757 Operations > Tech > Flashcards

Tech Flashcards

(89 cards)

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1
Q

How is Hydraulic Fluid cooled?

A

Using heat exchangers mounted in the fuel tanks. The centre fluid is cooled in the left tank.

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2
Q

What can power the HDG?

A
  1. Left Hydraulics

2. Right Hydraulics through the PTU.

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3
Q

What does the PTU power?

A
  1. Flaps and Slats;
  2. Landing gear;
  3. Nose wheel steering;
  4. HDG
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4
Q

What does the RAT power?

A

The flight controls portion of the centre hydraulics system.

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5
Q

What does the Left Hydraulics System power?

A
  1. Right Aileron;
  2. Elevators;
  3. Rudder;
  4. Spoilers;
  5. Rudder Ratio;
  6. Yaw Dampers;
  7. Flaps & Slats;
  8. Landing Gear;
  9. Alternate Brakes;
  10. Main Cargo Door;
  11. Nose Wheel Steering;
  12. Left Engine Thrust Reverser;
  13. HDG.
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6
Q

When will the HDG automatically start?

A

When electrical power is lost from both main AC buses.

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7
Q

What powers the centre hydraulics system?

A

Two AC pumps or the RAT.

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8
Q

What does the centre hydraulics system power?

A
  1. Both Ailerons;
  2. Elevators;
  3. Rudder;
  4. Spoilers;
  5. Elevator Feel;
  6. Yaw Dampers;
  7. Stabiliser Trim.
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9
Q

What does the Right Hydraulic System Power?

A
  1. Left Aileron;
  2. Elevators;
  3. Rudder;
  4. Spoilers;
  5. Elevator Feel;
  6. Stabiliser Trim;
  7. Right Thrust Reverser;
  8. Normal/Reserve Brakes;
  9. PTU.
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10
Q

What does the Left Hydraulics Stand Pipe protect power for?

A
  1. HDG;
  2. Flaps & Slats;
  3. Landing Gear;
  4. Nose Wheel Steering;

All via PTU.

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11
Q

What does the Centre Hydraulics Stand Pipe provide protection for?

A

The RAT.

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12
Q

What does the Right Hydraulics stand pipe provide protection for?

A

Reserve Brakes.

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13
Q

What will the PTU automatically start?

A
  1. The left engine fails;

2. The left engine hydraulic pump pressure is low.

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14
Q

When will the RAT automatically deploy and above what speed will it provide adequate pressure?

A
  1. When both engines fail.

2. Above 130 knots.

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15
Q

Will the Centre SYS PRESS light remain illuminated with the RAT operating?

A

Yes

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16
Q

What is the function of the Bus Tie Switches?

A
  1. Arms automatic AC and DC bus tie circuits.

2. Arms automatic Flight Instrument Transfer Bus circuits.

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17
Q

List seven things powered by the Hot Battery Bus

A
  1. Fire bottles;
  2. RAT manual deployment;
  3. Fuelling system;
  4. APU fuel valve;
  5. IRS emergency power;
  6. Park brake valve;
  7. Captain’s clock.
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18
Q

List six items powered by the Battery Bus

A
  1. Fire detection;
  2. DC fuel pump;
  3. RAT auto deployment;
  4. Landing gear alternate extension;
  5. Alternate stabiliser trim;
  6. Standby engine indicator;
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19
Q

List four items powered by the standby DC Bus.

A
  1. Left VHF
  2. Standby attitude indicator;
  3. Standby altimeter;
  4. Aisle stand flood light.
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20
Q

List six items powered by the standby AC Bus.

A
  1. Left VOR;
  2. Left ADC;
  3. Left RDMI;
  4. Centre ILS;
  5. Wheel well fire detection;
  6. Alternate engine ignition system.
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21
Q

What does the APU battery provide power for?

A
  1. APU starter;
  2. Air inlet door;
  3. APU control circuitry.
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22
Q

With relation to the APU, what does the main battery provide power for?

A
  1. APU fire detection;
  2. APU fuel valve;
  3. DC fuel pump;
  4. Backup control circuitry.
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23
Q

What bus does the Left Forward fuel pump run off?

A
  1. The Ground Service Bus.
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24
Q

What happens when the APU switch is selected off?

A

The APU shuts down after a cooling cycle when it is providing bleed air services, or straight away if not providing bleed air.

If the run light is still showing, selecting run will keep the APU on.

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25
What does the APU fault light indicate?
1. APU fault; 2. APU fire; 3. APU fuel valve not in the commanded position.
26
When will the APU automatically shut down and discharge the fire bottle in the event of an APU fire?
On the ground with both engines shut down.
27
When does a full alignment of the IRS’s need to be conducted?
Whenever the time from last full alignment to the completion of the next flight is greater than 18 hours.
28
What powers the IRS’s?
L: Left AC Bus, Hot Battery Bus C: Centre AC Bus, Hot Battery Bus R: Right AC Bus, Hot Battery Bus but load sheds after 5 Mins of On DC only.
29
What information can an IRS provide if it loses alignment in flight?
Attitude information by selecting ATT. Must remain S&L for 30s. Can regain heading info by inputting current heading on the CDU Pos Init page or IRS CP.
30
What will sounds the ground crew horn?
1. Equipment cooling failure 2. An IRU is on and there is no power to the over-temp protection circuits or the IRU is powered by the hot battery bus only. 3.
31
What does a full alignment and a quick alignment of the IRS’s do?
Full Alignment: 1. Defines new reference for true north; 2. Establishes your present position; 3. Sets groundspeed to zero. Quick alignment: 1. Updates position; 2. Sets groundspeed to zero.
32
What Buses does the HDG power?
1. Left AC Transfer Bus; 2. Right AC Transfer Bus; 3. Standby AC Bus; 4. Captain’s Flight Instrument Transfer Bus 5. Hot Battery Bus; 6. Battery Bus; 7. Standby DC Bus.
33
What is the function of the Yaw Damper?
1. Improves the airplane’s directional stability (dutch roll prevention); 2. Turn coordination; 3. Gust load relief.
34
What are the inputs for the Yaw Dampers?
1. Left/Centre Hyds; 2. IRS’s; 3. ADC’s.
35
What are the EEC’s powered by?
Their own dedicated generators.
36
What are the roles of the EEC’s?
1. Set thrust by controlling EPR based on thrust lever position; 2. Continuously computes maximum thrust limit; 3. N1, N2, N3 over-boost protection;
37
What is the function of the ELC’s?
1. N1 over-speed protection.
38
When does the EEC command approach idle?
1. In flight with flaps 25 or 30 selected to 5 seconds after touch down; 2. When engine anti-ice is on.
39
What does the STAB TRIM discrete light indicate?
Stabiliser trim at 1/2 rate.
40
What does the UNSCHED STAB TRIM light indicate?
1. Stabiliser is moving without signal; 2. Stabiliser is moving in the opposite direction than commanded by the autopilot; 3. Alternate trim is used with autopilot engaged.
41
What does the SPOILERS discrete light indicate?
One or more spoiler system faults have been detected and spoiler/speed-brake capability is reduced.
42
What does the RUDDER RATIO discrete light indicate?
Rudder control inputs are not being correctly modified
43
What does the AUTO SPDBRK discrete light indicate?
A fault that may result in inadvertent speed brake extension in flight.
44
What does the YAW DAMPER INOP discrete light indicate?
The yaw damper is off or inoperative.
45
What does the SPEED BRAKES discrete light indicate?
1. Speed brake lever beyond armed detent with RA 15’-800’. | 2. Speed brake lever beyond armed detent with landing flaps extended and RA above 15’.
46
What does LEADING EDGE discrete light indicate?
1. Slat position disagrees with the position selected. | 2. Slat asymmetry exists.
47
What does TRAILING EDGE discrete light indicate?
1. Flap position disagrees with the position selected; 2. Flap asymmetry exists; 3. Flap load relief failure.
48
What is the power source order for the bus ties?
1. Engine generator; 2. APU generator; 3. Opposite engine generator.
49
What is the power source for the respective engine start positions?
1. Respective AC Bus with a fallback to standby AC Bus; | 2. Standby AC Bus only.
50
What happens when GND is selected during engine start?
1. Opens the start valve; 2. Arms the selected igniter; 3. The selector is magnetically held in GND until 50% N2.
51
What does AUTO selection on the igniter switches do?
1. Arms the selected ignitors to continuously fire when slats are extended or engine anti-ice is on; 2. Closes start valve and terminates ignition after engine start at 50% N2.
52
What does CONT selection on the ignitor selector do?
Fires the selected ignitors continuously.
53
What does FLT on the ignitor selector do?
Fires both sets of ignitors continuously regardless of switch position.
54
What does the fuel config light mean?
1. > 600kg in the centre tank without the centre pumps on; 2. > 800kg imbalance; 3. < 1000kg in the main tanks - low fuel.
55
How many fuel pumps are there?
7
56
Whar are the five reasons that the IRS Align lights are flashing?
1. Trying to put in wrong position; 2. 10 minutes time lapse - align complete but needs position entered; 3. Airplane is moving; 4. There is a fault in the IRU; 5. Error in position.
57
What causes the Take-Off Config warning horn to sound?
1. Leading edge slats not in T/O position; 2. Trailing edge flaps not in T/O position; 3. Flap or Slat disagree with handle position; 4. Stab trim not in T/O range; 5. Speed brake not down; 6. Parking brake set.
58
What happens at 80kts on the take-off roll?
1. Throttle channel changes to THR HOLD; 2. RTO activates; 3. Cautions inhibited; 4. RAT arms.
59
What is the default AP engage mode?
1. At least one FD on: AP engages in selected FD modes except TO and GA; 2. If both FD’s off: engages in V/S and HDG Hold modes.
60
What is the meaning of the FUEL CONFIG light?
1. Both centre pumps are off with more than 600kg in centre tank; 2. Fuel imbalance > 800kg; 3. Fuel quantity < 1000kg in either main tank.
61
How long does passenger oxygen last?
12 Minutes.
62
What happens when engine anti-ice is selected?
1. Engine bleed air anti-ices the engine cowls; 2. TAI is displayed above EPR; 3. Idle increased; 4. Max EPR reduced; 5. Engine igniters fired if switch in auto.
63
What rate of cabin altitude change does the max and min settings on the rate adjustment knob relate to?
1. Min: 50fpm; | 2. Max: 2000fpm.
64
What are the types of TCAS Alerts?
1. Resolution Alert: 20-30s; 2. Traffic Advisory: 35-40s; 3. Proximate Traffic: 6nm 1200’; 4. Other Traffic.
65
What systems and altitudes inhibit TCAS?
1. All TCAS voice inhibited below 500’; 2. All RA’s below 1000’; 3. All descend commands below 1100’; 4. All increase descent alerts below 1450’; 5. Any time an alert takes priority such as GPWS or Windshear.
66
What happens when the reserve brakes switch is selected on?
1. Allows the use of reserve hydraulic fluid, 2. Activates the right electric pump, 3. Isolates the right electric pump power to the normal brake system.
67
What is the nose gear air/ground sensing system used for?
1. Controlling stall warning, | 2. Portions of the caution/warning system (Takeoff config).
68
What systems use air/ground logic from the main gear??
1. Landing gear lever lock, 2. Speedbrakes, 3. Autobrakes, 4. Thrust reverse, 5. Wing anti-ice.
69
What drives the Alternate Landing Gear Extension?
A dedicated DC powered electric hydraulic pump. The fluid is isolated from the left hydraulic system. The hydraulic pump drives the unlocking of all door and gear locks and then air loads free-fall the gear to the down and locked position.
70
What powers nosewheel steering?
Left hydraulics.
71
1. What powers the normal brake system?
Right hydraulics.
72
What powers the alternate brake hydraulic system?
Left hydraulics.
73
Does the alternate brake system have to be selected or is it automatic?
Automatic - left hydraulic system automatically supplies pressure through the alternate anti-skid valves to the brakes when right hydraulic pressure is low and the brakes are pressed.
74
What does the BRAKE SOURCE light indicate?
Both normal and alternate brake system pressures are low.
75
How does reserve brakes work?
Pressing the switch dedicates right electric hydraulic pump to the normal brake system.
76
What braking systems is anti-skid provided on?
1. Normal brakes -each main-gear wheel, 2. Alternate brakes - laterally paired wheels, 3. Reserve brakes.
77
What brake systems does auto-brakes work on?
Normal/reserve brake systems.
78
What conditions lead to RTO activating?
1. Aircraft on ground, 2. Groundspeed > 85kts, 3. Both thrust levers retarded to idle.
79
When do autobrakes start after landing?
1. Both thrust levers at idle, 2. Wheels spun up. - Slower rate until pitch angle < 1°.
80
What causes autobrakes to disarm?
1. Applying brake pedals, 2. Speedbrake lever moved back down, 3. DISARM or OFF positions selected, 4. Either thrust lever advanced after landing, 5. Autobrake fault, 6. Normal anti-skid system fault.
81
Hows many seconds time does the speed trend vector represent?
10s.
82
What happens if both pilots select ALTN on their EFI switches?
1. Both ADI’s and HSI’s are controlled from the left EFIS control panel. 2. The EICAS message INSTR SWITCH displays.
83
What does the FLT DIR switch do?
Selects which FCC feeds the flight director.
84
What does the NAV source selector switch do?
1. Selects which FMC feeds the symbol generators and FCC. | 2. Allows for the selection of the alternate navigation system.
85
What does the EFI switch do?
1. Selects which SG, IRS and RADALT’s feed the ADI/HSI. | 2. Alternate is centre everything.
86
What does the IRS instrument switch do?
1. Selects which IRS feeds that side’s SG, VSI and opposite side’s RDMI. 2. ALTN is centre.
87
What does the AIR DATA instrument switch do?
1. Selects which ADC feeds the Mach/Airspeed indicator, altimeter, VSI (via IRS). 2. ALTN is opposite side.
88
What does the EICAS massage INSTR SWITCH mean?
Both EFI switches are in the ALTN position.5
89
What does the FUEL CONFIG light indicate?
1. Left and right tank imbalance of > 800kg, 2. More than 600kg in the centre tank with centre tank pumps off, 3. Less than 1000kg in either left or right tanks.
757 Operations
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