1
Q
Which two cardiac arrest rhythms are shockable with a defibrillator?
A
Ventricular fibrillation (VF) and pulseless ventricular tachycardia (pVT)
2
Q
How many litres of oxygen per minute should someone in cardiac arrest be given?
A
15 litres per minute
3
Q
What should you do if you are struggling to ventilate someone in cardiac arrest?
A
Size and insert an oropharyngeal airway
4
Q
A patient is struggling to breathe so you give them oxygen. This could be detrimental to a patient with what type of respiratory disease?
A
Chronic COPD
5
Q
Which of the following branches of the maxillary nerve innervates the anterior part of the hard palate immediately behind the central and lateral incisors?
A
Nasopalantine nerve
6
Q
Which drug is most likely to be given to someone having an acute myocardial infarction?
A
Aspirin
7
Q
Which of the following routes of drug administration is subject to first pass metabolism?
A
Oral
8
Q
Which of the following drugs is used to lower lipid levels?
A
Simvastatin
9
Q
In the mandibular arch, where is the primate space found?
A
Distal to the canine
10
Q
Where do you find fovea palatinae?
A
Posterior to the vibrating line
11
Q
If a sharp injury occurs, you should initially
A
Encourage bleeding
12
Q
Which muscle is infrahyoid?
A
Sternohyoid
13
Q
Which of the following is an irreversible factor for cardiovascular disease?
A
Age
14
Q
Which of the following is one of the checks you undertake when using a handpiece?
A
Check the burr is secure in the chuck
15
Q
Which direct restorative material relies on chelation between carboxylate groups and the calcium in the tooth as a major component of the bonding mechanism?
A
Glass ionomer cements
16
Q
What are dental excavators primarily used for?
A
Caries removal
17
Q
What is the normal maximum rotation of a ‘slow-speed’ (latch grip) handpiece?
A
20,000 rpm
18
Q
What is the normal maximum rotation of a ‘high-speed’ air turbine?
A
400,000 rpm
19
Q
What undercut gauge is used to assess for CoCr clasps?
A
0.25mm
20
Q
In removable partial denture design, support is:
A
the resistance of a denture to occlusally directed load
21
Q
What is used to locate undercut areas during surveying without marking the cast?
A
Analysing rod
22
Q
Which of the following effects of etching will improve retention of composite restorations?
A
The increase in surface area
23
Q
In removable partial denture design, indirect retention is:
A
the resistance of a denture to rotation
24
Q
Identify the correct Kennedy Classification for the following dental arch
A
Kennedy Class III, modification 1
25
Which factor does not affect the wear of composite?
Tensile strength
26
Which classification of support could be considered when designing a partial denture incorporating a free-end saddle?
Craddock Class 2 or Class 3
27
Which type of dentine is laid down in response to excessive tooth wear?
Tertiary dentine
28
Agar and alginate are both
Hydrocolloids
29
In partial denture construction a pin dam
improves adaptation
30
At what depth does the first black band on a BPE probe start?
3.5mm
31
What is the normal order of eruption of primary teeth?
a, b, d, c, e
32
Which surface is most susceptible to caries in an upper 6?
Occlusal
33
What is the minimum length of a CoCr occlusally approaching clasp?
15mm
34
The RPI is a stress relieving clasp system that works by
eliminating axial rotation (torque) from the distal of the abutment tooth
35
What is the most likely reason for placing a resin modified glass ionomer lining under an amalgam restoration?
Thermal protection of the pulp
36
What is the most appropriate material to place directly over a non-carious exposure in an asymptomatic tooth?
Steroid/ antibiotic paste
37
A hybrid composite resin material is one that
Has quartz filler particles that range in diameter from small (<0.1um) to large (1 to 10um)
38
In the table below, the thermal expansion coefficients of three restorative materials (marked A to C) are indicated. The materials A, B and C are:-
GIC, amalgam, composite resin
39
When a patient sues a dentist for compensation because of harm that results from clinical negligence, there are sometimes causes involving contributory negligence. Contributory negligence applies when:
The patient's own actions of a neglectful nature also contributed to the harm
40
One of the criteria for clinical negligence is that the dentist has failed to meet the standard of care. For a General Dental Practitioner, which of the following is true in relation to the standard of care?
The dentist must meet the ordinary standard of care
41
Which of the following is the first stage in the practice of public health?
Assessment of population needs
42
Which of the following factors which influence health would be considered a life circumstance factor rather than a behaviour/ lifestyle factor?
Housing tenure
43
What is the most appropriate primary study design for the following question. Is routine scale and polish effectivene at preventing periodontal disease?
Randomised control trial
44
The effectiveness of ice chip therapy (cryotherapy) (versus no treatment) at preventing or reducing the severity of mucositis in patients receiving chemotherapy and/or radiotherapy was tested in a randomised controlled trial. The risk ratio [95% confidence interval] = 0.74 (0.57 to 0.95). Which of the following statements is true?
There was sufficient evidence of a benefit of ice chips on oral mucositis in the population (?)
45
Which one of these teeth (FDI notation) would be present in the mouth of a healthy 4 year-old child?
55
46
Which one of these features, visible with a light microscope in a ground section of a tooth, arises from the incremental deposition of dentine?
Lines of von Ebner
47
During its formation, what is the approximate daily rate of deposition of enamel?
4 micrometres
48
Which one of these following microscopic features arises from odontoblast processes extending into enamel?
Enamel spindles
49
Deposition of which type of dentine is responsible for 'translucent' dentine?
Intratubular (peritubular) dentine
50
The proportion of dentinal tubules containing a nerve is greatest in dentine under cusps. Approximately what proportion of tubules are innervated in this region of the tooth?
40%
51
The cells which form cementum are derived from which of the following tissues or cells?
Dental follicle
52
Which one of these stimuli applied to dentine will provoke increased flow of dentinal fluid inwards, towards the dental pulp?
Scratching with probe
53
Which one of these periodontal fibre groups originates in the cervical region of a tooth and extends to the inter proximal surface of adjacent teeth?
Trans-septal
54
The epithelial attachment, where the junctional epithelium is attached to the tooth surface, is formed by which of the following types of junction?
Hemidesmosomes
55
Physiological medial drift of the permanent molar teeth will result in which one of the following clinical features?
Broadening of the contact points
56
Which cranial nerve provides the main innervation of the structures derived from the second branchial arch?
Facial
57
How much prilocaine is present in a cartridge containing 2mL of a 3% prilocaine solution?
60mg
58
Which of the following is the site of action of a local anaesthetic, such as lignocaine (lidocaine)?
Voltage-gated sodium channels
59
Which one of these structures generates basic speech sounds in phonation?
Vocal folds
60
What age would you expect the roots of all primary teeth in a child to be complete? Choose the most appropriate age from the list.
4 years
61
Upper canines sometimes fail to erupt. By what age would you expect an upper permanent canine to have erupted?
12 years
62
Which one of the following nerves is a branch of the mandibular division of the trigeminal nerve?
(Long) buccal nerve
63
Which one of these reflexes is generated by irritation of the nasal mucosa and results in explosive expiration?
Sneezing
64
A unilateral cleft lip will result from failure of fusion of which pair of embryonic processes?
Maxillary and medial nasal processes
65
In a neonate, the anterior fontanelle is surrounded by which skull bones?
Frontal and parietal
66
Which of these muscles is derived from the first (mandibular) pharyngeal arch?
Temporalis
67
Meckel's cartilage is present in the developing embryonic and fatal lower jaw. Which one of these bones is formed from part of the Meckel's cartilage?
Malleus
68
Which of these vocal sounds is 'plosive' (stop consonant)?
'b' as in 'bite'
69
Which of these terms best describes a condition in which a patient has difficulty or discomfort with swallowing?
Dysphagia
70
Which of the following conditions is least likely to impair an individual's chewing (or masticatory) efficiency?
Loss of upper incisor and canine teeth
71
The shortened dental arch, as described by Kayser in 1981, has how many teeth per quadrant?
Both incisors, canine, both premolars
72
Which of these muscles is classed as a 'supra hyoid' muscle?
Geniohyoid
73
Which type of tissue covers the articular surface of the mandibular condyle?
Fibrous tissue
74
Which one of these events does not play a significant role in preventing aspiration of food particles into the larynx and trachea during swallowing?
Relaxation of inferior pharyngeal constrictor
75
What is considered the normal depth of a healthy gingival sulcus (crevice)?
1-2mm
76
Which one of these dental or peridental tissues is not derived from the embryonic neural crest (ectomesenchyme)?
Enamel
77
Cleft palate may arise if the normal process of palatogenesis is disrupted. Failure of which of the following events is least likely to result in development of a cleft palate?
Fusion of lateral and medial nasal processes
78
Neonates display a metopic suture, which of the present between the two developing halves of which bone?
Frontal
79
Which nerve provides the sensory innervation of the mucosa of the hard palate, adjacent to the first permanent molar teeth?
Greater palatine nerve
80
Which nerve is the principal nerve supply to the pulp of the lower first permanent molar tooth?
Inferior alveolar nerve
81
Which nerve provides the general sensory innervation of the mucosa of the dorsum of the anterior two-thirds of the tongue?
Lingual nerve
82
You are administering an inferior alveolar nerve block. As you inject, the patient complains of a sudden pain, and develops trismus. Injury to which one of these muscles is most likely to explain this complication?
Medial pterygoid
83
In administering an inferior alveolar nerve block, the needle is directed immediately lateral to the pterygomandibular raphe, which provides an important 'aiming point'. Which two muscles are attached to the pterygomandibular raphe?
Buccinator and superior constrictor
84
Which of these types of dentine is laid down in response to excessive cusp wear?
Tertiary dentine
85
In addition to an odontoblast process, what other structure is most likely to be present within a dentinal tubule?
Unmyelinated nerve
86
According to the prosthodontist John Farrell, which type of foodstuff was found to be least digestible?
Beef
87
Some restorative procedures can cause pulpal pain. Which of the following is least likely to cause pain?
Failure to penetrate the ameldodentinal junction
88
In the course of making an upper master impression, some material may spread posteriorly onto the soft palate. Which reflex is most likely to be evoked as a result?
Gagging
89
Which one of the following provides a plausible explanation for the observation that the maximum biting force generated between pairs of upper and lower teeth is greatest between the first permanent molars. Compared with other teeth, premolars have the:
Greatest root area
90
The preparation of a cavity into the pulpal half of the dentine usually causes inflammatory responses in the pulp. Which one of the following responses would be the first one to occur?
Release of neuropeptides
91
There are two basic types of cementum: acellular and cellular cementum. Which one of the following characteristics applies particularly to cellular cementum?
Present on the apical part of the tooth
92
Which one of the following effects of etching will facilitate bonding of dental materials?
Exposes a greater surface area
93
Which one of these teeth (FDI notation) is most likely to display a tubercle of Carabelli?
55
94
Which cells associated with an erupting tooth gives rise to the junctional epithelium?
Reduced enamel epithelium
95
The human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) is an example of a:
Retrovirus
96
A simple random sample of 5 year old Scottish children is drawn from this target population. Which of the following is not true?
As the sample size increases, the variability of the sample mean increases
97
Which of the following is NOT an etiological factor for dental anxiety?
Having a high pain threshold
98
Which of the following best describes the pulse in atrial fibrillation?
Irregular HR, an irregular pattern
99
The Reed Sternberg Cell is pathogenic of:
Hodgkin Lymphoma
100
When designing a maxillary removable partial denture for a patient missing 11, 12, 13, 21, 22, 23, 25 and 26, how would you classify this using the Kennedy Classification?
Class III, mod 1
101
Oral pigmentation can be associated with some forms of non-smoking related lung cancers. This is likely because:
ACTH is secreted by some lung cancers
102
Approximately what portion of cancers are carcinomas?
90%
103
Modern to advanced periodontitis affects what percentage of the adult population in western societies?
10-15%
104
Which of the following is an indication for primary molar pulpotomy?
2/3 of marginal ridge breakdown in an asymptomatic tooth
105
At what age would you expect a child to have full masticatory function?
2 years
2. Multiple Choice Questions (MCQ)
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