Systems Flashcards by Wilfried Seiger

Which systems are fed by HIGH/LOW pressure bleed air?

HIGH: ENG A/I and WING A/I
LOW: ECS

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When are CAS messages blocked out during T/O and LDG?

T/O: From 80 kts, until passing 400 ft or 60 seconds.

LDG: After passing 400 ft, until 40 kts or 60 seconds.

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When is TOGA available prior to T/O?

Flaps set for T/O (F10/F20)
Engines running
V-speeds posted

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What happens if the YD is disconnected while A/P is engaged?

A/P disconnects

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What TANK and BATTERY feeds the APU?

RH Collector Tank

- RH BATT

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At what RPM can you restart the APU after an aborted start?

When RPM dropped below 10%

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List all the CL350s electrical sources (GENs, BATTs, EXT PWR etc.):

3 x DC GEN (28 V / 400 amp)
2 x DC NICAD BATT (24 V / 44 amp/h)
1 x DC LEAD ACID STBY INST BATT (24 V)
1 x AC Inverter (only for pax convenience)
1 x DC EXT PWR receptacle (24-32 V / 1.500 amp)

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What are the GENs doing when EXT PWR is connected?

They go OFF and/or stay OFF

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List the acceptable V/A for EXT PWR; when does “EXT PWR AVAIL” illuminate; when does the “white line” for EXT PWR on the ELEC synoptic page show up?

24 V to 32 V at 1500 amp.
Supplied power is within acceptable limits
5V

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What is the purpose of the EPAV?

Controls oxygen availability within the passenger oxygen distribution system

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At what Cabin Altitude do the PAX MASKS automatically deploy; until what Cabin Altitude is O2 delivered?

14.500 +/-500 ft

- 9.500 +/-500 ft

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List the CL350s FIRE, SMOKE and OVERHEAT detective- and protective systems (loops and extinguishers):

Fire detection and protection: Engines and APU
Overheat detection: MLG
Smoke detection: Cargo

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What happens when pressing the ENG FIRE switch?

Fuel OFF
Hydraulic OFF
Bleed OFF
Generators OFF
FADEC commands shut-down
FIRE EXT armed

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List the HTF7350s stages:

Fan - 1 Axial
Compressor - 4 Axial, 1 Radial
HP Turbine - 2 Axial
LP Turbine - 3 Axial

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What drives each HTF7350s stage?

LP Turbine drives the Fan
HP Turbine drives the Compressor
Airflow drives the HP- and LP Turbine

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What is the timeframe for an OIL-check after shut down?

5 to 30 minutes after shut down

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When does IGN turn ON automatically?

Aerodynamic stall

- Flameout

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T/R deployment in flight - what does FADEC command?

IDLE - normally WOW and wheel spin-up is required to deploy a T/R

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Antiskid is available down to what speed?

10 KIAS

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List the CL350s Roll Assist Regimes:

Primary - Yoke movement above 8 deg. deploys outboard MFS.
Secondary - Yoke movement above 50 deg. deploys inboard MFS.
Full Yoke deflection deploys inboard and outboard spoilers fully.

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Spoilers - which panels deploy in the EMER- and GROUND mode; what are the requirements for deployment in AUTO mode?

EMER mode - All MFS (1, 2, 7, 8) panels deploy.
GROUND mode - All MFS (1-8) and GS panels deploy.

AUTO mode requires two of the following:

Wheel speed above 16 kt
RA below 7 ft
WOW

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When does the T/O warning sound - what is set incorrectly?

Brakes
Flaps
Autopilot
Spoilers
Trims
Roll and pitch disconnects

(B-FAST + Disconnects)

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List the Trim Channels and their trim speed; what is the APs, CONFIGs and MACH TRIMs Channel?

PRI - 0.4 to 0.1 (varies with Mach Number)
SEC - 0.2

AP, CONFIG and MACH Trim requires PRI TRIM Channel.

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What is controlled by LHS/RHS when ROLL and/or PITCH DISC is activated?

Roll:
LHS controls ROLL SPOILERS, RHS controls AILERONS.

Pitch:
LHS control LH ELEV, RHS controls RH ELEV.

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Explain the FF from the Tanks to the Engines:

Main Tank to Collector Tank (360 lbs) to Engine Engines running: EDP creates Motive Flow (suction). Scavenge Ejector delivers fuel from Main Tank to Collector Tank by Motive Flow. Main Ejector delivers fuel from Collector Tank to Engine by Motive Flow. Engines not running: Collector Tank is gravity-supplied from Main Tank by flapper check valves. Fuel pump delivers fuel from Collector Tank to Engine (when either FUEL PUMP is ON or ENG RUN in RUN). Surge tanks allow for expansion.

Where are the Scavenge Ejectors located, what is their primary purpose?

- Bottom of the Main Tank | - Deliver fuel from Main Tank to Collector Tank by Motive Flow

Where are the Main Ejectors located, what is their primary purpose?

- Bottom of the Collector Tank | - Deliver fuel from Collector Tank to the Engines by Motive Flow

Hydraulic pressure?

3000 psi

What is powering the HYD SYS?

- Onside EDP - Onside DCMP DCMP is supplied by opposite GEN - if opposite GEN fails onside GEN takes over.

What is powering the AUX DCMP?

L GEN If L GEN fails, R GEN or APU GEN takes over.

When does L/R HYD PUMP turn ON in AUTO mode, when does AUX DCMP turn on/off?

L/R HYD PUMP ON: - Flaps above 0 (F10/20/30 selected) - Low HYD PRESS. AUX DCMP: - ON 2.500 psi - OFF 3.350 psi

What is the Ecology Bottle's purpose?

Collecting HYD fluid leakage

During cockpit preperation - why turning on R PUMP before AUX PUMP?

To prevent cavitation

What is the PTU; how does it work; when is it ON?

Power Transfer Unit PTU supplies pressure to operate landing gear if L HYD SYS fails. This allows normal retraction time as DCMP alone would be very slow retracting landing gear. PTU supplies L HYD SYS from R HYD SYS. R HYD SYS pressure is protected by priority valve. PTU is ON when: - PTU in AUTO - L EDP and/or ENG OFF - R EDP ON - Gear not in commanded position - Airborne

A/I - what is heated by: - Bleed Air - Electrical Power

Bleed Air: - ENG - WING Electrical Power: - WSHLD/WINDOW - PROBES

When does the WSHLD/WINDOW operate in high mode?

WING, ENG, PROBES and WSHLD/WINDOW ON

What parts are heated by: - L/R ENG - WING - PROBES - WSHLD/WINDOW

L/R ENG: - Engine Inlets (fails open) - T2 Sensors WING: - Leading Edges (fails closed) PROBES: - Pitot-Static Probes - Standby-Pitot Probe - Standby-Static-Flush Ports - AOA Vanes - TAT Sensor (inflight only) (Ice Detectors) WSHLD/WINDOW: - Windshields - Side Windows

What is the EMER LTS power source; when do they turn on automatically; how long can they operate independently?

- Two independent rechargeable battery packs - ON when ARM and power to R MAIN DC BUS is lost - 15 minutes

NLG - Maximum angles with Pedals and Tiller?

+/- 7 deg. | +/- 65 deg.

How does the alternate gear extension work?

NLG gravity, MLG gravity and hydraulic (R HYD SYS). | Do not push handle back in during operation.

EMER BRAKE and toe brakes - what are the limitations with HYD SYS failures?

EMER BRAKE: No antiskid protection. Toe brakes: L HYD only allows for 6 applications. No HYD allows for 1 application.

How to set the PARK Brake and why?

Depress Toe Brakes before setting/releasing the brakes This prevents HYD fluid migration from R to the L HYD SYS

What is supplied by L HYD SYS?

- Inboard Brakes - Inboard MFS - Inboard GS - Inboard ELEV PCU - LH T/R - Upper Rudder PCU - ALTN FLAPS - NWS - GEAR - EMER BRAKE

What is supplied by R HYD SYS?

- Outboard Brakes - Outboard MFS - Outboard GS - Outboard ELEV PCU - RH T/R - Lower Rudder PCU - Flaps - PTU - Gear Assist Actuators (Alternate Gear Extension)

What is supplied by AUX HYD SYS?

Lower Rudder PCU

Maximum Rudder deflection with YD engaged?

+/- 5 deg.

What does the YD when accelerating above 60 kts?

Damping function is smoothly disabled until weight is off wheels, at which point it is re-enabled.

At what temperature does the BATT turn off automatically and when does the red BATT OVHT come up?

+65C | +70C

Minimum L/R BATT V for APU start?

20 V

What is the max. possible NWS angle, when do you get the CAS message and when can you turn the NWS freely?

120 deg. 120 - 123 deg. Torque link must be disconnected (min. 3.5 in of chrome).

What is the turn-radius on ground?

58 ft

When do you get an amber cargo and/or passenger door CAS on ground?

When the applicable door is open and the L ENG RUN switch is in RUN.

Where are the DC powercenters, how many do you have and what is supplied by them?

Two rear DC powercenters supply two forward DC powercenters which supply all the avionics. One APU DC powercenter also in the rear.

If you are on BATT only, which bus(es) and systems are available?

L and R ESS BUS. | Generally speaking - most of the #1 equipment and the L MFD.

For how long does the battery last in ESS BUS and STBY INST mode?

ESS BUS 1 hour (main batteries) | STBY INST 3.5 hours (standby battery)

What is the pitch and bank limited to?

+30/-20 deg. of pitch and 65 deg. of bank.

How many static wicks may be missing?

1 on each station | 9 out of 24

WXR - what angle is covered by the sector scan mode?

60 instead of 120 deg.

When is the AFCS operation split between L and R?

During APPR mode.

How can you disconnect the AP?

``` MSW on yoke Trim switch on yoke Roll disconnect on yoke AP on FGP YD on FGP AP/YD on FGP Pitch disconnect Pitch trim selector TOGA on thrust lever ```

Which buses are shed inflight if only one GEN is online?

L and R AUX BUS (cabin only).

On which buses run most of the LH and RH systems?

L ESS BUS and R MAIN DC BUS

What is the latitude limit for the FMS?

N82 / S82

Wich FGP pushbuttons have to be selected to fly the following approaches and on which do you have to add 50 ft? ILS LPV, LNAV/VNAV LNAV, NDB, VOR

APPR APPR VNAV NAV VS (50 ft)

What FMA reminds you that you will level off on your MDA?

ALTS

What is the APU's fuel consumption?

150 lbs/hr

Fuel - Where is the L vent's air coming from?

R wingtank and L surgetank.

What is the total fuelburn in the first and every consecutive hour?

3000 lbs/hr | 2000 lbs/hr

What is the HTF7350 flat rated to (STD/APR) and what is the thrust in lbs?

ISA +15C / ISA +20C | 7.372 lbs

Min. air pressure to start the engine?

32 psi

When does the amber and red CABIN ALTITUDE CAS turn on?

8. 500 ft | 9. 400 ft

When does the OFV open?

9.25 / -0.5 psi

What is the VMO/MMO without mach trim and AP?

250 KIAS / 0.75 Mi

How long does it take to extend the the flaps in normal and ALTN mode?

Max. 25 sec. | 60 - 70 sec.

At what speed is it adviseable to have the flight spoilers stowed?

160 KIAS

What is the flap position during de/anti-icing?

What noise level is the CL350 certified for?

Chapter 4

What is prohibited during refueling?

Using HF Starting APU Transferring electrics from GPU to APU

Systems Flashcards

(78 cards)