1
Q
FLOW pb (NORM/HI)
A
Norm: 22 psi
High: 30 psi
2
Q
L and R packs
A
L: flight deck + cabin
R: cabin only
(one pack INOP –> mixing chamber)
3
Q
Ground Turbo Fans
A
ON when:
- IAS ≤ 150 kts and L/G retr. for less than 10’ (AFTER T/O)
- IAS ≤ 150 kts + L/G ext.
*in case of ENG OIL LO PR: turbo fan starts on the opposite side when ≤ 150 kts, regardless of L/G position
4
Q
Conditioned air enters the cabin via
A
OUTLET RAMPS (under the OVHD bins)
5
Q
Avionics compartment ventilation is achieved by
A
extracting heated air to limit internal operating temperature
6
Q
EXTRACT AIR FAN
A
extracts air from the FLT DCK and EE racks at diff. speeds, based on cockpit temp.
Rotational speed:
MIN when cockpit temp. = 20 °C
MAX when cockpit temp. > 52 °C
7
Q
FWD SMK
A
can be contained by closing the EXTRACT AIR FLOW VALVE
8
Q
PACK OVHT PROT
A
OVHT CAUTION: duct temp. > 92 °C
PACK VALVE closes auto. when air downstream of the PACK COMPR >204 °C
TEMP CONTROL VALVE: progressively closes if the duct temp. downstream of the MIXING CHAMBER > 88 °C
9
Q
RECIRC FAN 1(2) pb + when does the FAULT LT come on
A
ON: recirculation of a part of the cabin air to supplement AIR COND is provided. FAN ROT SPD varies linearly from LO to HI speed depending on the position of the TEMP CONTROL VALVE. HI SPD auto. sel. if the temp. measured at cabin floor level < 13 °C
OFF: all the air is supplied by the packs without recirculation.
FAULT LT ON: FAN ROT SPD < 900 rpm or the fan’s elec. motor OVHT
10
Q
EXHAUST MODE pb
A
NORM (GND/IN FLT)
OVBD:
-extract fan stops
-OVBD valve partially opens (IN FLT ONLY)
-U/F valve closes (cabin underfloor ventilation valve)
-OVBD LT ON
11
Q
Pressurization LDG ELEV indicator
A
-1500 to 10’000 ft
indicate blanks when AUTO MODE FAIL or the system is in MAN/DUMP mode
12
Q
MAN PRESS CONTROL
A
-Electropneumatic outflow valve: closed
-Pneumatic outflow valve: operated via the MAN RATE KNOB (-1500 to +2500 fpm)
13
Q
DUMP FUNCTION
A
Only available in auto mode.
Fully depressurizes the aircraft
14
Q
CAB PR. IND.
A
-Alt ind.
-Rate ind.
-Diff. ind. (DeltaPr Cabin/A/C static pr.)(-1 to 8 psi) OFF Flag appears in the RH corner if a loss of ELEC PWR occurs
15
Q
the AFCS consists of
A
-AFCS computer
-Control panel
-ADU
-3 servo actuators (yaw, pitch, roll)
16
Q
AFCS inputs
A
-ADCs
-AHRS
-SGU
-RA
-GPS
-Other sensors
17
Q
BANK (AFCS button)
A
HI 27° (default)
LO 15°
18
Q
ADU
A
Advisories
Caution
Armed mode
Captured mode
19
Q
GA pb
A
GA mode: AP OFF + FD HDG HLD + predetermined safe pitch attitude
20
Q
EADI FMA
A
Top L: ARM/ACT lateral modes
Top R ARM/ACT vertical modes
*= mode capture in progress
Mode change: 5s white box after the arm mode has been captured
21
Q
TCS
A
tempo. manual control while AP ON
AP arrows ext. when ON
-in basic AP MODE: AP change PITCH and ROLL ref. New ref = new pitch + new roll
-during IAS or VS mode: generates dashed IAS/VS messages on the ADU
Pitch attitude limits: +- 15° (if released with > 15°, AP returns to 15°
Bank angle limits:
-if TCS is released at a bank angle of < 6°: AP levels wings
-if > 6° but < 35 °: AP maintains bank angle
-if > 35° AP returns to and keeps 35°
22
Q
ALT ALERT
A
-C chord sound when within 1000 ft of sel. alt.
-any alt. dev. > 250ft triggers an alert
-visual alerts ext. when > 1000 ft of presel. alt
23
Q
AP AUTO DISENG. conditions
A
-Stall warning
-AHRS dis.
-ADC dis.
-PITCH TRIM ASYM
-AP/YD conditions no longer valid
24
Q
AP must be disconnected if the following adv. appear on the ADU
A
-AILERON MISTRIM
-PITCH TRIM FAIL
-PITCH MISTRIM
25
YD DISENG. conditions
-pressing the YD pb
-applying > 66 lbs of force on the rudder pedals (diseng. also the AP)
26
PITCH TRIM ASYM lt ON
AUTO AP DISENG. (it can't be re-eng. in this cond.)
27
ELT AUTO ON when
> 5 g force
TX on 121.5, 243, 406 MHz
28
BATTERIES
-MAIN BAT (24V Ni-Cd - 43 Ah): ENG START + EMER PWR SUPPLY (incl. PROP FTR)
-EMER BAT (24V Ni-Cd - 15 Ah): ensures pwr supply to the EMER NETWORK if the MAIN BAT has been completely discharged by repeated start attempts + AVOIDS PWR TRANSIENTS on critical equipment during engine starts
29
TRU
ACw to DC: maintains the BATs when BOTH GEN FAIL (DC PWR under EMER SUPPLY)
30
DC STARTERS/GEN (2)
-Each delivers: 12 Kw (400A), 27/31V (nominal setting = 30V)
-Air-cooled
31
DC STARTER MODE
STARTER MODE: connects to MAIN BAT or EXT PWR
-The rotor rotates up to self-sustaining speed (45% NH) then START SEQ auto. ends
-Due to tolerances, start seq. may terminate at 42/48 % NH
32
DC GEN MODE
GENERATOR MODE: when the engine reaches 61.5 % NH --> GEN MODE
(DC GEN pb pushed in + EXT PWR not ON)
33
GCU
Gen. Control Unit
Controls: GC + SC (gen contactor + starter contactor)
MONITORS: point of regulation which maintains constant voltage during load variances
PROVIDES FAULT detection and protection for:
- GEN OVER/UNDVOLT + OVER/UNDSPD
-DIFF. FAULT CURRENT
-GEN OVERLOAD
-PWR and FAULT CURRENT LIMITING
-BUS TIE LOCK OUT
REVERSE CURRENT
EQUALIZING LOAD (in case of BTC failed closed)
34
BPCU
Bus Pwr Control Unit - controls:
-BTC
-BSC - BAT STARTER CONTACTOR
-LOAD SHEDDING
-EXT PWR functions
-DC SVCE BUS
35
DC DISTRIBUTION NETWORK
11 busses
-DC BUS 1 + 2
-HOT MAIN BAT BUS + HOT EMER BAT BUS
-DC EMER BUS, DC ESS BUS, DC STBY BUS
-UTLY BUS 1 + 2
-DC SVCE BUS
-GND HDLG BUS
36
DC BUS 1 normally supplies
-HOT EMER BAT BUS
-DC EMER BUS
-DC STBY BUS
-UTLY BUS 1
-INV 1
-DC SVCE BUS
37
DC BUS 2 normally supplies
-HOT MAIN BAT BUS
-DC ESS BUS
-UTLY BUS 2
-INV 2
38
How many BTCs and BTR are controlled by the MAIN ELEC PWR PNL "BTC" pb?
2, one between DC BUS 1 and DC BUS 2, one between AC BUS 1 and AC BUS 2
39
A/C ON GND, DC EXT PWR ON, DC BTC "ISOL"
DC BUS 2 and AC BUS 2 are isolated
40
When DC GEN is functioning as a starter during a BAT START is supplied by
it is electrically supplied by the HOT MAIN BAT BUS and controlled from the DC ESS BUS
41
once the STARTER has started the engine, it operates in the GEN MODE when passing
61.5 % NH
42
What is the nominal voltage of the DC GENs?
30V
43
assuming normal operation in flight, how is the constant AC PWR frequency obtained
from DC busses through two inverters
44
assuming normal operation in flight, when are the HOT EMER BUS and HOT MAIN BAT BUS connected to their respective batteries
Always
45
assuming normal operation in flight, when are the DC EMER BUS and DC ESS BUS connected to the DC BUS 1 and/or DC BUS 2
always through BAT CHG and its respective HOT EMER or HOT MAIN BAT BUS
46
INV 1 normally supplies
AC BUS 1 and AC STBY BUS
47
DC SVCE and UTLY BUS SHED amber lt comes on when
at least one UTLY BUS is disconnected from its associated main DC BUS
48
EMER BAT CHG FAULT LT ON when
BAT OVHT detected by MFC (automatic disconnection) or charge contactor failure
49
following an INV FAIL, "INV" lt illuminates
associated AC BUS is supplied through the AC BTR by the other INV
50
MAIN BAT OVHT with MAIN BAT CHG "FAULT" LT ON, what happens to the busses powered by that battery?
HOT MAIN BAT BUS is lost and DC ESS BAT BUS is powered by DC BUS 1
51
in FLT with one eng INOP, which indication would be displayed on the shutdown engine's DC GEN pb
white "OFF" if pb is released, amber "FAULT" if pb is depressed in
52
in flight one arrow illuminated on the EMER SUPPLY shows
the supply of DC ESS or DC EMER BUS from the corresponding HOT BAT BUS and battery discharging
53
the DC BTC is auto. closed and the flow bar is ill. in case of
EXT PWR op, H MODE op, or single eng. op.
54
in the event of both DC BUS 1 and 2 supply lost
INV 1 is auto. supplied by the HOT MAIN BAT BUS or by the HOT EMER BAT BUS in OVRD config. (or TRU if equipped and selected on)
55
not counting UTLY and SVCE BUSSES, which DC/AC BUSSES cannot be supplied on BAT ONLY
DC1,DC2,AC1,AC2
56
A/C equipped with TRU. in case of DUAL DC GEN LOSS
with TRU pb ON, the TRU is connected to DC EMER BUS, DC STBY BUS, DC ESS BUS, INV1 (AC STBY BUS ONLY)
57
with BAT ONLY, AC BUS 1 + 2 are
never supplied
58
BAT sel toggle sw on OVRD means that
no changing about the supply, each EMER, ESS and STBY BUS are forced to be connected to their respective BAT, overriding all other logics and protections
59
the UNDV lt ill. amber when
DC STBY BUS voltage is lower than 19.5V
60
STBY BUS OVRD pb set on OVRD means that
DC STBY BUS and AC STBY BUS through INV 1 are supplied from DC HOT EMER BUS
61
no EXT PWR avail. does H mode provide pwr for the ACW syst.
No
62
how can the ACW SVCE BUS be powered by ACW EXT PWR
directly from the ACW EXT PWR, green AVAIL lt ill., but the att. pnl ACW SVCE BUS SW must be ON
63
what is the minimum NP to ensure ACW GEN operation
66% (range of 341 to 488 Hz)
64
A/C on gnd, ACW EXT PWR sel. ON, starting LH ENG and putting LH CL MAX RPM
ACW BUS 1 and ACW BUS 2 are still supplied by EXT PWR
65
in the ACW SYST, how many BTC are used
2 BTC and 1 BTC pb
66
the BTC in the ACW syst permits
to provide power to both ACW BUSSES when EXT PWR is used and if one ACW GEN fails, the other provides power to both ACW BUSSES
67
A/C on GND, ENGs running, EXT ACW PWR supplying the BUSSES, we select ACW BTC on ISOL
ACW BUS 1 and 2 are lost
68
with all 4 GENs pb IN, and EXT PWR supplying both ACW and DC, which light should be illuminated in the four ship's gen pb
amber FAULT to show an opening generator contactor
69
A/C in flt, ACW GEN 1 fails
only ACW SVCE BUS is shed
70
when the ACW SVCE BUS is SHED, what indications are given
SHED amber lt on attendant pnl ACW SVCE BUS pb
71
which of the following agent is used in the two engine fire bottles
freon or halon, pressurized by nitrogen
72
how many eng. fire ext bottles are there
2 common for both eng
73
each eng is equipped with how many fuel detection loops
2 fuel detection loops mounted in PARALLEL
74
which of the following busses power the eng fire det syst, the fire handles and the ext bottle discharge syst
DC EMER BUS
75
what happens when the SQUIB TEST pb is depressed
discharge heads are tested and two "SQUIB" lts ill white
76
switching the FIRE TEST sw on FAULT position on ENG FIRE PNL, what happens
BAT ONLY: only the related LOOP A and LOOP B fault lights ill.
H MODE: the related LOOP A and LOOP B FAULT lts ill., with the CCAS pnl "LOOP" lt MC and aural advise
77
A/C on gnd, BAT ONLY, both CL in SO pos. will the fire test operate?
ENG FIRE lt on CAP and in FIRE HANDLE, MW lts and CRC in CM1 loudspeaker
78
to get the FIRE WARNING on, it is necessary to have
both loops ON or one loop ON only but the other OFF
79
ENG FIRE TEST, LOOP pb IN, what happens if only one loop senses a fire?
nothing
80
with only one loop pb IN, what happens if it senses a fire
fire warning is initiated
81
the FUEL SO red lt on the CL ill.
during a REAL FIRE (CL isn't in FUEL SO pos)
82
is it possible to discharge a fire bottle without pulling the FIRE SO HANDLE
No
83
when you pull the ENG FIRE SO HANDLE what happens
PROP FTR, FUEL ENG LP VALVE CLOSURE, AIR BLEED VALVE AND HP VALVE CLOSURE, DE ICE VALVE and SHUT OFF VALVE CLOSURE, ELECTRICAL DC and ACW GENs DEACT, SQUIB LT ON, EXTINCTION AGENT PB is activated
84
the DISCH amber lt indicates
fire bottle is empty (depressurized)
85
fire proc. on LH ENG, after agent 1 DISCH you see
AGENT 1 DISCH on LH ENG + AGENT 2 DISCH on RH ENG
86
after an ENG FIRE, when does the red fire handle lt ext
only when the temp detected by the loops drops below the warning threshold
87
SMOKE DET are provided in
AVIONICS COMPT, TOILET, FWD + AFT CARGO COMPT
88
red ELEC SMOKE lt on CAP can indicate smoke detected in the air extraction duct from which of the following areas
between the avionics compt. and the extract fan
89
in FLT, roll control is achieved by
2 AIL each one with a tab and also 2 spoilers
90
roll control operation is achieved by actuating
mechanically the AIL and hyd. the SPLRS
91
roll trim control is performed using
only L AIL TAB
92
SPLR lt is ill to ind
associated spoiler is not in the retracted position
93
each of the 2 roll spoilers has an HYD actuator which is controlled
mechanically, by control of aileron deflection
94
the role of spring tab is
a spring tab provides a flexible compensation, which auto. increases with the aerodynamic load on the aileron
95
A/C equipped with electromechanical locking device
-each AIL is immobilized by an ELEC/MECH locking device
-each ELEC/MECH locking dev. is electrically actuated through switches installed on the gust lock lever
- an AIL LOCK lt, installed on the pedestal, will ill. with CCAS act. whenever one of the locking actuators is in disagreement with the gust lock lever position
96
SPLRS start to move after a give aileron deflection (2.5°)
at all speeds
97
pitch control is achieved by
2 mechanical drive elevators, each fitted with an automatic tab
98
pitch trim is obtained by
off setting both automatic tab neutral position
99
pitch trim actuation
-both NORMAL TRIM (control column) and STBY TRIM (pedestal) disconnect AP if engaged
-simultaneous action of NORMAL TRIM and STBY TRIM is not recommended
100
if one control column is jammed
pitch uncoupling procedure allows the other channel to operate one elevator
101
an aural whooler alert is generated by CCAS in case of
pitch trim use for more than 1s
102
in the yaw axis, pilot's inputs act directly on the
RUDDER TAB and through a spring on the rudder itself
103
YAW SPRING TAB function reduces pilot's efforts at
any speed
104
RCU - releasable centering unit - located between the RUD and the linkage to the pilot's pedals
-enables a stabilization of the RUD position when no action is applied on the pedals
-as soon as the yaw trim is moved, disengages to allow trim setting
105
the YAW TRIM is actuated by
an ELEC TRIM ACTUATOR, shifting the TRIM TAB ZERO position
106
the yaw trim pos ind shows
units of trim motor displacement from neutral
107
the TLU is controlled by ADC 1-2 and
-can be controlled manually in case of 2 ADC FAIL
-limits pedals stroke and rudder clearance (unlimited until 185 kt in accel, limited until 180 kt in decel)
108
LO SPD lt associated to TLU
ill green when rudder travel is not limited
109
the GUST LOCK SYST acts on
ROLL and PITCH control
110
how is the RUD protected, ON GND, for excessive movement generated by gust
by the RUDDER DUMPER
111
STICK SHAKE ADVICE is activated by
2 STICK SHAKER ACTUATORS, each one directly attached to the FO/CPT's control columns
112
the STICK PUSHER ACTUATOR is attached to the linkage of
CPT's control column
113
stick pusher is inhi
-on gnd
-during 10s after lift off
-in flt, provided RA is operative, when the A/C descends below 500 ft
114
meaning of the blue EXT flag on the flaps pos ind
-flap valve is hyd commanding flap extension
-with flaps extended it indicates a hyd leak
115
the flaps are protected by MFC in the way that
-ext is inhi > 185 kt
-clacker alert operates > 185 kt F15 and 150 kt F30
-the elec supply to the flap control system is isol, when an asymmetry of 6.7° is reached
116
in addition to CCAS act, if flaps asym (6.7°) is det by the MFC
-elec pwr to the flap control syst is isol and flaps are locked in position
-flaps control lever has no control on the syst
117
FLAPS UNLK red lt on CAP and CCAS alert when
flaps retract untimely more than 4° when flaps are sel 15° or more
118
the two ADC are supplied with static air pr, total air pr, TAT and each ADC computes
PA,VS,IAS,TAS,TAT,SAT
119
ADC 1 supplies
CAPT'S FLIGHT INSTR, AHRS 1, ADC 1, FDAU, MFC, GPWS, PRESSURIZ, AFCS
-EECs and TAT/SAT/TAS ind. are supplied according to ADC1/2 sel. on CAPT PNL
120
ADC 2 supplies
FO FLIGHT INSTR, AHRS 2 FDAU, MFC, PRESSURIZ, AFCS and ATC2
121
ADC 1 FAIL is detected by
red flags on CPT flight instr, lost of information on TAT/SAT/TAS ind and torque amber bugs are lost if ADC SEL in position 1
122
ADC 2 FAIL is detected by
red flags on FO flight instr, lost of information on TAT/SAT/TAS ind and torque amber bugs are lost if ADC sel in pos 2
123
in case of ADC FAIL
compare valid ADC with the STBY INSTR and select the other ADC to restore TAT/SAT/TAT ind and torque amber bugs
124
aircraft in flight, total DC GEN loss, which ADC is supplied
ADC 1 only is supplied
125
the two AHRS provide
pitch, roll and hdg
126
A/C on gnd, the two AHRS start their alignment period
automatically provided A/C BAT ON
127
the AHRS 1 supplies
SGU1,FO RMI,FDAU,RADAR,ASCB BUS
128
the AHRS 2 supplies
SGU 2, CPT RMI, ASCB BUS
129
when the ERECT/FAIL warning light ill. on one AHRS
the crew must press this switch within 15", while maintaining the A/C on non-accelerated flight for gyro erection
130
A/C IN FLT supplied by BAT ONLY, which AHRS is supplied
AHRS 1 only is supplied
131
AHRS FAIL
HDG FAIL red message on associated EHSI and ATT FAIL red message on associated EADI, red flag on opposite RMI and AP remains engaged
132
AHRS FAIL actions to be performed
pilot on the side of the failed AHRS should select opposite ATT/HDG pb
133
"HDG" amber message on the TOP RH of the EADI means that
the two AHRS disagree on HDG info (6° or more)
134
"ATT" amber message on the TOP RH of the EADI means that
the two AHRS disagree on both PITCH and ROLL info (6° or more)
135
when the two AHRS disagree by 6° or more what happens
PIT,ROLL or ATT message is displayed on both EADI, EFIS COMP amber lt on CAP and AP disengages for ATT only
136
corrective action for EFIS COMP fault
compare both EADI to STBY ATT INSTRUMENT then pull the CB of the incorrect AHRS and pilot on the side of the incorrect AHRS should select opposite ATT/HDG ref
137
SGU FAIL (part A or B) indications
BLACK
138
SGU fail (part C)
RED CROSS
139
SGU FAIL corrective action
pilot on the side of the failed SGU should select opposite SGU ref (depress SGU sw)
140
FAILED CRT indication
failed CRT goes black
141
after a CRT FAIL
it should be switched OFF in order to obtain the COMPOSITE MODE on the remaining CRT
142
LOSS of one or more individual readouts on the EADI and/or EHSI
-red crosses appear on scales (LOC/GS/COURSE DEV/SPD)
-amber dashes replace digital info (DH/RA/CRS/HDG/DIST/GSPD/TTG)
-navigation pointers and/or course deviation bars disappear
143
A/C in FLT on BAT ONLY. which EADI is working and how if EHSI is OFF
only CPT's EADI is working in COMP MODE if the CPT's EHSI is in OFF pos
144
the FAST/SLOW scale is referenced to what
AIRSPD INTERNAL BUG
145
A/C on GND. flight recorder ops
-OFF until engine is started
-can be energized by selecting ON the RCDR pb and de-energized by pushing the RESET pb
146
CVR ops
-last 30' are retained
-all recordings may be erased by pressing ERASE pb provided the A/C in on gnd and prk brk off
147
where is the REFUEL/DEFUEL pnl
RH main landing gear fairing
148
what power source supplies the REFUEL/DEFUEL pnl
DC GND HNDL BUS
149
REFUEL/DEFUEL syst
-the wing tanks can also be refueled by gravity
-in case of FQI fail detection, the high level is achieved by a level sensor installed at the bottom of each surge tank
-the syst may be used to defuel the aircraft by applying a 11 psi suction to the connector and opening the tank refuel valves
150
REFUEL/DEFUEL PNL MODE SEL SW AT REFUEL POS, how are the refuel valves operated
-auto logic if the fuel valve sw are set on NORM
-by manual sel of the refuel valves sw to OPEN or SHUT
151
FQI TEST pb
-display all 8 on the ref/def pnl and cockpit fuel quantity gauges
-BLUE LH and RF ref valves shut down
152
FUEL QUANT IND
-L and R fuel quant ind channels are independent
-in a level ATT (within -3° and +1° of pitch and +-2° of roll) the accuracy of the 6 probes fuel quant ind syst in each tank is +- 1% near ZERO. +- 3% at FULL
153
how many magnetic level ind are located at the bottom of each fuel tank
2
154
FQI display
fuel mass remaining on board
155
the ELEC PUMP and JET PUMP are located
both in a feeder compt to avoid uncovering the pumps in case of vertical or lateral loads
156
what is the capacity of the feeder compt
160 kg
157
in NORM OPS, the ELEC PUMP in each tank is used only to
START the ENG, which pressurizes the JET PUMP via its HMU HP FUEL PUMP for subsequent pressurization of the fuel syst
158
the two FUEL PUMP pb control
-auto. starting and stopping function of the related ELEC PUMP when sel. IN
-closure of the related MOTIVE FLOW VALVE, thus shut-off of the related JET PUMP when sel OFF
159
the ELEC PUMP normally runs anytime the related pump pb is in and
-JET PUMP PR drops < 5 psi
-during xfeed op
160
when does the MOTIVE FLOW VALVE open
anytime the related PUMP PB is IN and pressure from the HMU is sufficient to open it
161
JET PUMP is activated by
HP FUEL from engine HMU
162
in the whole flight envelope how many engines can only one elec pump supply
1
163
a JET PUMP fail is detected by
ill of RUN green lt in the related elec pump pb
164
engine running, FEED LO PR can mean (FUEL)
pressure < 4 psi or fuel starvation
165
to feed ENG 1 with TANK 2, LH and RH FUEL PUMPS running, you must
open the xfeed valve and then select ENG 1 FUEL PUMP pb OFF
166
during xfeed with 2 eng running, after xfeed open and pump pb off in the side with least fuel, how many pumps are running
2. ELEC and JET PUMP on the side with the most fuel
167
if no green FLOW BAR is visible in the XFEED pb
XFEED valve is in transit or a fault exists
168
how is the LP VALVE at the outlet of each tank controlled
ELEC by the related fire handle
169
LO LVL amber lt
-fuel qty < 160 kg
-feeder tank lvl < 160 kg and the corresponding electrical pump runs automatically
170
each HYD syst is mainly pressurized by means of
an ACW ELEC PUMP
171
an AUX DC ELEC PUMP is located
in the BLUE HYD SYST
172
the NORM HYD PR of the BLUE and GREEN SYST is
3000 psi
173
the HYD FLUID is contained in
a single common not pressurized tank, divided in two compartments BLUE and GREEN, located in the HYD BAY (LH L/G fairing)
174
normal accumulator pre-charge pressure on the three gauges near the left main gear bay
1500 psi
175
BLUE HYD SYST users
-NWS
-FLPS
-SPLRS
-PROP BRK
-EMER + PARK BRK
176
GREEN HYD SYST users
-L/G
-NORM BRKS
177
on GND without elec pwr (BAT OFF) we can read
HYD PR or GAS PR GAUGE on the HYD BAY (LH L/G fairing)
178
on GND, pushing the AUX PUMP ob on the pedestal allows
to energize the AUX PUMP which pressurize the BLUE HYD SYST, regardless of BAT SW ON/OFF
179
A/C ON GND, RH ENG MAX RPM, the following main pumps are activated
GREEN only
180
when PROP BRK LOCKING SEQ is initiated (ENG ONE STOPPED, ENG TWO RUNNING) aux pump....
AUX PUMP stops to run when PROP BRK is engaged
181
AUX PUMP runs automatically (PB pressed) HYD
-in flt, BLUE SYST LO PR, L/G LEVER SEL DN, at least ONE ENG RUNNING
-on gnd, BLUE SYST LO PR, PROP BRK NOT ENG, at least ONE ENG RUNNING
182
LO PR amber lt on GREEN HYD PUMP pb ON, the XFEED VALVE automatically opens
FALSE
183
BLUE HYD MAIN PUMP LO PR IN FLT L/G UP
AUX PUMP does not take over auto.
184
with BLUE PUMP OFF, and GREEN PUMP running XFEED allows pressurization of
both BLUE SYST and BRK ACCU
185
you are on final appr, L/G DN, all lts ext on the HYD PNL. a LO PR caution lt ill on the BLUE MAIN PUMP
the AUX PUMP automatically restores the blue pressure
186
OVHT ALERT
OVHT of the pump case drain line
187
LO LVL ALERT (HYD)
XFEED VALVE is auto. closed and inhibited
188
DUAL DC GEN LOSS. WHICH HYD PUMPS ARE LOST
only DC AUX PUMP is lost
189
ice and rain protection is provided by
ELEC HTG + PNEUMATIC SYST
190
ANTI ICING ELEC HTG is provided mainly by ACW CURRENT for
-PROP BLADES
-WINDSHIELDS
-PROBES
-FLT CONTROL HORNS
191
AIRFRAME BLEED PB
-must be IN, no OFF LT, in order to operate ENG and WING STABILIZER BOOTS
-can be OFF, OFF LT ON, in order to isolate ENG DE-ICING and AFR DE-ICING
192
the purpose of AIRFRAME BLEED is
-to control DE ICE and ISOL VALVES normal operation, PB pressed both DEICE and ISOL VALVES are open
-to permit a detection of an ENG or AIRFRAME DE ICE SYST FAIL
193
both AFR and ENG DEICING sel ON
they are DEICED sequentially
194
DE ICING LT ON on memo pnl
AFR DEICING ON
195
MODE SEL AUTO IN "MAN" ON THE DEICING PNL. WHEN SHOULD THE MODE SEL PB BE "ON"
if SAT < 20°C; causes a cycle length of 180s
196
can you use the PNEUMATIC DE ICING SYST with both eng bleed valves OFF, engines running
Yes
197
ONE ENG INOP, if the AAS SYST DET ICE WHILE ICING AOA GREEN LT is EXT
amber ICING lt illuminates flashing, MC and SC
198
A/C IN FLT, ANTI ICING ON. if the AAS syst det ice
the amber ICING lt ill flashing, MC and SC + green ICING AOA ill steady
199
A/C in flt, DE ICING blue lt flashing on memo pnl
AIR FRAME DE ICING STILL ON 5' after the last ice accretion has been det by the AAS syst
200
FAULT lt in airframe BLEED PB ill amber and CCAS is act when
air pressure downstream of the de-ice valves stays below 14 psi, more than 10", or air temp upstream of the de-ice valves exceeds 230°C
201
DE ICING OVRD PB IN OVRD POS
-bypasses the MFC modules logic and a timing cycle of 60s is sel
-only used when the associated FAULT LT is ILL
202
MODE SEL AUTO PB in MAN pos
DE ICING MODE SEL PB is operative and allows the crew to select the appropriate timing cycle, depending on SAT
203
NORM OPS, when is it possible to use PROP ANTI ICING
only when both engines are running
204
PROP ANTI ICING MODE SEL ON
BLADES HTG is 20" long according to a cycle of 80"
205
STALL ALERT threshold is reduced from NORM OPS to ICING OPS as soon as
At least one horn anti icing is sel ON
206
when does the GREEN AOA lt disappear
manually by depressing AOA GREEN LT PB after it is visually confirmed that the A/C is clear of any residual ice and A/C is flying now in norm cond
207
to prevent the formation of ice on air data sensors, elec probe htg is provided for
CPT,FO,STBY PITOT TUBES (3) and STATIC PORTS (6), CPT and FO AOA PROBES (2) + TAT PROBES (2) in flight only
208
PITOTS, PROBES AND STATIC PORTS ARE
HEATED AND MONITORED BY CCAS ON GND AND IN FLT (EXCEPT STATIC PORTS MONITORED BY CCAS ON GND ONLY)
209
PROBES HTG AND WINDSHIELD HTG PB ON IN H MODE OPS
STATIC PORTS + STBY PORTS ARE HEATED
210
you can use wipers
below 160 kt
211
L/G pos ind are controlled by
2 isolates systems, SYST 1 and SYST 2 and two separated position indicators
212
A/C supplied by BAT ONLY, which L/G syst is supplied
SYST 1 ONLY (central pnl)
213
L/G NOT DN. the alarm is generated
-by MFC 2 associated to the OVHD pnl (SYST 2)
-by MFC 1 associated to the central pnl (SYST 1)
214
an anti retraction latch prevents selection of the L/G lever to the UP pos as long as
the 3 L/G shock absorbers are not ext
215
L/G SEL VALVE is located in the LH MAIN GEAR FAIRING, and is controlled electrically from which BUS
DC STBY BUS
216
L/G NORMAL OPS
-main gear wheels are braked auto as soon as the lever is sel UP
-as soon as the gear is locked at its selected pos, HYD PR is released
217
to consider the L/G DN, 3 lts must be ill
either on the OVHD or CENTRAL PNL
218
UNLK lt ill on the L/G PNL
-respective gear not seen locked in the lever selected position, or on the gnd, the uplock box is not in the opened pos
219
a red light incorporated in the L/G lever will ill and CCAS will be act whenever any gear is not seen DN and LOCKED
-at least one PL at FI, RA < 500ft
-F30 and RA < 500 lt
220
brakes equipped on the ATR
multidisc carbon brakes
221
if the norm L/G ext fails, the EMER EXT HANDLE allows mechanical unlocking then
L/G extends because of gravity, aerodynamic forces and a gas actuator. MAIN L/G is assisted by gas actuation and integrated springs, NOSE L/G by a mechanical device
222
how many valves in the NWS syst must be open before NWS is avail
both the SOLENOID and SWIVEL VALVES must be open to obtain a max L/R deflection of 60°
223
NWS operation
-before TO, NWS CTRL will be maintained as long as one gear stays on ground
-at LDG, it will work with the nose gear locked down, nose and main gear shock absorbers compressed
224
how long should the ANTISKID F lts ill during a test of a normal syst
-6s on the gnd
-3s in flt
225
the ANTISKID is INHI at wheel speed above
17 kt
226
the ANTISKID PROTECTION is operative at speeds over
10 kt
227
if an ANTISKID CHNL FAILS during the ANTISKID TEST, what is the indication
related F lt does not ext after test
228
the ANTISKID SYST uses which elec busses
-DC ESS BUS for INBD WHEELS
-DC EMER BUS for OTBD WHEELS
229
TOTAL HYD SYST FAIL, BRK ACCU allows via the EMER PARK BRK HANDLE
at least 6 applications of braking force at fzll emer brk pr without ANTISKID prot
230
the BRK and TIRE HIGH TEMP PROT consist of
-HOT lt on the central pnl indicating a brakes temp of 160 °C or more
-fuse plugs designed to release internal tire pr at HI temp (177 °C or more) on the main wheels
231
the ANTISKID syst is provides protection against
-LOCKED WHEEL PROT, to preclude tire scuffing for wheel speed > 23 kt
-TOUCH DOWN PROT, to preclude inadvertent brk appl when spin up is below 35 kt or for 5s, whichever occurs first
232
the two NAV CONTROL BOXES on the glareshield pnl control
-the respective VOR receivers using a common VOR antenna located on top of the VERT STAB
-the respective ILS rec using a common antenna used for VOR (LOC info) and a common GS antenna
233
you can have VOR information on
EHSI course pointer and deviation, EADI deviation in COMPOSITE MODE ONLY, plus course pointers in RMI
234
you can have ILS information on
EHSI and EADI LOC and GS
235
course pointer indication on EHSI and RMI
you can have NDB or VOR indication either on the EHSI or RMI depending on VOR/ADF SELECTOR pos
236
the NAV information VOR or ILS displayed on the top RH of the EHSI
identifies the NAV source, which supplies the COURSE DEV BAR (in amber when both pilots are using the same syst)
237
the H in front of the DME mileage information on the EHSI means that
HOLD DME MODE is sel and will keep the distance info even if the VOR/ILS freq is changed
238
VOR RECEIVER FAIL is shown on EHSI by
a red cross on DEV BAR N°1 and the POINTER indication is removed if VOR is selected
239
which corrective action can you take in case of VOR 1 REC FAIL
press CPT VOR/ILS SW to transfer N°2 VOR REC on CPT's DEV BAR
240
a GS 2 REC FAIL is shown by
a red cross on EADI 2 and EHSI 2 GS DEVIATION
241
which corrective action can you take in case of GS 2 REC FAIL
press FO VOR/ILS SWITCHING to transfer N°2 ILS (LOC+GS) REC ON FO ILS indication
242
A/C supplied by BAT ONLY. which VHF is operating
VHF NAV 1 ONLY
243
MARKER BEACON RECEIVER gives
-audio signal
-a visual signal displayed at the bottom RH corner of the EADI
244
flying over TLS airport (elev 500 ft). at 3500ft on qnh, what is the RA indication on EADI
nothing, RA not displayed > 2500ft
245
DH IND OCCUR
-when RA < than sel DH+100ft, a white box appears on EADI
-when RA < than sel DH, a DH amber symbol comes inside the box
246
GPWS provides
-visual and aural alerts in case of dangerous flight
-alerts between 50 and 2500 ft AGL only
-test on gnd and in flt (>1000ft RA), by pressing one of the GPWS/GS pb
247
when can the GPWS GS WARNING be inhi
< 1000 ft AGL by pressing one of the GPWS/GS SW
248
what audio alert is triggered when descending through the sel DH with the L/G EXT
minimums-minimums
249
the WX RDR DET is displayed on
EHSI in ARC MODE only
250
when you check the WX RDR working in test pos
-the range is auto sel at 100NM
-three arcs appear on EHSI (green, yellow, red) + an arc predominately green between 85 and 95 NM
-selected mode appears on the top LH of EHSI
251
when will the selection of the TGT mode on WX RDR CTRL PNL activates the amber TGT advice on the EHSI
anytime a LVL 3 (RED) radar return is between 60 and 120 NM and within 7.5° of HDG
252
what is the purpose of the S bend of the air intake duct
-to provide uniform inlet airflow to the compressor
-to protect ENG INLET in case of foreign object ingestion and to divide airflow in a primary flow directed to the ENG and secondary flow directed to the OIL COOLER
253
the ACCESSORY GEAR BOX, which is driven by the HP SPOOL, contains drives for
-DC STARTER/GEN
-FUEL HP PUMP
-OIL PUMP
254
on the PROP REDUCTION GEAR BOX are installed
-PVM
-FTR PUMP
-OVSPD GOVERNOR
-AUX FTR PUMP
-ACW GEN
-RH ENG PROP BRK
-FUEL COOLED OIL COOLER
255
is the fuel heated before HP PUMP, to prevent icing?
yes, by an automatic FUEL HEATER installed at the filter outlet, heated by ENG OIL
256
how are the OIL PR SURGES prevented
-AIR/OIL cooler and pressure filter are both fitted with bypasses
-a COLD RELIEF VALVE bypasses the OIL back to the tank, during cold wx start
257
EEC regulates ENG PWR as a function of
-PLs and PWR MGT sel pos
-FLT COND and bleed air valves pos
258
EEC function is
-to provide uptrim pwr in case of ENG FAIL during TO (ATPCS) and ensure, at a given engine rating, a constant PL position
-to control at low thrust level and low speed, a CONSTANT PROP SPD (for instance on GND)
259
HMU functions are
-meter FF delivery to the ENG
-provide MOTIVE FLOW to the fuel tank JET PUMP
-provide FUEL SO function (controlled by CL)
260
the PROP BRK is powered by
HYD BLUE PR
261
what is the logic to engage the PROP BRK
-gear shock abs compressed and gust lock lever engaged
-BLUE HYD PR AVAIL (READY LT)
-CL in FUEL SO or FTR
262
BLUE HYD PR LOST DURING H MODE
PROP BRK remains engaged
263
are the TQ,ITT,NP,NH,FF,OIL PR,OIL TEMP GAUGES ALL AVAIL on a BAT START
No, FF/FUEL USED and OIL PR/TEMP require DC ELEC PWR, they become available at 61.5% NH during ENG START
264
during start sequence, the XSTART SYST
makes use of the MAIN BAT up to 10% NH, then uses MAIN BAT and opposite DC GEN (on gnd only)
265
HIGH ENERGY IGN SYST consists of
2 IGN exciters (A and B), for each engine, pwrd by DC ESS BUS and 2 spark igniters, one for each ignition exciter
266
when ENG START rotary sel is in CRANK pos, the exciters are energized
Never
267
the exciters A+B, for each ENG, are auto activated
if NH drops < 60%
268
the use of MAN IGN energizes the exciters on both ENG
in case of adverse WX ops or EEC failure
269
on GND with gust lock engaged, what is the max pwr avail
a few degrees above FI
270
which ATPCS functions are AVAIL when it has been armed for TO
uptrim and autoftr
271
A/C on gnd, pwr mgt TO, ATPCS armed if
both PL > 49° and both TQ > 46%
272
when the PWR MGT is set in TO, what is indicated by the two AMBER TARGET BUGS on the TQ gauges
PWR MGT amber bugs are set by FDAU to the RTO (uptrim value)
273
after a normal TO, how is ATPCS usually disarmed
PWR MGT moved from TO
274
a gate prevents PL angle reduction below FI as soon as
both main L/G absorbers are released
275
the PEC is a dual chnl elec box which provides
-synchrophasing between the two props by a closed loop control over the PROP PITCH change syst
-detect isolate and accomodate syst fault
276
the PROP PITCH CHANGE is hydromech controlled by
PVM, PCV or PEC depending on A/C version
277
during a GA with 2 ENG operating the ATPCS
is armed, provided that the PWR MGT sel is set at TO pos, but only for auto ftr
278
during LDG, when does the idle gate move rearward to allow the GI pos
as soon as one L/G shock absorber is compressed
279
STARTER FAULT lt ill when
-a GCU fail is det
-on R ENG, ENG START sel in START, PROP BRK ON, but gust lock is not engaged
-starter remains engaged after 45% NH
280
at TO what happens if an EEC FAULT occurs
pwr remains virtually unchanged due to a FAIL FIX device, EEC fault lt flashes and EEC deselection is strictly prohibited
281
in case of an EEC fault
-when PL are retarded below 52° EEC fault lt ill steady
-with PL below 52° after EEC deselection, PL is active again and it follows HMU base law
282
how is a failed eng detected by the ATPCS
when one TQ gauge drops < 18%
283
UPTRIM lt ill during TO when ONE ENG fails to indicate
that the ATPCS has auto increased TQ (10% of PWR) on the live engine
284
AUTO FTR occurs
after 2.15" following a TQ drop below 18%
285
the delay from the time an ENG FAIL is sensed, until the initiation of AUTO FTR allows the ACCELERATE-STOP PHASE of a TO to benefit from some drag on the failed ENG
true
286
if an ENG FAIL occurs before V1 and BOTH PL are retarded within 2.15", when does ATPCS disarm
at least one PL is retarded below 49° or both TQ reading are below 46%
287
during an ATPCS ENG FAIL SEQ when does the ARM lt ext
AUTO FTR signal triggered on the failed engine
288
how is a failed engine's prop feathered by the ATPCS
via an electrical motor that drives the blades to the feather stop
289
sequence after atpcs triggering
-the trigger cancellation can only result from PWR MGT other than TO, ATPCS pb off, both PL RETARDED
-if the engine is restarted, it will be necessary to select PWR MGT at MCT pos after relight, in order to unfeather the prop
290
in the event of a fail of primary chnl in PEC
the prop control will be automatically transferred to the backup chnl
291
the correct warning of the backup chnl is confirmed
on gnd, at each prop unfeathering by SGL CH light on for 2"
292
when the PEC fault lt ill amber, selecting off the relevant pb, NP is automatically set to...
PEC is deactivated and NP is blocked at 102.5% when PL is sufficient
293
an internal commutation allows an automatic sw from normal to alternate elec supply if source voltage falls below
19VDC
294
the MFC is operative as soon as
BAT is switched ON and the modules self test is completed (6")
295
the MFC amber lt comes ON flashing in 1A and 2A modules to indicate
selftest of these modules
296
CCAS operating modules
1B and 2B
297
the following warnings are not processed by the MFC
-ENG FIRE
-EXCESS CAB DIFF PR
-EXCESS CAB ALT
-NAC OVHT
-SMK
298
which lights remain on on CAP after pressing CLR
red lights +
-PRK BRK
-GPWS FAULT
-MAINT PNL
299
TO CONFIG TEST used to check
-PWR MGT TO
-PITCH TRIM GREEN + F15
-TLU LO SPD + AIL LOCK EXT
300
TO INHI will inhibit
-ENG OIL LO PR
-SMK
-all amber cautions on CAP except:
-EFIS COMP
-PRK BRK
-GPWS FAULT
-MAINT PNL
-ENG
-FLT CTL
301
manual cancellation of TO INHI is obtained
by pressing RCL pb
302
stall alert and pusher activation is triggered by
CRIT AOA INFO, directly processed by CCAS
303
ICING AOA ill, the stall alert threshold is at a CRIT AOA of
-lower than normal depending on flaps pos
-8.4° for TO and change when 10' have elapsed after lift off, or when flaps are retracted to 0, whichever occurs first
304
in case of MFC 1B and 2B FAIL
all level 3 (WARNING) alerts, except CONFIG, ENG OIL, PROP BRK, are processed without MW and CRC, all level 2 alerts (CAUTION) are not processed
305
pack valves functions are
-SHUT OFF
-PR CONTROL and hence FLOW CONTROL
306
PACKS are installed
one in each L/G fairing
307
which pack is the primary supplier of cockpit air
L
308
IF THE RELATED ELECTRICAL SUPPLY (OR AIRFLOW) IS LOST, THE PACK VALVES
are spring loaded closed
309
IN CASE OF PACK OVERHEAT DOWNSTREAM OF THE COMPRESSOR
the pack valve on the faulty side closes
310
IN CASE OF DUCT OVERHEAT DOWNSTREAM OF THE MIXING CHAMBER
no pack valve closes
311
TEMP SELECTOR OVHT CAUTION IS TRIGGERED WHEN
duct temp > 92°C
312
WHAT IS THE MEANING OF A RECIRCULATION FAN "FAULT" LIGHT
-fan rpm too low
-fan motor ovht
313
THE AIR CONDITIONING BLEED AIR IS SUPPLIED BY
generally supplied by engine LP stage but if the air is not sufficient air surge is automatically
switched to the engine HP stage (descent flight idle, ground operation)
314
WHAT HAPPENS, IN ABSENCE OF AIR PRESSURE, WITH ENGINE BLEED SELECTED "ON"
Bleed valve closes automatically
315
TO USE THE AIR CONDITIONING IN HOTEL MODE OPERATION, YOU NORMALLY USE
Right ENG AIR BLEED plus right PACK VALVE and via the CROSS-FEED BLEED VALVE
(automatically opened) the left PACK VALVE
316
THE GROUND CROSS-FEED BLEED VALVE OPENS AUTOMATICALLY
In hotel mode provided that the right bleed valve is open.
317
TO ENSURE A RAPID LEAK SENSING, A KEVLAR ENVELOPE IS INSTALLED AROUND THE
MAJOR PARTS OF THE HIGH TEMPERATURE BLEED DUCT
-in the wing lead edge and wing fuselage fairing
-in the upper and lower fuselage floor
-in the air conditioning pack area
318
AN OVERHEAT CONDITION DOWNSTREAM OF THE ENGINE BLEED AIR SHUT-OFF VALVE CAUSES
actuation of the OVHT alert and closure of ENG BLEED AIR VALVE
319
IN WHICH CASES DOES THE ENG BLEED VALVE CLOSE AUTOMATICALLY
-OVHT,LEAK, LACK OF AIR PR
-FIRE HANDLE ACT
-START SEQUENCE
-PROP BRK ON (L BLEED ONLY)
320
THE FAULT BLEED LIGHT COMES ON AMBER AND THE "CCAS" IS ACTIVATED WHEN
Disagreement between the valve and the selected position or in case of OVHT or LEAK
321
THE PNEUMATIC OUTFLOW VALVE
is slaved to the electro-pneumatic outflow valve in automatic mode only.
322
N NORMAL OPERATION WITHOUT FAILURE THE DIGITAL CONTROLLER USES AS
REFERENCE
ADC 1 and CPT BARO ALT SETTING
323
WHAT ARE THE CORRECT INDICATIONS DURING A PRESSURIZATION SYSTEM TEST
-The amber FAULT light in the MAN PB.
-The landing elevation indicator displays alternatively 18800 and -8800.
test inhi in flt
324
AFTER TAKE OFF THE CABIN ALTITUDE REMAINS AT TAKE OFF ELEVATION UNTIL THE
AIRCRAFT REACHES 3500 FT ABOVE
airfield elev
325
THE MAX CABIN RATE OF CLIMB, UP TO 20 000 FT IN AUTO MODE IS
+550 fpm
326
WHAT IS THE MAXIMUM CABIN DIFFERENTIAL PRESSURE
-Positive 6.35 PSI, limited by a manometric capsule.
-Negative 0.5 PSI, limited by a non-return valve
327
WHAT IS THE MAXIMUM CABIN ALTITUDE (FL250 AP=6 PSI)
6740 ft
328
HOW IS THE SYSTEM PROTECTED AGAINST EXCEEDING THE MAXIMUM CABIN DIFFERENTIAL
PRESSURE
Both outflow valves incorporate a manometric capsule (aneroid) to hold the valve open sufficiently to
prevent overpressure
329
N AUTO, WHAT IS THE HIGHEST CABIN RATE OF DESCENT AVAILABLE WITH THE DESCENT
RATE PUSH-BUTTON RELEASED (NORM)
-400 fpm
330
IN AUTO, WHAT IS THE HIGHEST CABIN RATE OF DESCENT AVAILABLE WITH THE DESCENT
RATE PB DEPRESSED (FAST)
-500 fpm
331
BEFORE LANDING TO AVOID A CABIN PRESSURE BUMP AT TOUCH DOWN, THE CABIN
ALTITUDE IS AUTOMATICALLY MAINTAINED AT 300 FT BELOW
selected landing elevation
332
AFTER LANDING, THE CABIN DEPRESSURIZATION RATE IS
+550 fpm
333
N CASE OF "ADC 1" FAILURE, THE DIGITAL CONTROLLER USES AS REFERENCE AIRCRAFT
STATIC AIR PRESSURE GENERATED BY
ADC 2 and 1013 HPa.
334
WHAT IS THE CORRECT WAY TO SWITCH FROM AUTOMATIC TO MANUAL OPERATION (PRESS SYST)
Turn the MAN RATE KNOB to 9 o'clock position, select "MAN" on the CABIN PRESS PB and
operate the MAN RATE KNOB as required.
335
IN MAN, WHAT IS THE HIGHEST CABIN RATE OF DESCENT AND CLIMB AVAILABLE
-1500 fpm / +2500 fpm
336
WHAT HAPPENS IN CASE OF LOSS OF ELECTRICAL SUPPLY TO THE "DIGITAL CONTROLLER",
IN AUTOMATIC MODE
Both outflow valves go to full close
337
IN CASE OF TOTAL DC ELECTRICAL POWER LOST (PRESS SYST)
-AUTO PRESS mode is lost.
-MANUAL PRESS mode and CABIN PRESS IND are still available.
338
THE "CCAS" SYSTEM IS ACTIVATED WHEN THE CABIN ALTITUDE REACHES
10000 ft
339
WHEN IS THE "DUMP" FUNCTION AVAILABLE
it only works in AUTO PRESS mode
340
HOW MANY OUTFLOW VALVES ARE OPENED IN "DUMP" FUNCTION
both
341
SELECTING THE "DITCH MODE" WITH THE "DITCH PB"
Two electrical motors maintain both outflow valves in closed position, regardless of AUTO or
MANUAL PRESS mode use.
B. In addition to the white light on DITCH PB, MASTER CAUTION flashes amber and AIR amber light
illuminates on CAP
342
HOTEL MODE NORMAL OPERATION, THE VENTILATION PANEL BEING IN AUTO
CONFIGURATION:
OVBD valve is opened, UF valve is closed
343
THE OVERBOARD VALVE POSITION CAN BE SELECTED MANUALLY, USING "OVBD VALVE"
OVERRIDE CTL SWITCH
-after AUTO mode fail
-on GND for cold day use, in order to accelerate cabin heating selecting full close pos
344
when LH eng start seq is initiated
extract fans stops during 120", to avoid pr shocks, and EXHAUST MODE FAULT ill
345
THE "OVBD" VALVE "CTL" SWITCH ON AUTO, THE "OVBD" VALVE POSITION IS FUNCTION OF
-The exhaust mode PB position.
-The aircraft condition (flight or ground, ENG 1 running or not).
346
WHEN SHOULD THE AVIONICS VENT SYSTEM EXTRACT FAN STOP?
-for 120" after ENG 1 start
-when OVBD valve is selected on the EXHAUST MODE pb
347
AIRCRAFT IN FLIGHT, OR ON GROUND TWO ENGINES RUNNING, WHAT ARE THE NORMAL
POSITIONS OF THE "OVBD" AND "UNDERFLOOR VALVES
-OVBD FULLY CLOSED
-U/F FULLY OPEN
348
EXHAUST MODE FAULT ILLUMINATES IN CASE OF
FAN FAILURE or OVERTEMP and CCAS is act
349
WHEN SHOULD THE EXHAUST MODE P/B BE SET ON "OVBD"
in case of extract fan fail in flt
350
IN FLIGHT, THE EXHAUST MODE P/B ON "OVBD" POSITION, AND THE CONTROL SWITCH ON
"AUTO" MODE
extract fan is off, U/F valve is closed, OVBD valve is partially open
351
ILLUMINATION OF THE AVIONICS VENT PANEL EXHAUST MODE PUSH-BUTTON "OVBD" LIGHT.
CAUSES THE GROUND MECHANIC CALL HORN TO SOUND
Always on gnd
352
ON THE AVIONICS VENT PANEL, THE "FAULT" LIGHT ILLUMINATES AMBER WHEN:
-On ground engine 1 not running, OVBD valve is not fully open, (except with OVBD VALVE on full
-In flight or on ground 2 engines running, OVBD valve is not fully close, (except with OVBD VALVE on full open position
-There is any disagreement between the valve and the switch.
353
WHAT IS THE MAX AP (DIFF. PRESS) ALLOWED TO SELECT THE OVBD VALVE TO FULL OPEN
POSITION
1 PSI
354
THE ELECTRICAL SUPPLY OF THE MAIN "AFCS" COMPONENTS IS
-DC BUS 1 and DC BUS 2 mainly
-ESS BUS for AP off lts and AP disconnect circuit
355
DURING A GO-AROUND PROCEDURE, YOU SET THE POWER LEVER IN WHICH POSITION
Beyond the notch to a ramp
356
WHICH FLIGHT DIRECTOR VERTICAL (PITCH) MODES HAVE AN "ARMED" PHASE?
ALT SEL and GS TRACK
357
WHICH FLIGHT DIRECTOR LATERAL (ROLL) MODES HAVE AN "ARMED" PHASE
NAV,APP,BC
358
WHAT HAPPENS WHEN THE PITCH WHEEL IS ACTUATED WITH THE "AP" ENGAGED IN "ALT HOLD" MODE
NOTHING, IT IS INHIBITED IN ALT HOLD
359
IF THE "AP" IS "ON", WITH THE "FD" ENGAGED IN THE "HDG" AND "ALT" MODE, WHAT
HAPPENS IF THE "STBY" P/B IS PRESSED
the horizontal and vertical bars disappear from EADI and the AP returns in BASIC mode on both axes
360
MAX ELEV TRIM TAB TRAVEL
5° UP / 1.5° DN
361
ELEV TRIM GREEN SECTOR
0°/2.5° UP
362
PITCH TRIM ASYM amber lt
PITCH TABS on both ELEV are desynchronized
363
TLU HI SPD/LO SPD
HI SPD when > 185 kts
LO SPD when < 180 kts during decel
Manually set in the event of ADC FAIL
364
FUEL SYST PUMPS
1 ELEC PUMP + 1 JET PUMP in each MAIN TANK (FEEDER COMPT)
The ELEC PUMP is normally used only for ENG START; automatically switched off after ENG START
365
WATER DRAINAGE up to
3° ground slope
366
the FUEL TEMP SENSOR is in the
LH FEEDER COMPT
367
when a fuel tank has < 160 KG or the FEEDER COMPT is not full
AUTO ELEC PUMP ON (associated engine)
368
the ELEC PUMP is AUTO SHUT OFF
-30" after HP FUEL PR is AVAIL and
-PRESS SW detects 8.5 psi and
-NORMAL JET PUMP FUNCTION
369
FEED LO PR amber lt ON when
fuel delivery pressure < 4 psi (PUMP FAIL or FUEL STARVATION)
370
how long does complete refuel take and MAX REFUEL PR
16' / 50 PSI MAX
371
DEFUEL
11 psi suction with refuel valves open
372
HYD SYST
TOT FLUID VOLUME
NORM FILLING LVL
MIN FILLING LVL
LOW LVL ALERT when
-9.6 L for each syst
-9.35 L
-8.5 L
- <2.5 L (XFEED VALVE AUTO CLOSES)
373
HYD PUMPS SUPPLIED BY
ACW (ELEC AUX PUMP by DC motor instead)
374
HYD SYST ACCU (1 for each syst)
-0.2 L
-REDUCES PUMP VIBRATIONS
-REDUCES PRESSURE SURGES
-COMPENSATE RESPONSE TIME OF THE PUMP IN CASE OF HIGH OUTPUT DEMAND
375
HYD OVHT
> 121 °C
376
HYD AUX PUMP (DC) will activate if
-AC BLUE PUMP PR < 1500 PSI
-PROP BRK RELEASED
-L/G HANDLE SEL DN
-AT LEAST ONE ENG RUN
377
HYD PR IND ELEC FAIL
POINTERS MOVE TO 0
378
BRK ACCU AVAIL for EMER+PRK BRK if PR
> 1600 psi
379
PEDESTAL PUMP SW
-DC PUMP ON for 30" (HOT MAIN BAT BUS)
380
BRK TEMP HOT
> 150 °C OF AT LEAST ONE BRK
381
TCAS PROX TFC
+- 1200 ft and 6 NM
382
TA CPA
Closest Point of Appr: 20/45s
383
RA CPA
20/35s
384
AHRS VERT AND HOR ACCURACY
VERT +- 1.4°
HOR +- 2°
385
EADI RED ARROWS
> 40° NUP
> 30° NDN
386
equipment fitted on the RGB
-ACW GEN
-PVM
-PROP PUMP (HP) + OVSPD GOV
-AUX FTR PUMP
PROP BRK (RH)
387
the ACCESSORY GEARBOX drives
-DC STARTER/GEN
-HP FUEL PUMP
-ENG OIL PUMPS
388
IGNITION CYCLES
-FIRST 25": 5/6 SPARKS PER SECOND
-AFTER 25": 1 SPARK PER SECOND
389
NOTCH
RAMP
WALL
67° PLA
81°
100°
390
ATPCS trigger condition
one TQ < 18%
ATR 72-500 Systems
flashcards
Decks in class (1)
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