SURGERY - NEURO Flashcards

(177 cards)

1
Q

What are the two main types of hydrocephalus?

A

Communicating and non-communicating hydrocephalus

Communicating hydrocephalus involves CSF flow between the ventricles and the subarachnoid space, while non-communicating hydrocephalus involves a blockage preventing CSF from flowing freely.

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2
Q

What is hydrocephalus ex vacuo?

A

Enlargement of the brain’s ventricles due to brain tissue loss or atrophy

It occurs without an actual increase in cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) pressure.

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3
Q

Which conditions can lead to hydrocephalus ex vacuo?

A
  • Alzheimer’s disease
  • Stroke
  • Traumatic Brain Injury (TBI)
  • Chronic ischemic changes

These disorders cause brain atrophy, which leads to the condition.

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4
Q

What is Normal Pressure Hydrocephalus (NPH)?

A

A condition where CSF accumulates in the brain ventricles without significant elevation in CSF pressure

It is commonly seen in individuals aged 60 and older.

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5
Q

What is the hallmark triad of Normal Pressure Hydrocephalus?

A
  • Gait disturbance
  • Cognitive decline
  • Urinary dysfunction

These symptoms can mimic other neurodegenerative disorders, making diagnosis challenging.

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6
Q

How is hydrocephalus diagnosed?

A

Through imaging techniques

Imaging helps identify the presence of excess cerebrospinal fluid and the condition of the brain’s ventricles.

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7
Q

What are the common treatment options for hydrocephalus?

A
  • Surgical interventions like shunts
  • Endoscopy

These treatments aim to relieve pressure and restore normal CSF flow.

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8
Q

What is the importance of early treatment in hydrocephalus?

A

To prevent complications

Early intervention can reduce the risk of permanent neurological damage.

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9
Q

What are CNS malformations?

A

The most common congenital anomalies affecting the brain and spinal cord

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10
Q

What is the incidence of CNS anomalies?

A

1 – 10 per 1000 live births

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11
Q

What is the commonest type of CNS congenital anomaly?

A

Neural tube defect/Spina bifida (39%)

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12
Q

What is gastrulation?

A

Conversion of bilaminar to a trilaminar embryonic disc

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13
Q

What does neurulation involve?

A

Formation of the neural plate and tube

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14
Q

What are the primary brain vesicles formed from the cranial end of the neural tube?

A
  • Prosencephalon
  • Mesencephalon
  • Rhombencephalon
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15
Q

What are the secondary vesicles derived from the prosencephalon?

A
  • Telencephalon
  • Diencephalon
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16
Q

What factors are associated with the aetiology of CNS congenital malformations?

A
  • Genetics
  • Maternal health issues
  • Environmental factors
  • Drugs
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17
Q

Name a disorder of neurulation.

A

Anencephaly

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18
Q

What is myelomeningocele?

A

Herniation of meninges and spinal cord through a defect in the spine

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19
Q

What are the features of spina bifida occulta?

A
  • Cutaneous stigmata
  • Pigmented patch
  • Midline spine swelling
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20
Q

What is the commonest location for spina bifida?

A

Lumbar spine

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21
Q

What is a meningocele?

A

Herniation of meninges with CSF through a spine defect

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22
Q

What is the clinical finding for meningocele?

A

Midline pedunculated swelling, fluctuates, transilluminates brilliantly

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23
Q

What complications can arise from myelomeningocele?

A
  • Hydrocephalus
  • Meningitis
  • Tethered cord syndrome
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24
Q

What is hydrocephalus?

A

Anomaly of CSF hydrodynamics leading to CSF accumulation in ventricles

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25
What is the commonest cause of congenital hydrocephalus?
Aqueductal stenosis
26
What are the manifestations of Chiari Malformation?
Descent of posterior fossa contents via the foramen magnum
27
What is Dandy-Walker Malformation?
Involves agenesis/hypoplasia of the cerebellum and enlarged posterior fossa
28
What are neurocutaneous syndromes?
Group of CNS disorders with concurrent lesions in skin, eye, and other viscera
29
Fill in the blank: The CNS malformations may occur in isolation or in association with other _______.
system anomalies
30
True or False: There is a typical sex predilection for CNS congenital anomalies.
False
31
What is the treatment for congenital dermal sinus?
Surgical excision
32
What is the commonest type of spina bifida?
Myelomeningocele
33
What are the clinical features of encephalocele?
* Protrusion of brain and meninges * Neurologic problems * Associated craniofacial abnormalities
34
What are the complications of hydrocephalus?
* Delayed milestones * Neurologic impairment * Blindness
35
What are phakomatoses?
Group of CNS disorders with concurrent lesions in the skin, eye, and other viscera ## Footnote Related to common ectodermal origin.
36
Name two types of neurofibromatosis.
* Neurofibromatosis type-1 (Von Recklinghausen) * Neurofibromatosis type-2 (MISME syndrome)
37
What gene is associated with Neurofibromatosis type-1?
NF-1 gene (Neurofibromin gene) located on chromosome 17 ## Footnote NF-1 is autosomal dominant.
38
List three features of Neurofibromatosis type-1.
* Café-au-lait spots * Neurofibromas * Lisch nodules
39
What is characteristic of Neurofibromatosis type-2?
Multiple inherited schwannomas, meningiomas, and ependymomas ## Footnote Caused by the Merlin gene on chromosome 22q.
40
What tumors are associated with Tuberous sclerosis?
* Subependymal giant cell tumors/astrocytoma (SEGA) * Cardiac rhabdomyoma * Renal and pulmonary tumors
41
What are common symptoms of Tuberous sclerosis?
* Seizures * Developmental delay * Intellectual deficits * Shagreen patches
42
What is the third most common neurocutaneous syndrome?
Sturge-Weber syndrome ## Footnote After Neurofibromatosis and Tuberous sclerosis.
43
What is a key feature of Sturge-Weber syndrome?
Cutaneous nevus flammeus (port wine stain) in V1 distribution
44
What is the genetic basis of Von Hippel-Lindau syndrome?
Autosomal dominant VHL gene on chromosome 3p
45
List the types of neoplasia associated with Von Hippel-Lindau syndrome.
* Haemangioblastomas of CNS * Retina * Phaeochromocytoma * Neuroendocrine neoplasms of pancreas * Pancreatic and renal cysts
46
What is craniosynostosis?
Premature fusion of the cranial sutures (1 or more) ## Footnote Sagittal is the most common type.
47
Name two syndromic conditions associated with craniosynostosis.
* Apert syndrome * Crouzon syndrome
48
What are some risk factors for craniosynostosis?
* Restricted uterine domain * Environmental factors (maternal smoking) * Hyperthyroidism * Genetics
49
What are common presentations of craniosynostosis?
* Fused sutures * Abnormal calvarial shape (e.g., brachycephaly, plagiocephaly)
50
What clinical signs may indicate craniosynostosis?
* Raised ICP * Bulging fontanelle * Headache * Papilloedema * Cognitive impairment
51
What is the gold standard for diagnosing craniosynostosis?
CT scan
52
What is a potential treatment for craniosynostosis?
Surgery is an option
53
What is the recommended dietary allowance (RDA) of folic acid for females of reproductive age?
400mcg daily
54
Fill in the blank: Folic acid supplementation is recommended from age 18 years or _______ before a planned conception.
6-months
55
What is the purpose of food fortification programs in relation to craniosynostosis?
To prevent craniosynostosis by increasing folic acid intake
56
What does Traumatic Brain Injury (TBI) refer to?
Non-degenerative, non-congenital insult to the brain from an external mechanical force, possibly leading to permanent or temporary impairment of cognitive, physical and psychosocial functions, with an associated diminished or altered state of consciousness.
57
What is a major cause of morbidity and mortality associated with TBI?
Economic and social burden.
58
What is the global annual incidence of TBI?
69 million.
59
What is the commonest cause of TBI in the context of age bimodality?
Falls vs RTA.
60
What are the two main types of TBI classification based on severity?
* Mild * Moderate * Severe
61
What is the Monro-Kellie Doctrine?
V(cranium) = Constant; V(Cranium) = V(brain) + V(CSF) + V(Blood), where a change in one component leads to compensatory changes in the others.
62
What are the two primary types of brain injury?
* Primary brain injury * Secondary brain injury
63
What are some causes of secondary brain injury?
* Dyselectrolytemia * Hyperglycemia * Hypoglycemia * Hypertension * Hypotension * Seizure * Hyperthermia * Hypothermia * Raised intracranial pressure * Hypoxia * Hypovolemia
64
What is the formula for Cerebral Perfusion Pressure (CPP)?
CPP = Mean arterial pressure (MAP) - Intracranial pressure (ICP).
65
What are the surgical indications for a depressed skull fracture?
* Open depressed * Significantly depressed * Fracture through an air sinus * Underlying EDH
66
What is a common source of bleeding in an Extradural Hematoma (EDH)?
Middle meningeal artery.
67
What are the three grades of severity for Diffuse Axonal Injury?
Mild, Moderate, Severe.
68
Fill in the blank: The Glasgow Coma Score is part of the _______ protocol.
ATLS
69
What are common complications associated with TBI?
* Post-traumatic seizures * Persistent focal deficits * Post-traumatic hydrocephalus * Post-traumatic depression * Cognitive defects * Behavioral changes * Communication deficits * Chronic traumatic encephalopathy * Insomnia * Dysautonomia
70
True or False: The primary goal of TBI management is to prevent secondary injuries.
True
71
What should be monitored in a patient with TBI to prevent secondary injuries?
* ICP * Oxygen levels * Normoglycemia * Seizure prevention * Electrolyte derangements
72
What are some prevention strategies for TBI?
* Enforce road traffic laws * Advocate for safety in sports * Design safe architecture * Protect vulnerable groups
73
What does the term 'cognitive defects' refer to in the context of TBI complications?
Impairments in mental processes such as attention, memory, and problem-solving.
74
What is the significance of the term 'time is brain' in TBI management?
It emphasizes the urgency in preventing secondary injuries to preserve brain function.
75
What are the learning objectives for spine injuries?
* Identify patients with/at risk of spine injury * Make diagnosis of spine injury * Manage the spine injured patient * Identify/Prevent complications
76
Define spine injury.
Disruption/damage to the structures that make up the spine
77
What structures comprise the spine?
* Muscles * Ligaments * Vertebrae * Spinal cord and coverings * Spinal nerves * Blood vessels
78
What is the epidemiology of spine injuries regarding age?
Increasing age, particularly in the 3rd to 5th decade
79
What is the sex ratio for spine injuries?
Males > Females: 1-8:1
80
Which geographic location has a higher incidence of spine injuries?
Developing > Developed
81
What is the global prevalence of spinal cord injury (SCI)?
>15 million live with SCI globally
82
What is the commonest site for spine injuries?
Cervical region, specifically C4/5/6
83
What is the most common cause of spine injuries?
Road Traffic Accidents (RTA)
84
What are the types of spinal anatomy relevant to spine injuries?
* Cervical * Thoracic * Lumbar * Sacral * Coccygeal
85
What are the mechanisms of injury for spine injuries?
* Hyperflexion * Hyperextension * Lateral flexion * Axial loading * Rotational/torsion * Distraction * Translational
86
Differentiate between primary and secondary spine injuries.
Primary injuries occur at the time of injury; secondary injuries develop later due to physiological processes.
87
What classification is used for spine injuries?
* Stable vs Unstable * Anatomic classification * Musculoligamentous * Bony * Cord
88
What is whiplash?
Rapid back and forth movement of the neck causing neck pain, stiffness, and reduced range of motion
89
What is spondylolisthesis?
Vertebral slip in relation to adjacent vertebra
90
What are the grades of spondylolisthesis?
Grades 1-4, with Grade 5 being severe
91
What is a Jefferson fracture?
Fracture of the atlas involving anterior and posterior arches due to axial loading/compression
92
What is a Hangman fracture?
Fracture of the axis at the pars interarticularis, often due to hyperextension injury
93
What is a chance fracture?
Flexion-distraction injury, commonly associated with seatbelt injuries
94
Define spinal cord injury.
Damage to the spinal cord that can be complete or incomplete
95
What is complete spinal cord injury?
No motor or sensory function below the level of injury
96
What is the Frankel grading system?
* Grade A: Complete injury * Grade B: Incomplete injury, no motor function * Grade C: Incomplete injury, motor function useless * Grade D: Incomplete injury, motor function useful * Grade E: Incomplete injury, motor and sensory normal
97
What imaging techniques are used for diagnosing spine injuries?
* X-ray * CT Scan * MRI
98
What is the main goal in treating spine injuries?
To reduce secondary injury and prevent conversion of incomplete to complete injury
99
What are the 7Bs to address in treating spine injuries?
* Brain * Breathing * Blood * Bowel * Bladder * Bones * Bedings
100
What is spinal shock?
Temporary loss of cord function below the level of injury
101
What is neurogenic shock?
Autonomic dysfunction leading to loss of sympathetic vasomotor tone, often presenting with hypotension and bradycardia
102
What are the symptoms of Brown-Sequard syndrome?
* Ipsilateral loss of motor function * Loss of proprioception and vibration sense * Contralateral loss of temperature and pain sensation
103
What is uroginic shock?
A condition related to urinary system dysfunction ## Footnote Often associated with bladder retention and urinary tract infections (UTIs)
104
What are common bowel issues in spinal injury patients?
Constipation and nutrition management ## Footnote Proper nutrition and stool softeners are essential
105
What complications can arise from immobility in spinal injury patients?
Disuse atrophy and demineralization of bones ## Footnote Regular physiotherapy is necessary to mitigate these effects
106
What are decubitus sores?
Pressure sores that occur due to prolonged immobility ## Footnote Regular turning and proper bedding care can prevent these sores
107
What is the role of a psychologist in spinal injury treatment?
To provide mental health support, including antidepressants if necessary ## Footnote Mental health is crucial for overall recovery
108
What are some methods to prevent Deep Vein Thrombosis (DVT)?
LMW heparin, TED stockings, pneumatic compression boots ## Footnote These interventions help improve blood circulation
109
What should be optimized for patients with spinal injuries?
Vitals and nutrition ## Footnote Monitoring vitals regularly is essential for patient safety
110
What is the importance of catheterization in spinal injury patients?
To manage bladder retention effectively ## Footnote Acidifying urine and ensuring hydration are also important
111
What are the key components of physiotherapy for spinal injury patients?
To maintain limb function and improve mobility ## Footnote Regular physiotherapy is crucial for rehabilitation
112
How often should patients be turned to prevent decubitus sores?
Every 1-2 hours ## Footnote This helps alleviate pressure on vulnerable areas
113
What are common pressure areas that need padding in spinal injury patients?
Heel, occiput, ear lobes, acromion process, iliac crest, greater trochanter ## Footnote Proper padding prevents pressure sores
114
What is the purpose of oxygen supplementation in spinal injury care?
To support respiratory function and address respiratory insufficiency ## Footnote Especially important in high spine injuries
115
What are some treatments for spinal injuries?
Immobilization, braces, surgery, and rehabilitation ## Footnote Each treatment approach addresses different aspects of recovery
116
What types of braces are used for spinal injuries?
Lumbar braces, thoracolumbar braces, Minerva jackets, TLSO ## Footnote These provide support and stability to the spine
117
What surgical options are available for spinal injury treatment?
Decompression of cord/nerves, vertebral realignment, restoration of stability ## Footnote Use of screws, rods, and cages may be involved
118
What is the core area of treatment in spinal injury rehabilitation?
Adjustment to activities of daily living (ADLs) ## Footnote Multidisciplinary approaches enhance recovery
119
What are some future trends in spinal injury treatments?
Transplant, stem cell engineering, nerve regeneration ## Footnote These innovations could significantly improve recovery outcomes
120
What is the main focus of the CT interpretation course described?
To improve emergency physicians' ability to interpret head CT studies ## Footnote The course will cover physics of CT scanning, normal neuroanatomy, and common neuropathologic conditions.
121
What are the common traumatic injuries covered in the course?
* Epidural hematoma * Subdural hematoma * Skull fracture * Contusion ## Footnote These injuries are frequently encountered in the Emergency Department.
122
What are the non-traumatic conditions discussed in the course?
* Stroke * Subarachnoid hemorrhage * Hydrocephalus ## Footnote These conditions are also critical for emergency physicians to recognize.
123
What is the significance of Hounsfield units in CT imaging?
They define the characteristics of the tissue contained within each pixel on a CT scan ## Footnote Hounsfield units range from -1000 (air) to +1000 (bone).
124
What is the role of windowing in CT interpretation?
Windowing allows the CT reader to focus on certain tissues within set parameters ## Footnote This technique maximizes subtle differences in tissue densities.
125
What is the basic principle behind radiography?
X-rays are absorbed to different degrees by different tissues ## Footnote Dense tissues absorb more X-rays, while less dense tissues, like air, absorb fewer.
126
What are the components of a CT scan slice?
Each scan slice is composed of a large number of pixels ## Footnote Pixels represent the scanned volume of tissue on the x and y axis.
127
What is the attenuation coefficient in CT scanning?
It measures how much X-rays are absorbed by a specific tissue ## Footnote The attenuation coefficient is relatively constant for a given body tissue.
128
What is the primary purpose of the cranial CT in emergency medicine?
To evaluate intracranial emergencies, both traumatic and atraumatic ## Footnote Emergency physicians often interpret and act upon head CTs without specialist assistance.
129
What historical development is credited to Sir Jeffrey Hounsfield regarding CT technology?
He combined a mathematical reconstruction formula with a rotating apparatus to create the modern CT scanner ## Footnote Hounsfield received a Nobel Prize and a knighthood for this work.
130
Fill in the blank: The normal CSF flow path is Lateral ventricles → IIIrd Ventricle → ________ → IVth Ventricle → Subarachnoid space.
Aqueduct of Sylvius
131
What is the adult CSF production rate per day?
500-700 cc/day ## Footnote This means CSF turns over 3-5 times a day.
132
What are the key anatomical regions to be familiar with for interpreting head CT scans?
* Basal ganglia * Cerebellum * Medulla/Pons * Circle of Willis * Temporal lobes * Frontal lobes ## Footnote Familiarity with these regions aids in correlating CT findings with clinical examination.
133
True or False: Emergency physicians often receive formal training in interpreting head CTs during medical school or residency.
False ## Footnote Few emergency physicians receive formalized training in this area.
134
What are the two-dimensional representations created by conventional radiographs?
They are images of three-dimensional structures based on tissue densities ## Footnote Conventional radiographs can obscure less dense objects due to denser objects absorbing more X-rays.
135
What is the significance of understanding normal neuroanatomy for clinicians?
It is fundamental for detecting pathologic variants on cranial CT scans ## Footnote Knowledge of normal anatomy aids in accurate interpretation and diagnosis.
136
List three key structures found in the Basal Ganglia region as seen on CT.
* Lenticular nuclei * Globus pallidus * Putamen ## Footnote Familiarity with these structures is essential for accurate interpretation.
137
What is one systematic approach to ensure significant neuropathology is not missed?
Using a systematic approach similar to reading an ECG ## Footnote Clinicians can break down cranial CT into discrete entities to avoid missed diagnoses.
138
What mnemonic can be used to avoid missed diagnoses in cranial CT?
Blood Can Be Very Bad ## Footnote Each word prompts the clinician to check specific areas on the CT scan.
139
What does the 'B' in the mnemonic 'Blood Can Be Very Bad' represent?
Blood ## Footnote Refers to the need to search for blood on the cranial CT.
140
How does acute hemorrhage appear on cranial CT?
Hyperdense (bright white) ## Footnote Due to the density of the globin molecule which absorbs x-ray beams.
141
What is the Hounsfield unit range for acute blood on CT?
50-100 Hounsfield units ## Footnote Reflects the density of acute hemorrhage.
142
What is the typical appearance of blood on CT after 2-3 weeks?
Darker than brain ## Footnote Blood loses hyperdense appearance as it ages.
143
What is an epidural hematoma (EDH)?
Lens-shaped (biconvex) collection of blood over the brain convexity ## Footnote EDH never crosses suture lines and is primarily from arterial laceration.
144
What is the primary source of an epidural hematoma (EDH)?
Middle meningeal artery ## Footnote Most commonly involved in arterial lacerations causing EDH.
145
What is the expected mortality rate with early surgical therapy for EDH?
<20% ## Footnote Suggests a favorable outcome with timely intervention.
146
What characterizes a subdural hematoma (SDH)?
Sickle or crescent-shaped collection of blood ## Footnote SDH can cross suture lines and can be acute or chronic.
147
What is the typical cause of acute subdural hematomas (SDH)?
Venous disruption of surface and/or bridging vessels ## Footnote Acute SDH is often associated with severe brain injury.
148
What is the morbidity and mortality rate for acute SDH?
60-80% ## Footnote Primarily due to the impact forces involved.
149
How do chronic subdural hematomas (SDH) typically present?
More benign course ## Footnote Often follow minor chronic head injuries and can accumulate gradually.
150
What is intraparenchymal hemorrhage also known as?
Intracerebral hemorrhage (ICH) ## Footnote Identifiable as small as 5 mm on cranial CT.
151
Where do nontraumatic lesions due to hypertensive disease most frequently occur?
Basal ganglia region ## Footnote Common in elderly patients.
152
What is the appearance of hemorrhage from amyloid angiopathy on CT?
Cortical-based wedge-shaped bleed ## Footnote The apex points medially.
153
What is the incidence of intraventricular hemorrhage (IVH) in severe head trauma?
10% ## Footnote IVH is associated with poor outcomes.
154
What is the most common cause of subarachnoid hemorrhage (SAH)?
Aneurysmal rupture (75-80%) ## Footnote Can also occur due to trauma, tumor, or AVM.
155
What is the sensitivity of CT scans for detecting SAH in the first 12 hours?
95-98% ## Footnote Sensitivity declines over time.
156
What is the typical appearance of brain tumors on non-contrasted CT scans?
Hypodense, poorly-defined lesions ## Footnote 70-80% of tumors are visible without contrast.
157
What does vasogenic edema appear as on a CT scan?
Hypodense ## Footnote Due to increased water content from the loss of blood-brain barrier integrity.
158
How can intravenous contrast help in defining brain tumors on CT?
Leaking through the incompetent blood-brain barrier ## Footnote Results in a contrast-enhancing ring around the mass.
159
What does increased water content in a brain lesion appear as on a CT scan?
Hypodense ## Footnote Hypodense indicates lower density relative to surrounding tissues.
160
What role does intravenous contrast material play in evaluating brain tumors?
Helps define brain tumors ## Footnote Contrast material leaks through an incompetent blood-brain barrier into the extracellular space.
161
What does a contrast-enhancing ring around a mass lesion indicate?
Leakage of contrast media through the blood-brain barrier ## Footnote This suggests the presence of a tumor or abscess.
162
What information should a clinician determine after identifying a tumor?
Location, size, degree of edema, and mass effect ## Footnote This includes whether herniation is impending due to swelling.
163
How does a brain abscess appear on a non-contrast CT scan?
Ill-defined hypodensity ## Footnote Abscesses usually show variable edema and often ring-enhance with contrast.
164
What are the two types of strokes?
Hemorrhagic and non-hemorrhagic ## Footnote Non-hemorrhagic strokes can be detected early on CT.
165
How soon after an ischemic infarction can changes be seen on a CT scan?
12-24 hours ## Footnote Early changes, like the insular ribbon sign, can appear as early as 2-3 hours.
166
What is the earliest change seen in areas of ischemia on a CT scan?
Loss of gray-white differentiation ## Footnote This finding can initially be subtle.
167
What percentage of infarctions are associated with edema and mass effect?
Approximately 70% ## Footnote Edema is usually maximal between days 3 and 5.
168
What are lacunar infarctions typically secondary to?
Hypertension ## Footnote They are small, discreet non-hemorrhagic lesions found in the basal ganglia region.
169
What does communicating hydrocephalus first show on imaging?
Dilation of the temporal horns ## Footnote The temporal horns are normally small and slit-like.
170
What should be examined in the lateral, third, and fourth ventricles?
Effacement, shift, and blood ## Footnote Pathologic processes can cause dilation or compression.
171
What has the highest density on a CT scan?
Bone (+1000 Hounsfield units) ## Footnote Soft tissue swelling may indicate areas at risk for fracture.
172
What types of skull fractures exist?
Non-depressed (linear) and depressed fractures ## Footnote Any skull fracture should raise suspicion for intracranial injury.
173
What does the presence of intracranial air on a CT scan indicate?
Violation of the skull and dura ## Footnote This suggests a significant injury.
174
Where are basilar skull fractures most commonly found?
In the petrous ridge ## Footnote Look for blood in the mastoid air cells as a sign.
175
What should raise suspicion of a skull fracture in trauma cases?
Presence of fluid in maxillary, ethmoid, or sphenoid sinuses ## Footnote These sinuses should normally be visible and aerated.
176
Why is cranial computed tomography important in emergency medicine?
It is used for time-critical decisions affecting patient care ## Footnote Accurate interpretation is crucial for clinical decisions.
177
What can cranial CT interpretation be compared to in terms of skill?
ECG interpretation ## Footnote It can be learned through education, practice, and repetition.