Systems Flashcards

(175 cards)

1
Q

Wingspan

A

117’

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2
Q

Length

A

800- 129’
900- 138’

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3
Q

Engine type

A

CFM 56

27000 lbs thrust

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4
Q

Seating capacity

A

160/180

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5
Q

Fuel wing tank capacity

A

8360 lbs

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6
Q

Fuel center tank capacity

A

28,803 lbs

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7
Q

Fuel total capacity

A

46,063 lbs

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8
Q

Min space for 180 degree turn

A

800- 79’
900- 86’

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9
Q

Max pitch on takeoff

A

9 degrees

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10
Q

How many emergency exits

A

10

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11
Q

Flight deck emergency equipment

A

3 life vest
3 oxygen mask
Crash axe
Halon
ELT
Escape rope
PBE

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12
Q

What activates oxygen mask microphone

A

Right door

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13
Q

At what cabin altitude do passenger masks drop

A

14,000

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14
Q

How long to passenger oxygen masks last

A

12 minutes

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15
Q

How can emergency lights be activated

A

Overhead panel
Aft attendant panel- always works

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16
Q

What radio does the observer use in degraded mode

A

VHF 1
Hand mike is inop

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17
Q

When can a second autopilot be engaged

A

Both radios tuned to ILS

APP mode selected

Second autopilot engaged prior to 800’

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18
Q

In single channel operation, autopilot cannot be used below _______?

A

50’ AGL

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19
Q

Can you use aileron trim with autopilot engaged?

A

No

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20
Q

What does Go Around thrust command with one push?

A

1000-2000 fpm climb

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21
Q

When does auto throttle disengage on a normal landing?

A

2 seconds after touchdown

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22
Q

What modes are affected by the bank angle selector?

A

HDG

VOR

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23
Q

When will LNAV engage regardless of heading?

A

Within 3 miles of route

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24
Q

Wind limits for autoland

A

Head 25
Cross 20
Tail 10

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25
Can I autoland single engine?
No, flap 30 or 40 both engines only
26
When does flare arm and engage on an autoland
Arm 350’ Engage 50’
27
When does stabilizer auto trim for an autoland
400’
28
When does auto throttle reduce thrust on an autoland?
27’
29
How does autopilot disengage on autoland?
Manually at touchdown
30
When do I have an automatic go around?
Dual channel approach below 2000’
31
What happens to autopilot and auto throttle on a single channel go around?
Auto throttle stays on and sets reduced N1 power FD pitches for 1000-2000 fpm Autopilot disengages
32
How do I get full N1 go around
Two pushes of GA switch
33
What does speed do on a go around?
Automatically moves to speed for current flap setting
34
When does LNAV engage on a go around?
Autoland with flare armed- 400’ Regular go around - 50’
35
What are the 2 alternate EEC modes
Soft- uses last known conditions Hard- set by switch or retard throttle
36
What does upper DU display?
N1 EGT FF
37
What does a red box in N1 display after shutdown indicate?
Exceedance occurred
38
When does ENG FAIL come on?
Less than 50% N2
39
When to move engine start lever during start?
25% N2 minimum And N1 rotation
40
When do you get starter cutout?
56% N2
41
When to abort a start
No EGT in 10 seconds N1 or N2 don’t rise with EGT EGT nears limit No Oil pressure with engine at idle
42
What does EEC monitor for ground engine starts?
Hot starts Wet starts EGT exceedances
43
What does the amber REVERSER light mean?
Thrust reverser commanded to stow. Goes out in 10 seconds
44
MASTER CAUTION illuminates if REVERSER light stays on more than?
12 seconds
45
APU OVERSPEED light
RPM exceeded Self test failed
46
APU FAULT light
Malfunction caused shutdown
47
APU LOW OIL PRESSURE light
Oil press low, normal for start
48
Can you still operate APU with blue MAINT light?
Yes, but tell maintenance
49
When is APU ready for electrical load?
APU GEN OFF BUS light on
50
When is APU ready for bleed air load?
1 minute
51
Max altitude for APU electrical power?
41000
52
How long does APU cool itself at shutdown?
60 seconds
53
APU auto shuts down for
Fire Fault OVERSPEED Low oil pressure
54
Fuel for APU comes from
Left side AC pump Or Suction fed from tank 1
55
APU bleed air can be used up to
17000’ 10,000’ if also supplying electrics
56
How many fire loops for APU
1
57
Will the APU automatically discharge its fire bottle?
No
58
What does BLEED TRIP OFF mean?
Over temperature or over pressure closed the bleed air valve
59
How many packs can the APU provide bleed air for?
2 on the ground 1 in flight
60
What does the DUAL BLEED light mean
APU and engine bleed valves both open
61
What does WING BODY OVERHEAT mean
Bleed air leak
62
How many temperature zones are there?
3
63
What does PACK light mean
Pack trip off Or Failure of both primary and standby pack controllers
64
When do Ram Air Doors open?
Ground In flight with flaps extended
65
What does ZONE TEMP light mean?
Overheat or failure of associated zone controller
66
What is the temperature range for the temperature controller
65-85
67
What does the OFF light on the equipment cooling panel mean?
No airflow. Selecting alternate fan should eliminate light in 5 seconds
68
What does OFF SCHED DESCENT mean?
Aircraft descended before reaching the set cruise altitude
69
When do I get the Cabin Altitude Warning Horn?
10,000’
70
Where is the Ground Service switch?
Forward FA panel
71
APU GEN OFF BUS??
APU running but its generator is not powering a bus
72
DRIVE light?
IDG low oil or under frequency
73
GEN OFF BUS light?
IDG not supplying its transfer bus
74
What three busses does AC transfer bus connect to?
Main Galley Ground service
75
What closes to automatically transfer power from one side to another?
Bus tie breaker (BTB)
76
SOURCE OFF light?
No source selected OR Selected source is disconnected
77
What does the GROUND SERVICE switch turn on
Lights Outlets Battery chargers
78
What does a Transformer Rectifier do?
Converts AC to DC
79
TR UNIT light?
TR 1 fail OR TR 2 and 3 fail OR Any TR fail on the ground
80
How many batteries?
2- main and auxiliary
81
Battery voltage range
22-30 volts
82
BAT DISCHARGE light?
Excessive battery discharge
83
What are the 3 battery busses?
Battery Hot battery Switched hot battery
84
2 fully charged batteries can provide standby power for how long?
60 minutes
85
What are the 5 standby power busses?
Battery Hot battery Switched hot battery Standby AC Standby DC
86
ELEC light?
Fault in DC power or Standby power, on the ground only
87
STANDBY POWER OFF light?
AC standby, DC standby, or Battery bus is unpowered
88
How many fire loops in each engine?
2
89
What bus is engine fire extinguishing system powered by?
Hot battery
90
How many fire loops must sense a fire to generate a warning?
Both
91
What does FAULT light mean in engine fire panel?
Both loops in an engine have failed
92
Lights needed in OVERHEAT test?
3 over 2
93
Light needed in FIRE test?
5 over 6
94
What does pulling a fire handle do?
Fuel valves close Arms bottle Generator off Silences bell Hydraulic valve closes Bleed air valve closes
95
What does APU DET INOP mean?
APU’s single fire loop has failed
96
Where is APU ground control panel?
Right wheel well
97
How many cargo smoke detectors?
2 pairs forward 3 pairs aft
98
What does cargo DETECTOR FAULT mean?
Both loops in one or both cargo compartments failed
99
How many cargo fire bottles?
1
100
How many wheel well fire loops?
1
101
Three ways to activate stabilizer trim
Trim switches Autopilot Manual
102
When do you get high speed stabilizer trim?
Flaps extended
103
When do spoilers aid on roll control?
Greater than 10 degrees roll
104
When does speed trim operate?
Takeoff Climb Go around
105
Do not use speed brakes below?
1000’
106
When does SPEEDBRAKES EXTENDED come on?
Flaps more than 10 Or Below 800’ RA
107
When do SPEEDBRAKES deploy on the ground?
Lever armed Wheel spin up Strut compression Thrust idle
108
What hydraulic system powers flaps?
B
109
What flap settings are for landing?
15, 30, 40
110
Do not use flaps above?
20,000’
111
How many slats?
Four outboard of each engine
112
When do slats move to the intermediate position?
Flaps 1,2,5
113
When do autoslats work?
Flaps 1,2,5 and approach to stall
114
When does flap load relief operate?
Flap 30 and 40
115
How do alternate flaps operate?
Electric motor
116
FUEL LOW?
Less than 2000 lbs in a main tank
117
FUEL CONFIG?
Greater than 1600 lbs in center tank with both pumps producing no pressure and an engine running
118
FUEL IMBAL
1000 lbs imbalance
119
Where is fuel temp measured?
Tank 1
120
Max fuel temperature
49 C
121
Min fuel temperature
3C above freeze or -43C, whichever is higher
122
Max fuel imbalance for taxi, takeoff, flight, landing
1000 lbs
123
Fuel for APU comes from?
Tank 1
124
Hydraulic system pressure
3000 psi
125
How do I activate the Standby Hydraulic Pump?
Select Standby Rudder Or Arm Alternate Flaps
126
What does standby hydraulic pump power?
Rudder Leading edge flaps/slats Thrust reverser Yaw damper
127
STANDBY HYD LOW QUANTITY
Fluid level below 50%
128
Min hydraulic pressure
2800 psi
129
Max hydraulic pressure
3500 psi
130
Flight Control LOW PRESSURE light
Low system A or B pressure to ailerons, elevator, and rudder
131
What does ADIRS provide?
Position Speed Altitude Attitude
132
Can I dispatch with a CDS Fault message?
No
133
The tip of the airspeed trend arrow predicts speed in how many seconds?
10
134
What speed does the red and black minimum speed bar indicate?
Stick shaker
135
What is the white bug for takeoff?
V2+15
136
What speed is the white bug at for landing?
Single engine target speed VREF +20
137
ALT DISAGREE alert?
Altimeters disagree more than 200’ for 5 seconds
138
When does flight data recorder begin to operate?
One engine running
139
COWL ANTI ICE light?
Over pressure downstream of anti ice valve
140
Which slats are heated with bleed air?
3 inboard slats
141
Is TAT probe heated on the ground?
No, unless test switch is pushed
142
DC FAIL on IRS panel?
DC backup power is not normal
143
How long does IRS alignment take?
5-17 minutes
144
What does a flashing ALIGN light mean?
No position entered Unreasonable position entered
145
What does VNAV use for speed on takeoff?
V2+20, then flap speeds
146
When do you get DRAG REQUIRED
10 knots above target speed
147
When can I not use IAN approach mode?
RNAV RNP Circling Not in database Cold weather temp corrections
148
What do red LANDING GEAR position lights mean?
Disagreement with handle Below 800’ with a thrust lever in idle and gear not down
149
When can the gear warning horn not be silenced?
Flaps greater than 10 Below 200’
150
How does alternate gear extension work?
Pulling 3 manual extension handles out 24 inches
151
What hydraulic system powers nose wheel steering?
A in normal B in alternate
152
How much deflection does nose wheel steering give you?
78 degrees with tiller 7 degrees with rudder pedals
153
What hydraulic system powers brakes?
B in normal A in alternate
154
Do auto brakes work in the alternate brake system?
No, but anti skid does
155
How many applications are available with the brake accumulator?
Several or 1 park brake application
156
Does brake accumulator have anti skid?
Yes
157
What system charges brake accumulator?
B
158
Operating range of brake accumulator?
3000-3500 psi
159
Do auto brakes work with ANTI SKID INOP?
No
160
How to disarm auto brakes?
Manual brakes Advance power Stow speedbrake Switch
161
What is needed to arm RTO braking?
Ground Idle < 60 knots
162
When does RTO braking engage?
Idle at or above 90 knots
163
When do auto brakes engage?
Idle Wheel spin up
164
Max time to push GPWS test button
5 seconds
165
Time to impact for EGPWS cautions and warnings?
Caution 40-60 seconds Warning 20-30 seconds
166
What does AMBER indicate on the TAWS display?
Terrain 500’ below to 2000’ above
167
GREEN on the TAWS display?
Terrain 500 below to 2000’ below
168
How many seconds from an intruder will you get a TA?
40
169
How many seconds from an intruder will you get an RA?
25
170
What triggers the takeoff configuration warning?
Flaps not set Park brake Spoilers Stab trim
171
When do you get an altitude alert?
200’ off altitude
172
When does Predictive Windshear scan?
Throttles set for takeoff In flight below 2300’
173
When does Predictive Windshear issue alerts?
Below 1200’
174
When are Windshear Warnings inhibited on takeoff?
100 knots to 50’
175
PSEU light
Fault in PSEU or emergency exit failed to unlock on the ground