STI Flashcards

(46 cards)

1
Q

what is the causative agent of gonorrhea?

A

neisseria gonorrhoeae (gonococcus)

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2
Q

what kind of bacteria is the causative agent of gonorrhea?

A

gram-negative diplococcus (coffee bean shape)

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3
Q

is gonococcus fastidious? how does collecting samples for testing go?

A

yes they are, they do not grow very well in culture and they’re susceptible to drying
- require transport medium for culture, regular blood agar will not work it needs enriched ingredients
- will die if dried or delayed

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4
Q

what is a sign of gonorrhea?

A

gonorrheal discharge in the cervix or urethra

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5
Q

is gonorrhea increasing? who is it most common amongst? transmitted how?

A

incidence dropped in 1990s, now increasing across Canada
- most common in 20-25 age group
- transmitted through contact of mucous membranes (sexually or perinatally)

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6
Q

what are the main clinical manifestations of gonorrhea?

A
  • mucopurulent urethritis
  • mucopurulent cervicitis
  • pelvic inflammatory disease
  • pharyngitis (sore throat)
  • conjunctivitis (pink eye)
  • disseminated gonococcal infection, especially joint infection (fever, arthritis, skin lesions)
  • gonorrheal ophthalmia neonatorum (neonates)
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7
Q

what is gonorrheal ophthalmia neonatorum ?

A

Gonorrheal ophthalmia neonatorum is a severe eye infection in newborns caused by transmission of the Neisseria gonorrhoeae bacteria from an infected mother during birth
- Symptoms include red, swollen eyes with pus or purulent discharge, which can rapidly lead to corneal damage, ulceration, and permanent blindness if not treated promptly

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8
Q

how does disseminated gonococcal infection happen?

A

if it goes untreated for long enough, it becomes disseminated through their body so they can become bacteria in their blood that can set up infections elsewhere ex. joints

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9
Q

what are the two mechanisms used for diagnosing gonorrhea and chlamydia?

A
  1. Nucleic acid amplification testing (NAAT)
    - includes PCR testing
    - can detect by urine sample
    - done on a machine called panther, which can also detect dead organisms
  2. culture of urethral or cervical swabs
    - less sensitive, but very specific
    - resistance is becoming a problem
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10
Q

what is the go to treatment for gonorrhea?

A

cefixime (oral) or ceftriaxone (intramuscular, most common) combined with one does of azithromycin (athrizo is for possible chlamydia co-infection)

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11
Q

what did they use to prescribe for gonorrhea?

A

ciprofloxacin - but resistance is now common
resistance is appearing worldwide to cefixime and ceftriaxone

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12
Q

what is the causative agent for chlamydia?

A

chlamydia trachomatis
- different serotypes exist

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13
Q

certain types of chlamydia trachomatis can cause… but…

A

can cause LGV (lymphogranuloma venereum) but these types are not endemic in Canada

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14
Q

some types of chlamydia can cause eye disease…

A

called trachoma, a type of severe conjunctivitis (found in tropics)
- can happen among newborns

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15
Q

chlamydia trachomatis is what kind of bacteria?

A

obligate intracellular bacteria devoid of a cell wall (cannot be gram-stained)
- atypical organism

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16
Q

what is the culture like needed for testing chlamydia?

A
  • cannot be grown on artificial media, requires culture in cultured cells (expensive)
  • detected by molecular amplification testing routinely
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17
Q

chlamydia has two alternating forms:

A
  1. reticulate body: actively replicating form found within cells
  2. elementary body: inert infectious form found on the surface of cells, invades cells. transmitted form
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18
Q

when the RB or EB enter cells what do they become?

A

RB: when mature it causes cell rupture and fragments into many elementary bodies
EB: on entering cells, develops into the reticulate body

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19
Q

what cells does chlamydia infect?

A

urethral, cervical, and conjunctival epithelial cells

20
Q

what form of chlamydia is the sexually transmitted form?

A

elementary body

21
Q

how common is chlamydia? transmitted how? most common amongst who?

A
  • one of the most common STIs
  • transmitted through sexual contact or perinatally, direct contact to conjunctiva
  • most common in 15-25 age group
  • asymptomatic carriers are common
  • incidence increases as number of partners increases
22
Q

what are the clinical manifestations of chlamydia?

A
  • nongonococcal mucopurulent and cervicitis (drainage from urethra)
  • epididymitis
  • pelvic inflammatory disease
  • proctitis (inflammation of the rectum and anus)
  • reactive arthritis, urethritis (UTI)
  • conjunctivitis (especially in neonates) and trachoma
23
Q

what are complications of pelvic inflammatory disease?

A

ectopic pregnancy and sterility secondary to scarring

24
Q

how are swabs taken for chlamydia?

A

men:
- urine swabs
- urethral swabs
women:
- self-taken vaginal swabs
- specimen of choice
- urine (not common)
- endocervical swabs (not common)

25
what is treatment for chlamydia?
doxycycline, azithromycin, erythromycin
26
what is the causative bacteria of syphilis?
treponema pallidum, a tightly coiled spirochaete
27
what is difficult about the syphilis bacteria?
it is not easily cultured in the lab and it is too fine to gram stain so darkfield microscopy is used
28
most common in who? how is it transmitted?
not very common in general but getting more prevalent - most common in men with multiple male partners mainly transmitted through sexual contact, can transmit through birth
29
what are the five clinical manifestations of the syphilis bacteria?
1. primary syphilis (localized) 2. secondary syphilis (systemic) 3. latent infection (asymptomatic) 4. tertiary syphilis (late) 5. congenital
30
primary syphilis?
presents 1-4 weeks post contact - produces a chancre (painless ulceration) - heals spontaneously in weeks
31
secondary syphilis?
bacteria has transmitted through the body into the blood - full body skin rash, flu like illness, lymphadenopathy (swollen lymph nodes)
32
latent infection?
have it, but no symptoms usually happens instead of secondary syphilis
33
tertiary syphilis?
- cardiovascular (heart failure) and neurological (dementia, seizures, paralysis) - gumma (masses on skin surface or in organs)
34
congenital syphilis?
bone, teeth, and brain damage - most prevalent in children born with syphilis
35
when is dark field microscopy used for diagnosing syphilis?
in the primary disease only, high volume areas - used on primary chancre
36
serology is the main route to diagnosis, what are the two tests?
1. nonspecific test (non treponemal test) - VDRL, RPR (rapid plasma reagin) cheap but can also give false positives 2. specific test - enzyme immunoassay (EIA) is often used first - TRPA confirmatory these are used with non specific tests
37
what is the treatment for syphilis?
1. penicillin - doxycycline is used as alternative if allergy - longer treatment needed if CNS involvement - HIV is a common co-infection
38
what is the bacteria like that causes genital herpes?
neurotropic, invades nerves and becomes dormant within them, regrowth gives reactivation of infection
39
how common is herpes? amongst who?
primary, laten, and recurrent infection - occurs in all population groups - prevalence of antibody increases with age and correlates too number of partners
40
clinical presentations of herpes?
1. primary infection - fever, headache - painful lesions on genitalia - unusual discharge - tender nodes 2. latent - shedding of virus without any lesions
41
reocurrance and congenital of herpes
HSV-2 > HSV-1 - usually less severe than primary infection - localized to genitals - 50% have prodromal symptoms (tingling, pain) congenital infection in babies especially if mother has primary infection during delivery - life threatening
42
diagnosis of herpes?
swabs of local lesions - NAAT
43
treatment of herpes?
antivirals - acyclovir, valacyclovir - long term prophylaxis may be necessary if breakouts are common
44
genital warts is caused by
human papillomaviruses - certain serotypes are causative agents of cancers, oral, cervical, and anal
45
what is the main symptom of HPV?
skin growths on genitalia, perianal area - may be asymptomatic, usually transient infection resolving in months
46
what does the HPV vaccine do?
prevents infection by more common cancer-related types - warts can be removed by chemical means, freezing, or surgery