Technical questions

Question 1

Definition of V1?

Answer 1

• The speed beyond which the takeoff should no longer be aborted
• Also means the minimum speed in the takeoff, following the failure of the critical engine at VEF at which the pilot can continue the takeoff and achieve the required height above the takeoff surface within the distance available.
• V1 ≥VMCG
• V1 ≤ Vr
• V1 ≤ Vmbe (max break energy)

Question 2

Vr meaning and greater than which V speeds?

Answer 2

• Rotation speed. The speed at which the pilot begins to apply control inputs to cause the aircraft nose to pitch up, after which it will leave the ground.
• Vr ≥ V1
• Vr = 1.05Vmca

Question 3

Definition of V2?

Answer 3

• The airspeed at which the aircraft complies with those handling criteria associated with the climb after takeoff and the target speed to be attained at the 35’ screen height, assuming recognition of an engine failure at or after V1 and used to the point where acceleration to flap retraction speed is initiated.
• V2 = 1.2 VS
• V2 = 1.1 VMCA

Question 4

Definition of Vmca?

Answer 4

• The minimum airspeed at which, when the sudden and complete failure of the critical engine occurs at that speed, it is possible to recover the airplane with that engine still inoperative and maintain it in straight flight at that speed, either with zero yaw or with an angle of bank not in excess of 5°.
• Must be greater than or equal to 1.2VS (with undercarriage retracted and flaps in takeoff position)

Question 5

Definition of Vmcg?

Answer 5

-Is the minimum speed on the ground during the take off run, at which it is possible to recover control of the aircraft with the use of primary aerodynamic controls and the takeoff can be continued safely, when the critical engine suddenly becomes inoperative, with the remaining engines at takeoff thrust.

Question 6

Cat C speeds?

Answer 6

Defined by Vat = 121-140

Initial approach 160-240

Final Approach 115-160

Circling Max 180

Initial Missed 160

Final Missed 240

Question 7

Performance Group A aircraft? (Not Cat A)

Answer 7

• “capable of continuing a flight in IMC after failure of a critical engine at speed V1 & proceeding to a suitable aerodrome & landing’

Question 8

What is a stopway?

Answer 8

• Clear area immediately beyond runway & at least as wide capable of supporting aircraft for braking

Question 9

What is a Clearway?

Answer 9

• Clear area immediately beyond runway over which aircraft may fly at height of 35ft

Question 10

What is the ASDA?

Answer 10

• Accelerate-stop distance available

- Is the combined distance of runway and stop-way

Question 11

Balanced field length?

Answer 11

• ASDR = TODR
• A balanced field takeoff is a condition where the accelerate-stop distance required (ASDR) is equal to the takeoff distance required (TODR) for the aircraft weight, engine thrust, aircraft configuration and runway condition.
  Factors affecting the balanced field length include:

the mass of the aircraft – higher mass results in slower acceleration and higher takeoff speed
engine thrust – affected by temperature and air pressure, but reduced thrust can also be deliberately selected by the pilot
density altitude – reduced air pressure or increased temperature increases minimum take off speed
aircraft configuration such as wing flap position
runway slope and runway wind component
runway conditions – a rough or soft field slows acceleration, a wet or icy field reduces braking

Question 12

How is ASDA calculated?

Answer 12

Distance to accelerate to V1 – 1 sec recognition – 2 sec transition phase – distance to bring aircraft to a stop

Question 13

How is TORR calculated? (TORR = Takeoff Run Required)

Answer 13

• Is distance required to accelerate to V1 – engine fail – continue to midway between VLOF & 35ft point
• Vlof = lift off speed

Question 14

State the climb segments

Answer 14

 1st segment
35 ft to gear retracted (+ve roc)
 2nd segment
End of 1st segment to 400 ft or higher flap retract height; at V2 (2.4% climb gradient req’d)
 3rd segment
End of 2nd segment level acceleration to final climb speed (climb gradient cabability of
1.2%)
 4th segment
End of 3rd segment to 1500 ft; at > 1.25 VS (min. climb gradient of 1.2%)

Question 15

For V2 over-speed take offs what are the obstacle considerations

Answer 15

 Close in obstacle clearance reduced

 Distant obstacles cleared better due to higher speed

Question 16

What is the advantage of an increased V2

Answer 16

 An improved climb gradient

 An increase in Take off weight

Question 17

The Net take off flight path is deemed to end when

Answer 17

 The aircraft passes 1500 ft

Question 18

Explain the use of an extended second segment climb

Answer 18

Rather than retract flap in the 3rd segment the flaps are kept down, and on reaching the 5 min take off thrust time the power is set to MCT. After which the flaps are then retracted, this allows for improved climb gradient but is only to be used for obstacles within the 2nd & 3rd segment, the aircraft must be ‘clean’ by the 400 ft point if obstacle clearance is required in the final segment

Question 19

Reduced thrust take off’s are dependant on

Answer 19

 Field length
 Take off flight path (obstacles)
 Engine inop climb gradients
 Aircraft Take off weight

Question 20

What is the reduced screen height for a wet take-off

Answer 20

 15ft (slightly less than half of 35ft)
( It is because the stopping distance in the wet is longer than in the dry. V1, therefore, is lower. Lower screen height therefore reqd..)

Question 21

State the critical engine on a jet during take-off

Answer 21

 Nil in head wind

 The most upwind engine in x-wind due to increased yaw if engine fails (weather cocking)

Question 22

What effect does a balanced field have on take-off performance

Answer 22

A balanced field means that it is critical that an abort is carried out immediately on EF recognition. Also that the t/o on one engine could be marginal if continued as a balanced field is a take off right on the performance limits for the given aircraft weight – not a favourable scenario

Question 23

Definition of 2nd segment of take-off path:

Answer 23

From gear retraction to level acceleration altitude, which is normally a minimum of 400’ above the takeoff surface. In this segment the gear is retracted, the flaps are in the takeoff
position and the aircraft is set in takeoff power. The speed is equal to V2 (initial climb out speed) and the required minimum gross gradient of climb, in a two engined aircraft, is 2.4%. The net flight path gradient is the gross flight path gradient reduced by 0.8%, i.e. 1.6%.
 Conditions:
 Landing gear is retracted
 The flaps are still in the takeoff position
 The speed is V2
 The minimum gross climb gradient in a twin engined aircraft is 2.4%
 The minimum net climb gradient in a twin engined aircraft is 1.6%; and
 Takeoff power is still set.

Question 24

Definition of ISA:

Answer 24

 1013.25 hPa
 15°C
 Lapse Rate is 1.98°C per 1000’ up to 36 090’ then –56.5°C
 Density is 1.225 kg/m3

Question 25

Temperature at 39 000’?

Answer 25

 -56.5°C

Question 26

How does temperature affect the speed of sound?

Answer 26

 The speed of sound is directly proportional to the square root of the absolute temperature (the speed of sound will increase with an increase in temperature).  LSS = 38.94√K  At sea level ISA: LSS = 661kts.  At 35,000’ ISA: LSS = 575kts.

Question 27

Airspeed in the climb – at a constant TAS / IAS / Mach No. What do each do?

Answer 27

 Constant IAS – Both TAS & Mach No. increase  Constant Mach No – Both IAS & TAS decrease  Constant TAS – Mach No. increases, IAS decreases

Question 28

What happens to the speed of sound with altitude / temperature

Answer 28

 LSS reduces with altitude and with cooling temperatures

Question 29

Mach Number formula

Answer 29

 M = TAS/LSS TAS = True Airspeed LSS = Local speed of sound (38.94 Temp (K))

Question 30

Explain airspeed errors

Answer 30

ICE T it's a P C D ``` I = IAS C = CAS (IAS corrected for Position errors) E = EAS (CAS corrected for Compressibiliity errors) T = TAS (EAS corrected for Density errors) ```

Question 31

What errors does a Mach Meter NOT suffer from?

Answer 31

 Density error & Compressibility error. - Compressibility is not an error of the Machmeter. It's taken care of by the ratio arm and the ranging arm giving us the ratio of TAS/LSS and taking the density of the air out of the equation.

Question 32

The two capsules in a Mach Meter are what?

Answer 32

 Airspeed (TAS)  Altitude calibration. (LSS) (M = TAS/LSS )

Question 33

MFS is

Answer 33

 Free stream Mach number – airflow unaffected by the aircraft

Question 34

Mach L is

Answer 34

 Local Mach number – is the speed of air relative to the Local Speed of Sound measured at a point on the aircraft

Question 35

MCRIT is

Answer 35

 The lowest free stream Mach number at which mach 1 is reached on any part of the aircraft - Part of the aerofoil may be travelling faster than the speed of sound but not all of it

Question 36

How does weight affect MCRIT?

Answer 36

 An increase in weight will reduce MCRIT. | lower Mcrit is bad for commercial jets

Question 37

What happens with the centre of pressure leading up to super sonic flight

Answer 37

 The CP is well forward (below MCRIT)  The CP moves rearward (In excess of MCRIT)  The CP moves forward (MCRIT – MFS >M1)  The CP gradually moves further rearward as speed increases further (forward then back then forward movement is known as the mach 'tuck')

Question 38

Wave drag is

Answer 38

 The separation of the airflow behind the shock wave - Shock wave can usually begins from the trailing edge of the wing - Expansion wave usually occurs over the aerofoil behind the shock wave

Question 39

A shock stall is the result of

Answer 39

 The boundary layer behind the shock wave becoming turbulent and separating, spilling rearwards and striking the tail plane, creating buffet and rearward CP movement. Rear movement of the CP causes nose to pitch down - Vmo protects the aircraft from high-speed buffet which could result in high-speed buffet

Question 40

Wing design for high speed flight takes into consideration

Answer 40

 Minimal camber to delay shockwaves  Maneuverability  Low thickness chord ratio

Question 41

The primary purpose of sweep back is to

Answer 41

 Increase the value of the critical Mach No.

Question 42

How does sweep back work

Answer 42

 By sweeping the wing the freestream air that travels along the effective chord is less therefore less acceleration is achieved resulting in a lower speed over the wing and a higher achievable aircraft speed before Mcrit is reached.

Question 43

Advantages of a swept wing?

Answer 43

 MCRIT increased.  Higher economical cruise speed  Increased lateral (roll) stability

Question 44

Disadvantages of sweepback

Answer 44

 Lower Cl  Extensive use of high lift devices (slats, flaps)  High drag @ high AOA  Use of vortex generators, wing fences to reduce wingtip ‘pooling’

Question 45

A swept wing aircraft pitches up / down at a stall

Answer 45

 A nose pitch up results from the wing tips stalling first moving the CP inwards and forwards (wash out is used to try and prevent tip stalls)

Question 46

Wash out is

Answer 46

 A decrease in incidence from root to tip – to prevent wing tip stall  Allows ailerons to maintain effectiveness for longer

Question 47

What devices are used to prevent wing tip stall (spanwise flow)?

Answer 47

 Wing fence  Saw tooth leading edge  Vortex generators

Question 48

What happens to the center of pressure in a stall in a swept wing aircraft?

Answer 48

 Tips will stall first so CP moves inward and forwards & nose tends to pitch up

Question 49

During a turn what happens to the CP of a swept wing Aircraft

Answer 49

 As the wing gets higher in a turn the outer portion become higher than the inner portion which creates its own form of washout resulting in a lower AOA and causing the CP to move inwards and pitch the nose upwards.

Question 50

Aspect ratio

Answer 50

 = span (width)/ chord (length)

Question 51

High Aspect ratio (subsonic speeds)

Answer 51

 Better lift  Better lift/drag ratio  Less induced drag due reduced wing tip vortices

Question 52

What is Mach tuck?

Answer 52

 Is when the aircraft is accelerated through the transonic range causing the CP to move rearwards and increasing the lift generated by the tail plane due to modified airflow from the wing causing a nose pitch down.

Question 53

If Mach tuck is not corrected the result will be?

Answer 53

 The nose pitch down causes further speed increase which causes further movement rearwards of the CP which causes further nose pitch down.....etc

Question 54

Oscillatory instability is

Answer 54

 A combined yawing and rolling movement

Question 55

Dutch roll is

Answer 55

 Oscillatory instability when the rolling motion is predominant

Question 56

A stabilising device to prevent Dutch roll is

Answer 56

 A yaw damper (gyroscopically operated stabilisers)

Question 57

Snaking is

Answer 57

 Oscillatory instability when the yawing motion is predominant

Question 58

Oscillatory instability is worse when

Answer 58

 At high altitudes |  sweep back a/c @ low IAS

Question 59

The aircraft’s aerodynamic ceiling is

Answer 59

 The point at which the high airspeed mach buffet and low speed stall buffet merge

Question 60

The aerodynamic ceiling of the aircraft is known as

Answer 60

 Coffin Corner (A/C can not be made to go faster or slower)

Question 61

The manoeuvre envelope must be

Answer 61

 At an altitude and airspeed sufficient to avoid stalling and slow enough to avoid structural damage

Question 62

Gliding angle depends on

Answer 62

 Ratio of lift to drag ratio – greater weight does not effect gliding angle or range, does effect speed

Question 63

Aircraft in a constant descent @ 300kts, how does weight affect glide angle?

Answer 63

 The heavier the aircraft the earlier descent must commence. So the more shallow the glide angle.

Question 64

The effect of wing twist from operating ailerons at height speed is

Answer 64

 It will minimise the effect of the ailerons / reverse the effect altogether

Question 65

At high speeds the ailerons are...

Answer 65

 Locked out to prevent wing twisting, inboard ailerons are employed to provide roll as well as spoilers

Question 66

How do spoilers work to provide roll

Answer 66

 The spoilers are raised on the down going wing reducing the lift on that wing

Question 67

What are the functions of spoilers

Answer 67

 Lift dumping in flight – increase the rate of descent  Speed brakes in flight – to quickly decrease speed in flight  Ground spoilers to destroy lift – to achieve shorter landing distances  Assist lateral (roll) control - allows smaller aileron size, avoids aileron reversal  Direct lift control

Question 68

What is Direct Lift Control?

Answer 68

 Use of aerodynamic surfaces (spoilers) to provide control of rate of descent without need to change body angle on approach

Question 69

Differential spoilers provide

Answer 69

 Roll control when flight spoilers are in use and aileron input is given

Question 70

What are the limitations of spoilers?

Answer 70

 At high speed spoilers can blow back

Question 71

What is the reason for using a variable incidence tail plane

Answer 71

 To counteract large trim changes through use of fuel and large speed changes allowing the elevator to remain fully effective under all conditions of longitudinal trim  Less drag at high speed  Provides control when a shockwave forms on the tail plane

Question 72

‘Q’ feel is

Answer 72

 An artificial method of providing the pilot with control column loading using either springs or hydraulics which provide variable loading proportional to airspeed

Question 73

When does aileron droop occur

Answer 73

 When flaps are extended (usually the inboard ailerons)

Question 74

A Krueger flap does what

Answer 74

 Extends forward of the leading edge providing an increase camber - Not to be confused with leading edge slats, like a hook that comes out of leading edge (747)

Question 75

An Aft / forward C of G has what effect on the stall speed

Answer 75

 Aft decreases the stall speed and forward increases the stall speed  Aft CoG tailplane producing an up force to balance L/W couple  Forward CoG tailplane producing a downforce to balance lift/weight couple

Question 76

Hydroplaning depends on what factors

Answer 76

```  Tyre pressure  Runway surface  Tread depth  Tyre speed  Water depth  Runway grooving ```

Question 77

Hydroplaning speeds for a rotating and non-rotating wheel are

Answer 77

 Rotating 9.0 x (square root)tyre pressure |  Non-rotating 7.7 x (square root)tyre pressure

Question 78

Reduced thrust take offs are used when

Answer 78

 There is a long runway available |  MTOW is low

Question 79

Two methods of reduced thrust takeoffs are

Answer 79

 Fixed derate (ie 10% - 20%) |  Assumed temperature (more common)

Question 80

Using an assumed temperature RT (reduced thrust) take off what speed corrections are there

Answer 80

 V1 is reduced to allow for slower acceleration but other speeds are the same for the actual TOW

Question 81

Factors that affect the engine thrust

Answer 81

 Increase Mass airflow = Increase Thrust  Increase Temp = Decrease Thrust  Increase Humidity = Decrease Thrust  Increase Altitude = Decrease Thrust

Question 82

Ram effect is

Answer 82

 As the aircraft increases speed the increase in density and mass flow through the engine results in an increase in thrust

Question 83

An increase in engine RPM results in

Answer 83

 Higher mass air flow  SFC decreases  Higher temps  Thrust output increases

Question 84

Two ways of measuring thrust are

Answer 84

 EPR (the ratio of inlet pressure and turbine exit pressure)  N1 (low pressure rotor speed/fan speed)

Question 85

Engine bleed air has what effect

Answer 85

 EPR decreases  EGT increases  Thrust decreases

Question 86

Compressor stall / surge is

Answer 86

 A reverse flow of air through the engine caused by unstable air

Question 87

What separation is provided by ATC between IFR & VFR traffic in Class “C” & “D” airspace?

Answer 87

 “C” IFR from IFR, VFR & SVFR  “D” IFR from IFR, SVFR. IFR from VFR at night. VFR from IFR at night.  “E” IFR from IFR. IFR from VFR at night. VFR from IFR at night.

Question 88

When does the Runway Centreline Lights (RCLL) turn red?

Answer 88

 White to a point 914m from runway end.  Alternate white & red between 914m & 300m.  Red between 300m & the runway end.

Question 89

Definition of CAVOK:

Answer 89

 The term CAVOK is an acceptable contraction (meaning Ceiling and Visibility OK) for international use. It indicates that:  No clouds exist below 5,000 feet or below the highest minimum sector altitude, whichever is greater, and no cumulonimbus are present.  Visibility is 10 kilometres or more and,  No precipitation, thunderstorms, sandstorm, dust storm, shallow fog, or low drifting dust, sand or snow is occurring.

Question 90

What are Dangerous goods?

Answer 90

 Class 1 Explosives Every  Class 2 Gasses Girl  Class 3 Flammable Liquids Likes  Class 4 Flammable Solids Sex  Class 5 Oxidising Substances Orally  Class 6 Poisonous / Infectious substances Plus  Class 7 Radioactive substances Receiving  Class 8 Corrosive agents Cum  Class 9 Those that don’t fit above, eg magnetic materials

Question 91

Met definitions of: | BR, VA, FU, GR

Answer 91

 BR – Mist  VA – Volcanic Ash  FU – Smoke  GR – Small hail &/or snow pellets

Question 92

If the static port blocks during the climb, what will it read?

Answer 92

 Whatever the reading was at the time of the blockage.

Question 93

What is the critical engine on a propeller aircraft?

Answer 93

 On a propeller aircraft with conventionally rotating propellers, the critical engine is the left outboard engine, conversely with propellers rotating anti-clockwise, the outboard right engine would be critical. Counta/contra-rotating propellers do not have a critical engine.  With conventionally rotating propellers, the down-going blade on each engine has a greater angle of attack producing more lift (thrust) thus offsetting the thrust line on each engine to the right. The right engine (on conventionally rotating propellers) has a greater arm to the C of G causing greater yaw, making the left engine critical.

Question 94

How does crosswind affect the critical engine?

Answer 94

 On a propeller driven aircraft, a crosswind from the opposite side to the critical engine will assist the situation because the yaw required to offset that which is produced by the failure of the critical engine will be assisted by the effect of the crosswind (weathercocking).  The reverse situation will make matters worse. Crosswind from the same side as the critical engine will require even more demand from the rudder. The yaw produced by the failure of the critical engine will be compounded by the effect of the aircraft weathercocking.

Question 95

ETP is

Answer 95

 Equi time point – a point enroute where it will take the same time to go back as it will to carry on

Question 96

ETP Formula:

Answer 96

 Dist to ETP = Dist x Ground Speed home/ GS onward + G/S home  With a tailwind out ETP will move closer to departure.  ETP moves into wind

Question 97

PNR is

Answer 97

 Point of no return – a point which is based on fuel (endurance) at which you have the fuel to return if req’d

Question 98

PNR Formula:

Answer 98

 Time to PNR (min.s) = Endurance (min.s) x GS home / GS out + G/S home  Dist to PNR = Endurance (hrs(decimals)) x GSout x GShome / GSout + GShome

Question 99

Gross fuel flow (GFF) is calculated by:

Answer 99

 GFF = Fuel flow divided by GS (answer is in kg/nm)  Fuel flow (kg/hr)  GS (nm/hr)

Question 100

How do we fly an aircraft for best endurance?

Answer 100

 With endurance we need to fly as long as possible for a given amount of fuel. To use the least amount of fuel we need to use the least amount of thrust therefore we must fly at the speed for MIN DRAG. This is found at the bottom of the TOTAL DRAG vs IAS curve  Since the thrust, and hence the consumption, should be the same at the same indicated speed at any height, it should not matter at what height we fly for endurance. Actually, when engine efficiency is taken into account, there are advantages in flying high (engine operating at design speeds and also the thermal efficiency, compressor efficiency, and the pressure ratio is better at higher altitudes).  Fuel Consumption with increase in Alt remains Constant, However in practise fuel consumption decreases with altitude  In summary, for Endurance fly at speed for min drag as high as possible (for Jet aircraft). Piston engine aircraft should fly as low as possible for max endurance due to difference in power required. Propeller efficiency decreases with altitude

Question 101

How do we fly an aircraft for best range?

Answer 101

 For maximum range we need to cover the maximum distance for a given amount of fuel. If we look at the TOTAL DRAG vs IAS curve once again then it can be seen that a very large increase in IAS can be achieved with a comparably small increase in total drag by drawing a line at a tangent to the curve. This is the speed for Maximum Range. At this speed it is the least amount of power for the a/c to achieve the highest TAS this also equates to min drag and max lift/drag ratio  The effect, on range, of an increase in weight requires in increase in speed for a constant angle of attack.  Increase in headwind results increase in mach no. Aircraft will then be subjected to the headwind for a shorter period of time.

Question 102

If you were loading an airplane to obtain max range, would you load it with a forward or aft CoG?

Answer 102

 It would be best to load it with an aft C of G as this would require an upward force from the tailplane (or less of a downward force required from the tailplane) which acts in the same direction as lift and hence opposes some of the aircraft’s weight. Less lift from the mainplane means less drag therefore less thrust is required, less thrust means reduced fuel flow and hence more range can be obtained for the amount of fuel on board.

Question 103

Range vs Endurance, which speed will be lower?

Answer 103

 Speed for max endurance will always be lower than speed for max range

Question 104

What sort of C of G changes occur on long flights?

Answer 104

 For a swept wing aircraft, as fuel is burnt off, the C of G moves forward. A consequence of a forward C of G is that the tailplane must then produce a compensating downwards balancing force which effectively increases the weight to be supported by the wing resulting in a higher stall speed at a constant weight.  An aft C of G is the best for fuel consumption as there is less downward push applied to the tailplane, effectively reducing weight, resulting in a lower stall speed.  A forward C of G is the most stable-stability of the aircraft is increased and the static and manoeuvre margins are large.

Question 105

How does thrust vary with fuel burn at a constant speed?

Answer 105

 Thrust reduces with gross weight due to fuel burn – less weight requires less lift resulting in less drag, therefore thrust can be reduced

Question 106

What happens to SFC as altitude is gained?

Answer 106

 It decreases

Question 107

What effect happens if the aircraft is flown past the optimum flight level?

Answer 107

 SFC increases as excessive drag results from an increased AoA which is required to create enough lift to support the aircraft

Question 108

Optimum altitude is a function of?

Answer 108

 SFC and TAS

Question 109

Does temperature affect optimum flight level?

Answer 109

 No as it has an equal effect on fuel flow and TAS

Question 110

Specific air range formula is?

Answer 110

 SAR = FF (Fuel flow) / TAS

Question 111

Long range cruise is

Answer 111

 Flight at an optimum flight level, the airspeed is slightly higher than that at max range cruise as it is proportional to A/C weight. The range is reduced by 1 – 2 % of the max range cruise.

Question 112

How does stall speed vary with C of G?

Answer 112

 A forward C of G increases stall speed. |  An aft C of G decreases stall speed

Question 113

Factors affecting the stall speed:

Answer 113

```  weight  power  flap  loading  ice/damage ```

Question 114

How does VMCA vary with C of G?

Answer 114

 As the C of G moves forward, the arm to the rudder increases, increasing its effectiveness. The opposite occurs as the C of G moves rearward.  Therefore: o A forward C of G decreases Vmca o An aft C of G increases Vmca

Question 115

What is the function of an Inverter?

Answer 115

 Convert DC to AC.

Question 116

What is the function of a Rectifier?

Answer 116

 Convert AC to DC

Question 117

What do CSD's (Constant Speed Drives) do?

Answer 117

 A CSD runs off the accessory case and drives the AC generator at a constant RPM regardless of engine RPM. CSDs ensure that all generators are producing acceptable outputs of constant frequency, voltage, and phase, and allows each generator to be paralleled and to share the aircraft’s electrical load.

Question 118

What is RVSM?

Answer 118

 Reduced Vertical Separation Minimum.  Above FL290 RVSM procedures apply to operators approved in RVSM procedures

Question 119

Name the 5 main modes of GPWS:

Answer 119

 Excessive rate of descent "sink rate"  Excessive terrain closure "terrain terrain"  Excessive altitude loss after take off "sink rate pull up"  Aircraft too low without gear or flap (shallow flight path) "too low, terrain"  ILS deviation (1.3 dots below glide-slope) "glide slope"

Question 120

What are the inputs to GPWS?

Answer 120

```  Radio altimeter  ILS receiver  Barometric pressure sensing  Flap & gear position  Airspeed ```

Question 121

What is the operating envelope of GPWS?

Answer 121

 2450ft AGL to 30ft AGL (radio altimeter)

Question 122

How does EGPWS (TAWS) operate?

Answer 122

 From a world surface database input & GPS it can calculate which terrain is conflicting with the aircraft and warn the pilots (forward looking)

Question 123

What is TAWS?

Answer 123

Terrain Awareness and Warning System will provide increased vertical situational awareness. They will also provide increased warning durations following system detection of terrain threats. Perhaps the most important result though is the fact that flight crews will be given continuous terrain display so that they would have perceived these terrain threats and responded to them before TAWS was required to generate warnings.

Question 124

Explain how TCAS interrogates intruder aircraft:

Answer 124

 TCAS uses transponder signals from other aircraft to determine relative positions

Question 125

State the TCAS symbology:

Answer 125

 Surveillance target - Open white diamond (nearby)  Proximity target - Solid cyan (blue) diamond (within 1200 ft + 6 miles)  Traffic advisory - Solid yellow circle (within 20 - 48sec’s)  Resolution advisory - (Within 15 - 35 sec’s action required)

Question 126

With TCAS when given a traffic advisory what would the pilots display indicate to him?

Answer 126

 A relative indication of a solid red square / the aircraft’s altitude / if it is climbing or descending (an arrow) and an aural “TRAFFIC TRAFFIC’

Question 127

What is GPS?

Answer 127

 The Global Positioning System is a satellite-based radio navigation system which can provide users with position and time information of tremendous accuracy, anywhere on the earth, 24 hrs a day, and in all weather.

Question 128

How does GPS work?

Answer 128

 Position in space is determined by measuring dist from a group of satellites in space, much like a DME fix but in 3 dimensions not 2.

Question 129

To aquire accurate positions using GPS how many satellites are required?

Answer 129

 4 minimum

Question 130

Differential GPS is:

Answer 130

 Using ground based receivers at a known location to calculate error in the satellite data they then send other receivers (aircraft) an error correction message. Which in turn correct themselves, computing a more ‘relative position between an aircraft receiver and a ground based receiver for them to track to.

Question 131

Multi channel receivers are able to do what..

Answer 131

 Assign and lock onto individual satellites per channel enabling them to track and compute the most accurate position using the best satellites. Reducing the GDOP effect

Question 132

GDOP is:

Answer 132

 Geometry dilution of precision – the angle of the satellites relative to the aircraft, larger angles provide better accuracy of position and distance

Question 133

What is ADS?

Answer 133

 ADS is Automatic dependant surveillance – the ability to track aircraft using GPS position information which is automatically fed to ATC via the aircraft avionics. This will assist in reduced separation, least fuel tracks,  ADS communication will also effectively relieve the need for voice communication

Question 134

Explain FANS:

Answer 134

 Future Air Navigation System – Implementation of satellite technology for improved communication and navigation tracking surveillance.

Question 135

What is ETOPS?

Answer 135

 ETOPS stands for Extended Range Twin Engine Operations and is the term used to govern regulations and procedures pertinent to twin engine commercial aircraft operating on extended global or domestic routes with poor off track alternates. The basic premise regarding this topic is related to the concept of redundancy and failures of the powerplant,/hull. The basis of ETOPS is the improved engine reliability shown by new age aircraft.  The rules state that any aircraft with two engines must be capable of flying to an adequate airport where it can land safely within 90 minutes at normal cruise speed or 60 minutes at single engine cruise speed (in still air conditions). It the aircraft can not comply with the above regulation – it is then required to become an ETOPS rated aircraft.  With an ETOPS rating, this rule is extended up to 90mins, 120mins, 138mins and 180mins  Individual aircraft must be specifically authorised. As new aircraft are introduced to the fleet a proving period is implemented at 120 min before a higher classification is considered.  Air New Zealand currently operates B737 on 120min ETOPs and B767 on 180 min ETOPs. However when suitable alternates exist it for 120 min ETOPS it may be advantageous to operate to this criteria as opposed to 180 min. These advantages are in the area of MEL dispatch and minimum fuel reserves to be carried.  The ETOPS times stipulated simply determine the single engine time in still air from which an aircraft must remain from a suitable alternate.

Question 136

What is a Great Circle?

Answer 136

 A circle drawn on the face of the earth whose radius is the earth. Its plane passes through the centre of the earth. It is the shortest distance between two places.

Question 137

What is a Small Circle?

Answer 137

 Any circle drawn on the earth whose radius is not the earth. Its plane does not pass through the centre of the earth.

Question 138

What is a Rhumb Line?

Answer 138

 A line drawn on the centre of the earth which cuts each meridian at the same angle.

Question 139

What is a Parallel of latitude?

Answer 139

 Small circles joining points of equal latitude – except equator, which is a great circle  All are rhumb lines  Lie east to west

Question 140

What is a Meridian of longitude?

Answer 140

 Semi-great circles passing thru the poles

Question 141

What is a Prime Meridian?

Answer 141

 A semi-greatcircle passing through the poles and also Greenwich. Known as the Greenwich meridian. It defines a longitude of zero degrees.  0000UTC is said to exist when the sun is directly over head the anti meridian (180)

Question 142

What is an Isogonal?

Answer 142

 line joining points of equal variation

Question 143

What is a Nautical mile?

Answer 143

 Distance on the surface of the earth which subtends an angle of one minute of arc at the centre of the earth  6080 ft  One degree of change of latitude along a meridian represents a distance of 60nm (60min of arc)

Question 144

What is a Departure formula?

Answer 144

 Necessary due to the fact that 1 degree of longitude is only equal to 60nm at the equator. Any deviation from the equator needs reference to the departure formula.  Distance (nm) = change of long x cos lat

Question 145

What is Earth Convergency?

Answer 145

 The angle of inclination between two meridians at any given latitude  Earth convergency = change in long x sin mean lat

Question 146

What is the speed of the Rotation of Earth?

Answer 146

 900kts at equator or |  900 x cos lat = speed at a given latitude

Question 147

What is a Mercator projection?

Answer 147

 Cylindrical projection  All meridians appear as straight lines with parallel spacing  All parallels are straight lines with the distance between them increasing with increase in latitude  Poles are unable to be projected  Lat and long intersect at right angles  A Rhumb line will appear as a straight line  A great circle will appear as a curved line concave to the equator

Question 148

What is a Lambert Projection?

Answer 148

 This utilises a conical projection with the apex of the cone directly above the pole  Meridians appear as straight lines converging towards the pole  Parallels appear as straight lines with the distance between them being constant  Lats and Longs intersect at right angles  Rhumb lines appear as curved lines concave to the nearest pole  Great circles appear as straight lines (in fact the are very slightly curved toward the parallel of origin.

Question 149

What is a Conversion Angle?

Answer 149

 This is the angle between the great circle track between two points and the rhumb line track between two points. It is equal to half earth convergency.  Conversion angle = 0.5 change in long x sin mean lat

Question 150

What is Orthomorphism?

Answer 150

 All chart used for nav must have these two qualities. 1. The scale on the chart must be correct to the scale nearby (equal scale expansion) 2. Parallels and meridians must cross at right angles. Time to Arc  1 degree ofarc = 4min  15’ of arc = 1 min  1’ of arc = 4 sec.

Question 151

1/60 Question: -9 degrees off track after travelling 15nm, how far off track?

Answer 151

- 2.25nm - 1 degree off in 60nm = 1nm off track - 9 degrees off in 60nm = 9nm / 4 (60/15) = 2.25

Question 152

Datum for GNSS approach?

Answer 152

* A datum is a model of the earth that is used in mapping. The datum consists of a series of numbers that define the shape and size of the ellipsoid and it's orientation in space. A datum is chosen to give the best possible fit to the true shape of the Earth. * Reference datum used by ICAO signatories is WGS 84 * Problems may occur if a different reference datum is used * WGS 84 is absolutely a requirement

Question 153

Maximum holding speed below FL140?

Answer 153

- 230kt, or | - 170kts for holding where the approach is limited to Cat A and B aircraft

Question 154

What it the maximum holding speed between FL140 and FL200?

Answer 154

- 240kts

Question 155

What is the maximum holding speed above FL200?

Answer 155

- 265kts

Question 156

What is BC on a weather forecast:

Answer 156

- Patches

Question 157

What happens to buffet boundaries as a jet gets lighter as it burns fuel?

Answer 157

- Buffet boundaries get further apart | - As fuel burns off, Jet can fly higher

Question 158

What is a hydraulic accumulator?

Answer 158

- A hydraulic accumulator is a PRESSURE STORAGE reservoir in which a non-compressible hydraulic fluid is held under pressure that is applied by an external source. The external source can be a spring, a raised weight, or a compressed gas. - Not to be confused with a hydraulic fluid resevoir

Question 159

MDA on a non-precision approach is never lower than?

Answer 159

MDH: - 250ft LLZ - 250ft VOR/DME