc
45
```
Zygaphophyseal joints are classified as:
A. Synarthrosis
B. Amphiarthrosis
C. Diarthrosis
D. Synchondrosis
```
Diarthrosis
46
```
What kind of joint is the atlantoaxial joint?
A. Hinge
B. Gliding
C. Pivot
D. Condyloid
```
```
Pivot;
Hinge - Phalanges
Gliding - Facets
Pivot - Aka Trichoid
Condyloid - Ellipsoid
```
47
```
Name the articulation between vertebral bodies:
A. Synarthrosis
B. Synchondrosis
C. Syndesmosis
D. Symphysis
```
Symphysis
48
```
Which best describes the typical plane of articulation of an apophyseal joint between midthoracic vertebra?
A. Transverse
B. Coronal
C. Horizontal
D. Sagittal
```
Coronal
49
```
49. Where are the joints of "Lushka" located on the C2 and C7 vertebra?
A. Body
B. Pedicle lamina junction
C. Inferior articular processes
D. Superior articular processes
```
Body
50
```
50. The sacroiliac joint is considered to be which type of joint?
A. Synarthrosis
B. Syndesmosis
C. Diarthrosis
D. Amphiarthrosis
```
Amphiarthrosis;
Synarthrosis - Non-moveable
Syndesmosis - Shaft ulna/radius
Diarthrosis - Freely moveable
51
```
The superior articular facets of ____ are directed posterior and medial:
A. C2
B. T6
C. T12
D. L3
```
L3;
BUL- C2, T1-T11, T12
BUM-C1, C3-C6, C7,L1-L5, S1
52
```
Which of the following is a freely moveable articulation?
A. Diarthrosis
B. Amphiarthrosis
C. Syndesmosis
D. Synarthrosis
```
Diarthrosis;
Amphiarthrosis - Slight-Functional Class
Syndesmosis - Slight-Functional Class:example- ulna/radius
Synarthrosis - Movement
53
```
The superior facet orientation for a typical thoracic vertebra is:
A. Posterior and lateral
B. Anterior and medial
C. Anterior and lateral
D. Posterior and medial
```
Posterior and lateral
54
```
The zygopophyseal facets at C4 and C5 form what degree angle with the HORIZONTAL plane?
A. 15
B. 45
C. 60
D. 75
```
45
55
```
Which of the following limits lateral flexion of the thoracic spine?
A. Facet orientation
B. Rib approximation
C. Interspinous ligament
D. Posterior ligament
```
Rib approximation
56
```
Which vertebral articulation is found in a sagittal plane?
A. Cervical
B. Thoracic
C. Lumbar
D. Sacral
```
Lumbar
57
```
Which rib only articulates with the manubrium sterni?
A. 1st
B. 2nd
C. 5th
D. 7th
```
1st RIb
58
```
58. The primary weight bearing portion of the atlas is:
A. Lateral mass
B. Body
C. Lamina
D. Posterior arch
```
Lateral mass;
| It has no vertebral body
59
The mobility of the sacrococcygeal joint is most critical during:
A. Hyperextension of the lower extremities
B. Adolescent growth
C. Childbirth
D. Rotation of the lumbar spine
Childbirth
60
```
___ describes the vertebral foramen of a typical thoracic vertebra:
A. Kidney shaped
B. Heart shaped
C. Circular
D. Triangular
```
Circular
61
```
Which spinal structure is most susceptible to damage from axial compression loading?
A. Cartilaginous endplate
B. Vertebral body
C. Nucleus pulposus
D. Posterior arch
```
Vertebral body
62
```
What structure is primarily responsible for movement of the vertebral column?
A. Demifacet
B. Vertebral end plate
C. Articular facet
D. Transverse process
```
Articular facet
63
```
Which condition causes asymmetrical movement of a motion segment?
A. Spondylolisthesis
B. Tropism
C. Sacralization
D. Lumbarization
```
Tropism
64
```
What vertebral segment has the least amount of lateral flexion?
A. L1-L2
B. L2-L3
C. L4-L5
D. L5-S1
```
L5-S1
65
```
Which of the following is NOT included in the circle of Willis?
A. Superior cerebral artery
B. Posterior cerebral artery
C. Anterior communicating artery
D. Posterior communicating artery
```
Superior cerebral artery
66
```
Which artery supplies the visual cortex?
A. Anterior cerebral artery
B. Middle cerebral artery
C. Posterior cerebral artery
D. Ophthalmic artery
```
Posterior cerebral artery
67
```
The primary somesthetic area in the cerebral cortex is located in the ____ gyrus:
A. Inferior frontal
B. Postcentral gyrus
C. Precentral gyrus
D. Superior temporal
```
Postcentral gyrus
68
```
What connects the hippocampus to the mammillary bodies?
A. Fornix
B. Arcuate fasciculus
C. Stria vascularis
D. Anterior commissure
```
Fornix
69
```
Which ganglion sends axons to the tractus solitarius?
A. Pterygopalatine
B. Otic
C. Submandibular
D. Geniculate
```
Geniculate;
| "Taste components of CN 7, 9, & 10"
70
```
Which of the following is in the frontal lobe?
A. Broca
B. Audition
C. Somatosensory
D. Wernicke’s
```
```
Broca;
Speech area (motor mouth)
```
71
```
The pyramidal decussation occurs in:
A. Medulla
B. Pons
C. Midbrain
D. Spinal cord
```
Medulla
72
```
Which of the following is a nucleus of the cerebellum?
A. Embelliform
B. Cuneatus
C. Pulvinaris
D. Pulposus
```
Embelliform
73
```
The connection between the cerebrum and the cerebellum is the:
A. Olive
B. Tentorium cerebelli
C. Septum pellucidum
D. Superior cerebellar peduncle
```
Superior cerebellar peduncle
74
```
Axons to the cerebellum come from the following brain stem nuclei:
A. Nucleus gracilis
B. Inferior olivary nucleus
C. Edinger Westphal nucleus
D. Otic nucleus
```
Inferior olivary nucleus
75
```
Conscious proprioception is NOT found in which tract?
A. Fasciculus gracilis
B. Dorsal columns
C. Posterior columns
D. Lateral spinothalamic
```
Lateral spinothalamic;
| Pain/Temperature
76
```
The caudate and putamen output to which structure?
A. Globus pallidus
B. Thalamus
C. Amygdala
D. Hypothalamus
```
Globus pallidus;
| “Keystone of Basalnuclei”
77
```
The inferior boundary of the lumbar subarachnoid cistern is located at which vertebral level?
A. T12
B. S5
C. L2
D. S2
```
S2;
conus medullaris- L1/L2
filum terminale externum- extension of the dura mater below the end of the dural sac at S2
78
```
Non-myelinated axons are located in the ____ of the spinal cord:
A. Fasciculus gracilis
B. Spinocerebellar tract
C. Dorsolateral fasciculus
D. Spinoreticular tract
```
Dorsolateral fasciculus
79
```
The greatest transverse diameter of the spinal cord occurs at the ____ vertebral level:
A. C1-C2
B. C5-C6
C. T5
D. L1-L2
```
C5-C6
80
```
The epidural space in the vertebral column contains:
A. Arachnoid villi
B. Cerebrospinal fluid
C. Arterial vasocorona
D. Internal vertebral venous plexus
```
Internal vertebral venous plexus
81
```
The nucleus in the wall of the lateral ventricle is which of the following?
A. Hypothalamus
B. Caudate
C. Globus pallidus
D. Fornix
```
Caudate
82
```
Which tract decussates as the white commissure?
A. Posterior spinocerebellar
B. Vestibulospinal
C. Spinothalamic
D. Rubrospinal
```
Spinothalamic
83
```
Where is the cerebrospinal fluid absorbed into the blood stream?
A. Cisterna anbiens
B. Arachnoid granulations
C. Fourth ventricle
D. Choroid plexus
```
Arachnoid granulations
84
```
Which of the following drains the cranium to the dural venous sinus?
A. Basal
B. Diploic
C. Transverse
D. Great cerebral
```
Great cerebral
85
```
The blood supply to the primary somatosensory cortex is supplied by which cerebral artery?
A. Anterior and middle
B. Anterior only
C. Posterior only
D. Anterior and posterior
```
Anterior and middle
86
```
The arterial supply to the dura mater is via the ____ artery:
A. Anterior spinal
B. Vertebral
C. Recurrent meningeal
D. Middle meningeal
```
Middle meningeal;
| Foramen spinosum
87
```
Which area lacks lymph nodules?
A. Tonsils
B. Appendix
C. Lymph nodes
D. Thymus
```
Thymus
88
```
What foramen is located between the lateral ventricle?
A. Median foramen of magendie
B. Interventricular foramen of Monro
C. Lateral foramen of "Lushka"
D. Cerebral aqueduct of Sylvius
```
Interventricular foramen of Monro;
Interventricular foramen of Monro - Between two lateral ventricles
Cerebral aqueduct of Sylvius - Between 3rd and 4th ventricles
89
```
Where is the cerebral aqueduct located?
A. Pons
B. Medulla
C. Diencephalon
D. Mesencephalon
```
Mesencephalon;
| In midbrain connects 3rd and 4th ventricles
90
```
The myencephalon and metencephalon both are derived from:
A. Prosencephalon
B. Rhombencephalon
C. Mesencephalon
D. Diencephalon
```
Rhombencephalon
91
```
The notochord is embryologically derived from:
A. Ectoderm
B. Mesoderm
C. Neural crest
D. Neural tube
```
```
Mesoderm;
*Notochord comes from the primitive streak.
N or Skin = Ectoderm
Respiratory tract and gut = Endoderm
Everything else is Mesoderm
```
92
```
The medulla oblongata is derived from the:
A. Metencephalon
B. Mesencephalon
C. Diencephalon
D. Myelencephalon
```
Myelencephalon
93
```
The hypothalamus is derived from:
A. Diencephalon
B. Metencephalon
C. Myelencephalon
D. Telencephalon
```
Diencephalon
94
```
The Pons is derived from:
A. Diencephalon
B. Metencephalon
C. Myelencephalon
D. Telencephalon
```
Metencephalon;
| as well as the cerebellum
95
```
The Cerebellum is derived from:
A. Diencephalon
B. Metencephalon
C. Myelencephalon
D. Telencephalon
```
Metencephalon;
| as well as the pons
96
```
The Midbrain is derived from:
A. Diencephalon
B. Metencephalon
C. Myelencephalon
D. Mesencephalon
```
Mesencephalon
97
```
The myelin cover in the central nervous system is produced by which cells?
A. Oligodendroglia
B. Neural crest
C. Schwann
D. Ependymal
```
Oligodendroglia
98
```
In the central nervous system which cell acts as a fibrocyte?
A. Astrocyte
B. Ependymal
C. Purkinje
D. Golgi
```
Astrocyte;
| *This is a fibroblast completely surrounded by matrix. Blood barrier
99
```
The production of cerebrospinal fluid is mainly the function of which cell?
A. Ependymal
B. Astroglial
C. Oligodendroglia
D. Microglial
```
Ependymal
100
```
The 4th lumbar spinal nerve exits between which two vertebra?
A. L2-L3
B. L3-L4
C. L4-L5
D. L5-S1
```
L4-L5
101
```
Which of the following is composed of fibers from the lumbar plexus?
A. Common peroneal
B. Tibial
C. Femoral
D. Posterior femoral cutaneous
```
```
Femoral;
Common peroneal - Sciatic (lower)
Tibial - Sciatic (lower)
Femoral - L2-L4
Posterior femoral cutaneous - If lateral femoral cut them - correct too!
```
102
```
Which nerve is a branch off the posterior cord of the brachial plexus?
A. Axillary
B. Musculocutaneous
C. Ulnar
D. Median
```
Axillary (as well as Radial);
Musculocutaneous - Lateral
Ulnar - Medial
Median - Lateral and medial
103
```
What is NOT in the cervical plexus?
A. Lesser occipital
B. Greater occipital
C. Greater auricular
D. Supraclavicular
```
Greater occipital
104
```
What is the innervation of the infrahyoid muscle?
A. CN VII
B. Cervical plexus
C. CN VI
D. Brachial plexus
```
Cervical plexus
105
```
The sacral plexus lies on the anterior portion of:
A. Psoas major
B. Piriformis
C. Iliacus
D. Obturator internus
```
Piriformis
106
Which of the following is the proper sequence of structures that make up the brachial plexus?
A. Division, trunk, cord, root
B. Trunk, root, division, cord
C. Root, division, cord, trunk
D. Root, trunk, division, cord & branches
Root, trunk, division, cord & branches;
| "Rugby Teams Drink Cold Beer"
107
```
What nerve does NOT pass through the superior orbital fissure?
A. Oculomotor nerve
B. Abducens nerve
C. Trochlear nerve
D. Mandibular nerve
```
Mandibular nerve
108
```
The accessory and glossopharyngeal nerves pass through which openings?
A. Jugular foramen
B. Foramen rotundum
C. Hypoglossal canal
D. Foramen spinosum
```
Jugular foramen
109
```
What is found in front of the costovertebral body?
A. Sympathetic chain ganglion
B. Thoracic duct
C. Phrenic nerve
D. Esophagus
```
Sympathetic chain ganglion
110
```
The only cranial nerve to exit at the dorsal aspect of the brain stem is:
A. Spinal accessory
B. Trochlear
C. Abducens
D. Oculomotor
```
Trochlear
111
```
The esophageal plexus is derived from which nerves?
A. Lesser Splanchnic
B. Greater Splanchnic
C. Vagus
D. Hypoglossal
```
Vagus
112
```
Which of the spinal cord levels carry most of the preganglionic sympathetic neurons that directly innervate the adrenal medulla?
A. T1-T4
B. T5-T9
C. T10-L1
D. S2-S4
```
T5-T9;
| Adrenals, Spleen, Gall bladder: T5 > T9 of T10
113
```
Autonomic innervation to the heart is via the lateral horn located in which areas of the spine?
A. C4-C7
B. T1-T5
C. T7-T11
D. L2-L4
```
T1-T5;
| Heart alive with autonomic's T1-T5
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