1
Q
When approaching to land what is being indicated when the AoA indexer displays amber lights?
A
AoA is lower than the ideal approach (too fast)
2
Q
If airspeed and altitude indications on the PFD and the SFD disagree, this could be:
A
Possible Pitot tube and/or static port blockages
3
Q
What sensor doesnt have de-icing heaters?
A
OAT sensor
4
Q
Which instrument is the central point returned to when scanning flight instruments?
A
Attitude indicator
5
Q
Which of the following is NOT a performance instrument?
ASI
VSI
AI
Alt
A
AI Attitude indicator
6
Q
Strand by instruments are always standalone analogue instrument? T/F
A
False
7
Q
Red V marks on the attitude indicator show:
The Angle of climb or dive
The rate of turn
The shortest direction to decrease the pitch angle
A
The shortest direction to decrease the pitch angle (shortest path to the closest horizon)
8
Q
What is being indicated if the colour of the G meter pointer is amber?
A
G-load is within 1G +/- g-limits
9
Q
What is the maximum range displayed by the PFD HSI in map mode?
A
640 NM
10
Q
What does the Red Cross in data area indicate?
A
No valid data available
11
Q
If the actual vert speed is 7000ft/min, VSI will display:
A
7000ft/min digital - 6000ft/min analogue
12
Q
Which indication is available in HSI CDI mode?
A
Deviation dots
13
Q
The airspeed displayed on SFD is in the range of:
40 to 950KIAS
45 to 900KIAS
45 to 999KIAS
A
40 to 950 KIAS
14
Q
A green arrow under the heading ribbon indicates?
A
Direction to VOR beacon
15
Q
The SFDR in the rear cockpit is a?
A
Repeater only that Rx all its data from the SFD
16
Q
SFDR data input functions are controlled by?
A
Nothing, SFDR is a repeater of the SFD
17
Q
The IBIT on the SFD is activated by?
A
Pressing both NAV and ALN keys twice within two seconds
18
Q
What flight data is not displayed on the SFD?
A
G-Load
19
Q
What Data does the EMD receive from the power management unit?
A
Prop RPM (NP)
20
Q
Which of these is displayed on the EMD permanently?
Current software version, AC type, total run time
Flap indication
Oil pressure
A
Oil pressure
21
Q
What TQ value is 75% in PMS manual mode? Red Amber or Green?
A
Amber
22
Q
If the ADC fails, what data will you loose on the HUD?
A
Airspeed
Altitude
Mach
23
Q
Power to the HUD and HUDR is controlled by?
A
HSG
24
Q
The aircraft longitudinal acceleration along the flight path is indicated by?
A
Power chevrons
25
What is the function of the castle switch in NAV mode? (Control column)
Swap MFD displays
26
(Control Column) which switch disconnects the pitch and roll servos?
Tactile Control Steering (TCS) switch
27
In the event of RIOC 1 failure which HOTAS functions are affected?
Front and Rear cockpit
Front cockpit
Rear cockpit
Front Cockpit
28
The climb dive marker (CDM):
is fixed in HUD FOV
gives a true representation of aircraft flight path in pitch
Indicates drift angle
Gives a true representation of aircraft flight path in pitch
29
When is the manual mode of operation automatically selected?
When the normal and emergency system pressure falls below the master cylinder
30
On some AC, ……………… are used on the LE of the wings to augment lift.
Slats
31
What is the term used to describe a FCS that uses a flight computer to send and receive digital signals to control flight surfaces.
Fly By Wire
32
Which secondary flight control increases drag with only small effect on lift?
Air brake
33
Fly by wire is a term used to describe a flight control system where?
a flight control computer is used to send and receive digital signals to control flight services
34
The primary flight control surfaces are?
Ailerons, rudder and elevators
35
The air brake be used to increase drag without making significant change to lift? T/F
T
36
The TAD provides automatic trim for?
The rudder
37
The PC21 control column is used to operate which control surfaces?
Aileron and Elevator
38
The PC21 air brake is operated by?
The air brake switch on the PCL
39
What are the 3 Primary flight controls?
Rudder
Elevator
Aileron
40
*** A Fly by wire system involves digital signals from an air data computer which operate what?
Electro-Hydraulic servos to the control surfaces.
41
A mechanical flight control system uses what types of components to transfer inputs?
Cables, Pulleys (turnbuckles), levers, rods, bell-cranks
42
What are the flaps used for?
Increase the camber of the wings and provide greater lift and control at lower speed
Can shorten take-off and landing runs
43
Many large aircraft use Fowler flaps, why?
In the first stages of extension, there is a large increase in lift but little increase in drag
44
An air brake will slow you down with little change to lift while increasing what?
Increasing drag and approach angle
45
What are spoilers used for and what is a negative effect of spoilers?
Lift dumpers - by disrupting laminar air flow
Spoil the lift over the upper surface of the wing
Increase stall speed
46
What is the function of wing slats?
Are moveable aerofoil on the front of the LE and allow the high pressure air to flow to the low pressure and over the wing
Re-energises the boundary layer
Moves the separation point towards
Delays onset of stall
47
What are trim tabs used for?
Release pilot loads or reduces sensitivity
| AIDS a pilot to overcome forces needed to move a control surface
48
The PC21 FCS uses a combination of what type of components?
Mechanical and Electro-hydraulic
49
The TAD automatically moves the rudder trim tab at the required angle to keep the aircraft in cord flight. What parameters are considered by the RIOCs to achieve the correct movement?
Airspeed
AoA
Engine TQ
50
*** At what angle of aileron deflection do the spoilers start operating and when are they fully deployed?
4 deg start
| 13 deg full deflection
51
What is common about the ailerons, air brake, flaps and roll spoiler system?
All use Hydraulic power
52
Which hydraulic power system controls the aileron hydraulic power, roll spoilers and air brake?
Main Hydraulic system (Emergency actuator)
53
What are the secondary flight controls on the PC21?
Flaps
Air brake
Tabs
54
What is affected if the TRIM/AIL switch on the PC21 is in the off position?
```
Wheel powered brakes
Anti0skid system
TAD
Trim systems
Hydraulics to ailerons and roll spoilers
```
55
*** What are the 2 indications the flaps are not in the up position above 183KIAS?
Aural over speed tone
| Flap over speed caution (Amber on the MFD)
56
Under what circumstances would you switch the TRIM?AIL PWR off during normal operations?
Trim runaway - inhibits TAD
57
The autopilot and flight director system (AFDS) controls the aircraft around what two axis?
Longitudinal (Roll)
| Lateral (Pitch)
58
What is affected if the TRIM/AIL switch on the PC21 is in the off position?
Powered brakes, anti skid system, TAD, trim systems, Hydraulics to ailerons and roll spoilers
59
The TAD provides automatic trim for what?
Automatic rudder trim
60
The left ad right elevators operate together. When one elevator becomes damaged, what component will allow the undamaged elevator to operate?
Elevator torque tube
61
If Electrical power from the BATT BUS, GEN 1 and GEN 2 busses fail, what will occur?
The flaps will automatically retract
62
The air brake can be used throughout the speed range of the AC including the landing? T/F
T
63
What is the most common voltage for electrical power systems for aircraft?
24 VDC
28 VDC
110 - 115 VAC
64
What are some sources of supplementary power systems for the aircraft?
```
Ram-air turbine (Fan at the bottom of the AC)
APU (Aux)
GPU (ground)
Secondary Gen
BATTs
```
65
What are the two types of cell batteries?
Primary (Dry Cell - irreversible)
| Secondary (Wet cell - recharges)
66
What are the 3 types of electrical services on an aircraft from Split busbars?
Vital
Essential
Non-essential
67
Why do we use split busbars?
Manage the power supply to various services ( into 3 categories of importance)
68
In the busbar system what powers a vital busbar?
Emergency and Main Batteries
69
Secondary Cells are used on aircraft as primary power sources to do what?
Start engines
| Provide limited emergency power
70
What is the purpose of the aircraft Generator during normal flight?
Maintain charge in the batteries
| Provide primary power
71
What type of current does a 3-phase generator produce?
Single Phase AC
72
*** How do we complete the circuit in many aircraft electrical systems without having additional wiring?
Use the metal structure of The aircraft to complete the circuit
73
*** What 3 factors determine the value of induced voltage in a generator?
Speed of rotation of the conductor magnet, Strength of the electromagnets and the number of turns in conductor coil
74
What is the purpose of an inverter?
Convert DC to AC
A rectifier turns AC to DC
75
What is the purpose of a circuit breaker and reverse current cut-outs (RCCO)?
To protect the electrical circuit over voltage or reverse current
76
*** What is the purpose of a relay?
To remotely control electrical devices in one or more circuits
77
*** What is the purpose of switches in a circuit and is it manual or automatic?
To complete/interrupt the circuit, can be auto or manual
78
In a DC generator, which component ensures external current in the load only flows one way?
Generator Control Unit (GCU)
79
Which piece of electrical equipment is used to convert AC to DC power?
Transformer Rectifier Unit (TRU)
80
What is a busbar used for?
Used to organise electrical circuits into a simple system, centralise power output
81
How do we complete the circuit in many aircraft electrical systems without having additional wiring?
Earth to the AC structure/chassis/fuselage
82
A circuit breaker is used to?
Isolate faulty circuits by means of a mechanical trip
83
In an AC that only uses DC electrical systems, EMER PWR is generally supplied by main battery or specific EMER BATT to power the vital ELEC SYS for a short period of time? T/F
T
84
BATT 1 is located in the?
Engine compartment
85
EMER BATT will provide the power to the SFD and sensors for at least?
30 minutes
86
How many BUSBARS are on the PC21?
7
87
Where is the EMER BATT located?
Avionics bay
88
What Bus is supplied by battery when both generators fail?
If both Gens fail, Batt 1 and 2 take over, providing power to essential services for around 30 minutes
89
What is the voltage and amp rating of the PC-21 Generator?
28VDC at 300A
90
How many PRI PWR sources are there on the PC21?
Conflicting answers:
4 - 2 Gens 2 BATTS
2 - 2 Generators - Main Batt and Secondary Batt are not counted
91
What Bus does Gen 1 power?
Gen 1 Bus to Batt Bus, Non-essential bus
92
What is the purpose of the Generator Control Unit?
Maintain correct VOLTs and protect from reverse polarity
93
What buses does Gen 1 PWR?
GEN 1 Bus to BATT BUS, Non-Essential Bus
94
What would it mean if a red GENS warning on the MFD and DWP? What other notifications would you receive?
Both Gens Failed/offline - Aural Warning, Attention getters
95
What Bus is supplied by battery when both Generators fail?
BATT BUS
96
What Caution indicates that the landing or taxi light failed to switch off automatically?
Amber LANDING LIGHT caution on the MFD and Attention getters
97
What is the CLDU used to control?
The brightness of the displays and instruments and controls
98
The attention getters in both cockpits can be tested with?
FIRE test switch
99
Which of the external lights are not NVIS compatible?
Landing and Taxi
| Recognition
100
What EXT lights are PWRD from the GEN 1 BUS?
RECOG, ANTI COL, Formation
101
What EXT lights are PWRD by BATT BUS?
Landing, Taxi and navigation lights
102
Are the recognition lights NVIS compatible and where are they?
No - Outer wing LE
103
When a warning occurs and the master warning light is pressed, what happens then?
The master warning light is reset
| Any related Aural tone is stopped
104
How long will the warning light remain illuminated on the CWP?
Until the Malfunction has been resolved
105
When a warning occurs and the master warning light is pressed, what happens then?
The master warning light is rest
| Any related aural tone is stopped
106
When and why are warning systems tested?
Prior to each flight
| Confirm functionality
107
What panels displays warning captions to the pilot in the PC21?
Attention getters
MFDs
DWPs
108
*** Where does the engine indicating and crew alerting systems (EICAS) get information from and where does it display alerts?
Mission computer - Displays on MFD, LGCU and the PFD
109
The PC21 has a fire test switch in the front cockpit, what 5 alerts occur when you operate the switch?
```
Attention getters
Warning gong tone
Fire warning on MFD and DWP
EICAS
Fire 1 and 2 Alert advisories
```
110
What type of fire alerting system is in the engine bay of the PC21?
Continuous loop
111
What happens when you press a flashing attention getter?
Ack’s the warning/caution - Silences aural tone and cancels the light flashing
112
Does the DWP operate independently of the mission computer?
Yes
113
What is displayed on the PC21 MFD WARN page?
Active warning
Cautions
Advisory captions
Applicable checklists
114
In what situations are amber advisories displayed on the MFD?
They indicate a system or flight manoeuvre limit
115
DWP receives data from?
Directly from Aircraft systems
116
Avionics cooling is provided by the ECS or by an external source while the aircraft is?
parked
117
What methods are used to provide the Aircon process?
Vapour-cycle system and air cycle system
118
The rate of change in cabin pressure is normally measured using what unit of measurement?
Feet per minute
119
What is the primary purpose of a check valve in an aircraft air-cycle (open) conditioning system
Ensure that supply air travels in a single direction only
120
Why do pressurisation systems keep the cabin pressure below 10,000ft?
Minimise the requirements for additional oxygen
121
*** Is air heated or cooled when passed through the an air turbine?
Cooled ?
122
When the vapour is compressed is it heated or cooled?
Heated
123
Which control device for ECS is in the front cockpit only?
Cabin pressure switch, ACS shutoff lever, temp control selector, VCS guarded switch
124
What is the normal maximum cabin differential pressure?
3.76psi at 25,000ft (Cabin alt of 13,000)
125
Which ECS system provides heating, cooling and pressure in the 21?
ACS
126
Continuous flow OXY is generally used in which delivery system?
Emergency
127
What are the benefits of a LOX system?
Provides same supply of OXY is half the space and weight of a gas system
128
OBOGS produces a gas that is consistent of approx 95% OXY and 5% of what other gas?
Argon
129
The PC21 OBOGS uses what air supply?
HP (P3) Engine bleed air
130
How long does emergency oxygen last?
<5 minutes
131
In the Acronym PITHBLOT, what does the I stand for and what causes it?
Instrument - Restricted physical movement of mechanical parts
132
What are the types of gyroscopic wander?
Real, apparent, gimbal lock
133
What parts are transmitter, receive, duplex or, display part of?
RADAR
134
What performance instruments are on the PFD?
```
ASI
VS
Attitude
G Meter
Power
AOA
Turn indicator
```
135
What aircraft flight control SYS are indicated on the PFD?
Flaps and Airbrake
136
What flight data doe the APU provide to the SFD?
Airspeed and altitude
137
What is common between total internal fuel, fuel flow and oil pressure?
All are permanently on the EMD
138
What types of info does the HUD provide? (Screens)
Flight reference information, Simulated weapons information, NAV information
139
What is the relationship between the CDM and the CDL?
CDM stays centred and CDL moves relative to it to show AC flight path
Always displays true representation of the AC flight path
140
HOTAS interfaces with what computer via 1553 BUS?
Mission computer
141
How do you mute all incoming comms to both pilots?
Push centre of PTT button in.
142
Where is the HUD deco utter/weapon mode switch? How many declutter levels are there?
PCL below PTT switch, 3 levels
143
What are the control instruments?
Power indicator + Attitude indicator
144
What do the red crosses in a data area mean?
Data not available
145
What control regulates cockpit temp to that set by the temp selector on the front cockpit ECS panel?
The Integrated Environmental Control System (IECS)
146
On the PC21, which cockpit is interfaced directly into the mission computer via the 1553 BUS for HOTAS?
Both front and rear
147
What type of pressure altimeter error is caused when the true external static pressure is not accurately transmitted to the instrument?
Position error
PC-21 Systems 2
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