1
Q
Centromeric chromatin binds specific proteinscalled ________ that serve as attachment sites for the microtubules that separate chromosomes during cell division.
A
kinetochores
2
Q
A cell must possess ________ in order to respond to the presence of glucocorticoids.
A
a specific receptor for glucocorticoids
3
Q
In addition to being regulated by proximal and distal promoter elements, the expression of most genes is regulated by even more distant DNA elements called _____, which typically contain multiple binding sites for sequence-specific transcriptional activators.
A
enhancers
4
Q
Each transcription factor usually has at least two domains that mediate different aspects of their function. What are they?
A
the DNA-binding domain and the activation domain
5
Q
DNA methylation is thought to serve as a(n) __________ mark or tag that allows identification of certain DNA regions and allows them to be used differently from other regions.
A
epigenetic
6
Q
The enzymes that remove acetyl groups from histones in the chromatin are ________.
A
histonedeacetylases
7
Q
What protein is responsible for sequestering cytoplasmic iron atoms for the purpose of protecting cells from the toxic effects of the free metal?
A
ferritin
8
Q
How short must the poly(A) tail get to cause the mRNA to be degraded rapidly?
A
about 30 adenosine residues
9
Q
What nucleotide sequence has been identified in the 3’ UTR that binds to specific proteins that stabilize mRNA?
A
CCUCC
10
Q
When do chromosomes separate during the cell cycle?
A
M phase
11
Q
Which list has the phases of mitosis in the correct order?
A
prophase, prometaphase, metaphase, anaphase, telophase, cytokinesis
12
Q
What causes a cell to enter into the M-phase?
A
highcyclin concentration which causes high MPF kinase activity.
13
Q
What enzyme activates Cdk by adding an important phosphate group to the threonine residue at position 161 (Thr 161)?
A
Cdk-activating kinase (CAK)
14
Q
When normal cells are subjected to treatments that damage DNA, like ionizing radiation or DNA-altering drugs, what happens?
A
Their progress through the cell cycle stops while the damage is repaired.
15
Q
What is responsible for holding sister chromatids together after replication? It serves as a physical bridge that holds the two chromatids together through G2 and into mitosis.
A
cohesin
16
Q
Which of the following organelles is most likely to remain intact during mitosis?
A
mitochondria
17
Q
Which of the following is a function of the kinetochore?
A
move chromosomes along microtubules
18
Q
Tubulin subunits are added to the plus end and are lost from the minus end of the spindle microtubule during:
A
metaphase.
19
Q
What powers a chromosome’s movement along a microtubule wall?
A
motor proteins located in the kinetochore
20
Q
What is the force-generating mechanism which forms a contractile ring that cuts an animal cell in half during cytokinesis?
A
the sliding of actin filaments over one another with the aid of myosin
21
Q
The role of meiosis is to:
A
reduce the number of chromosome for gamete formation.
22
Q
Which of the following conditions in humans is usually, but not always, fatal during fetal development?
A
Autosomal trisomy.
23
Q
Someone with Turner syndrome has:
A
One X chromosome and no Y chromosome.
24
Q
What is the role of a G protein in a signaling pathway?
A
G proteins transfer the signals from the receptors to an effector.
25
Which of the following describe a way that signal transduction amplification is achieved?
Enzyme cascades are activated.
26
True/False?
| Different G proteins subunits can react with either cAMP, cGMP, or cTMP.
False
27
Arrestin binding to GPCRs __________.
prevents further activation of additional G proteins
28
Which of the following is activated by caspases?
disruption of the cytoskeleton
29
What happens after insulin binds to the insulin receptor’s α subunits causing the β subunits to dimerize?
autophosphoylation of tyrosine residues occurs.
30
Which molecules below accelerate the ability of monomeric G proteins to hydrolyze GTP to GDP, thus inactivating the G protein?
GTPase-activating proteins (GAPs)
31
The release of calcium ions in a cell would do all of the following except:
produce ATP.
32
What do all of the environmental agents that can cause cancer have in common?
They can all alter the genome.
33
Which of the following is a characteristic of cancer cells?
They have highly deranged chromosomes
34
Proto-oncogenes can be turned into oncogenes by:
duplication of the gene causing increased expression of the protein.
35
Tumor-suppressor genes:
restrain cell growth and division.
36
Genetic progression toward cancer requires:
mutations in more than one gene.
37
Which is afunction of the p53 protein?
activation of genes that inhibit cell division.
38
What is the function of the p21 protein?
It inhibits cell division by inhibiting cyclin-dependent kinase.
39
Which of the following is afunction of a proto-oncogene that can lead to cancer?
a. increased production of a growth factor.
40
Only adaptive immunity:
requires a lag period.
41
Which of the following is a type of innate immunity?
complement proteins punching holes in cells
42
Genes encoding antibodies are generated by a process in which DNA segments are _______ combined.
randomly
43
Which cells are partially responsible for immunologic memory?
activatedB cells that become memory cells
44
Which cell type kills other cells by direct contact?
CytotoxicT lymphocytes
45
B cells are activated by ________ and T cells are activated by ______.
intact antigens; antigen fragments displayed on the surfaces of other cells
46
You are studying the brownbear and find that its genome contains 9 Jand 50 V genes. Assuming that any V sequence can join with any J sequence, how many different chains can this organism make? Assume Red foxes don’t have a deoxynucleotidyltransferase gene.
450
47
Which statement about B cell receptors and T cell receptors is false?
T cell receptors bind to whole antigens, while B cell receptors bind to fragmented antigen parts.
48
MHC class I molecules present , while MHC class II molecules present .
cytosolic protein/exogenous protein.
49
How are NK cells able to attack and kill tumor cells that have suppressed the synthesis of MHC class I proteins?
NK cells bear receptors that recognize and bind to MHC class I proteins on other cells, causing the cytotoxic activity of NK cells to be inhibited.
50
Which statement about B cell activation is correct?
Activation of the B cell results from the binding of the B cell’s MHC II to the Helper T cell’s TCR.
51
The following are properties of what? Proteins, DNA – binding domain, Activation-domain – interacts with specific proteins, Some form dimers, Some attach to many DNA sites.
Transcription Factors
52
_____ is inheritance that is not dependent on a DNA sequence.
Epigenetic
53
What does DNA methylation do? What is it responsible for?
maintains DNA in an inactive state. Responsible for imprinting.
54
What are the 3 Epigenetic inheritances?
DNA methylation, Histone methylation, Centromere determination
55
Histone proteins in heterochromatin are largely methylated. What is this known as?
Histone methylation
56
In ___________, the function of the centromere is independent of the underlying sequence.
Centromere determination
57
Acetyl groups usually turn DNA (on/off).
on
58
When is the methylation pattern of heterochromatin inherited?
during DNA synthesis
59
Where does DNA lose its methylation tags?
between fertilization and the first few divisions of the zygote
60
Where do new methylation tags occur?
at the time when the embryo implants into the uterus
61
Development of tumors often depends on _______, which silence genes that normally suppress tumor growth.
abnormal methylation patterns
62
During genomic imprinting, certain genes are active or inactive during early mammalian development depending on what?
whether they are brought into the zygote by the sperm or egg
63
How many imprinted genes occur in the mammalian genome.
At least 80
64
Maternal or paternal versions of imprinted genes differ consistently in their _________.
degree of methylation
65
What state of imprinted genes is not affected by the waves of demethylation and remethylation that sweep through the early embryo.
The methylation state
66
Genes are usually imprinted for how long? .
Life. However, a cell can lose some of its imprinting
67
Loss of imprinting of the IGF2 gene leads to an ___________ due to increased production of a growth factor.
increased risk of colorectal cancer
68
Alternative splicing of introns can produce what?
different mRNAs and polypeptides
69
Fibronectin produced in fibroblasts, contains two __________ compared with the version produced in liver cells.
additional peptides
70
Alternative splicing allows a single gene to encode how many related proteins?
two or more
71
Some _______ are weak, so are bypassed under some conditions.
intron splicing sites
72
________________ are sequences in the exon that are part of the signal for splicing. The exon is not excised in cells that produce regulatory protein which bind the sequence. Cells that do not produce the regulatory protein excise the exon with the flanking introns.
Exon splicing enhancers
73
Translation......
makes protein
74
Transcription.....
is mRNA synthesis
75
How is gene expression controlled at the translation level?
Localization of mRNAs, Switching on and off mRNAs, and Rate of translation
76
mRNAs for what gene are moved to one end of the egg by microtubules and motor proteins.
The bicoid gene
77
mRNAs in an _________ are not translated until fertilized, when inactivation of inhibitory proteins and increasing of poly(A) tails occurs.
unfertilized egg
78
Translation of ferritin is controlled by the ______ which is active when iron is low.
iron regulator protein
79
If an mRNA has a longer poly(A) tail, it will have a (longer/shorter) half-life.
longer
80
In a mRNA, Poly(A) ribonuclease slowly _______. Once the tail is 30 residues, degradation starts from ______.
removes the tail, both ends in P-bodies
81
What stages of the cell cycle occur during cell division?
Interphase and M-phase
82
What is M-phase?
cell division - Mitosis + cytokinesis
83
The M phase usually last how long while Interphase can last for how long?
1 hour; days/weeks/or longer
84
What state are most cell bodies in?
G0
85
What phase do cells spend most of their time in?
Interphase
86
G0 is a state prior to what phase?
S phase (synthesis phase)
87
List the stages of mitosis in order.
Prophase, Prometaphase, Metaphase, Anaphase, Telophase
88
What is cytokinesis?
when the cell separates, the absolute last step in cell division
89
What happens in prophase?
Chromosomes become visible and the centrioles separate and move to opposite poles of the cell.
90
What happens in prometaphase
Kinetochores appear at chromosomes, nuclear envelop is broke down
91
What happens in metaphase?
chromosomes line up across the center of the cell and become connected to the spindle fiber at their centromere.
92
What happens in anaphase?
sister chromatids separate into individual chromosomes and are pulled apart.
93
What happens in telophase?
chromosomes gather at opposite ends of the cell and lose their distinct rod-like shapes. Two new nuclear membranes then form around each of the two regions of DNA and the spindle fibers disappear.
94
What is the G1 phase?
The gap phase - cell grows and carries out normal metabolism; organelles duplicate
95
What is the S phase?
DNA replication and chromosome duplication
96
What turns on the process to make DNA?
Kinase
97
What is G2 phase?
preparation for division - cell grows and prepares for mitosis
98
What is G0 stage?
It means the cell will never divide again unless injured
99
What is Maturation-Promoting Factor (MPF) made from?
two subunits a kinase and a cyclin
100
What causes entry into the M-phase?
High MPF kinase activity
101
When the cyclin subunit of MPF is in low concentration, kinase energy is ______. When cyclin is in high concentration, the kinase energy is ____.
low, high
102
What does a kinase do?
add PO4 (3-)
103
Cyclin is highest at what time of mitosis? When is it lowest?
the end, the beginning of interphase
104
When is MPF activity the highest? lowest?
Middle of mitosis, interphase
105
What is responsible for phosphorylation of Cdk residue and is necessary for its activation which initiates mitosis?
Cdk-activating kinase (CAK)
106
What is responsible for phosphorylation of a second Cdk residue that keeps Cdk inactive until the end of G2?
Wee1
107
What removes the phosphate that Wee1 added at the end of G2?
Cdc25
108
Mutants for ____ enter division at a early stage producing “Wee-little” cells. However, mutants for _____ can not enter mitosis producing large cells.
Wee1, Cdc25
109
What are Cell Cycle Check Points?
mechanisms that halt the progress of the cell cycle, if: (1) any chromosome is damaged (2) certain critical processes have not been completed
110
What can the delay of a cell cycle check point be used for?
to repair damage or correct a defect
111
If a defect can not be repaired at a cell cycle check point, what happens?
cell death can be signaled
112
DNA damage can bind and activate what?
ATM and ATR kinases: These activate proteins that participate in cell cycle check points by changing Cdk to its inactive form.
113
What organelles may fragment into numerous small vesicles during mitosis?
Endoplasmic reticulum, Golgi complex, and nuclear envelope
114
During mitosis, the _______ and ______ may incorporate into the ______ and it may remain intact.
nuclear envelope and Golgi complex, ER
115
What organelles remain intact and are partitions between the daughter cells during mitosis?
Mitochondria, lysosomes, peroxisomes, and chloroplasts
116
Where do kinetochores attach during mitosis?
to the sidewall of a microtubule
117
How do kinetochore motor protein move the chromosomes during mitosis?
along the microtubule
118
During mitosis, the kinetochore is thought to govern the length of what? How?
the microtubules by different pulling forces applied to the short vs. long microtubule
119
During mitosis, sister chromatids separate with a change in ______ triggering the _________ which moves the chromosomes across the cell.
kinetochore tension, shortening of chromosomal microtubules
120
What does prometaphase start with?
the dissolution of the nuclear envelope
121
When does anaphase start?
when sister chromatids separate and move to opposite poles
122
During prometaphase the longer chromosomal microtubes _____ while the shorter microtubules _____.
shorten, lengthen
123
During metaphase microtubule flux occurs. Subunits are added at the ____ end near the kinetochore and are lost at the ____ end.
plus, minus
124
During anaphase subunits are lost where? The kinetochore depolymerase aids this subunit loss. This triggers the movement of the chromosomes.
at the plus and minus end
125
Which anaphase is movement of chromosomes toward the poles?
A
126
Which anaphase are subunits added to the plus end of polar microtubules while being removed from the chromosomal tubules?
B
127
What is cytokinesis?
when the cell divides into daughter cells
128
During cytokinesis in animas, the formation of a cleavage furrows cuts the cell __________.
down the metaphase plate
129
During cytokinesis in animas, actin filaments become assembled in a ____. The action of myosin on the actin cuts the cell ______.
ring, in half
130
During cytokinesis in animas, what adds additional plasma membrane to the leading edge of the furrow?
Cytoplasmic vesicles
131
The final step of cytokinesis in animals occurs as the furrow is cut ___________ made of a thin cytoplasmic bridge of mitotic spindles.
through a midbody
132
In plants, ___________ starts in the center of the cell and grows outward to meet the existing walls. Wall formation starts with a cell plate.
new wall formation
133
Phragmoplast consisting of actin filaments and membranous vesicles line up _____ to the future plate. These microfilaments and microtubules serves as tracts for movement of vesicles that line up in the plain between the two nuclei.
perpendicular
134
In plants, the vesicles fuse to form a tubular network. Eventually the tube network connects with the ________, separating the daughter cells.
plasma membrane
135
Which prophase of meiosis takes longer?
Prophase I
136
Homologues associate in synapsis forming a tetrad in which prophase?
Prophase I
137
Where does crossing over occur?
Prophase I
138
Which prophase of meiosis is simpler and takes less time?
Prophase II
139
The nuclear envelope may not be present in which prophase?
prophase II
140
Chromosomes may not be as dispersed in which prophase?
prophase II
141
Meiosis is ____ reproduction, while mitosis is ____ reproduction.
sexual, asexual
142
Crossing over ONLY happens where?
Prophase I
143
What allows maternal and paternal chromosomes to become shuffled during formation of gametes?
Independent assortment
144
What occurs when DNA of homologous chromosomes are broken at the same site and recombined to shuffle maternal and paternal alleles on the given homologous chromosomes?
Genetic recombination (crossing-over)
145
Why is crossing over important?
Genetic Recombination is what makes us able to survive.
146
How many ways is there to make up the sperm and eggs which make us.
2^23 for each
147
a trisomy for chromosome 21 resulting in mental impairment, alteration of body features, circulatory problems, increased risk of leukemia, early Alzheimer’s onset. 95% can be traced to nondisjunction in the oocyte.
Down syndrome
148
What kind of receptors bind ligands that include hormones, neurotransmitters, opium derivatives, chemoattractants, odorants, tastants, and photons.
G protein-coupled receptors
149
After the G protein-coupled receptors bind ligands, they transmit the signal from the receptor to where?
an effector (like adenylyl cyclase)
150
Once the G protein sends the signal to an effector, what does the effector do?
It activates a secondary messenger.
151
What binds GPCRs (G protein-coupled receptors) that activate a G protein which activates adenylyl cyclase?
Glucagon and Epinephrine
152
Adenylyl cyclase activates ____ which activates PKA.
| PKA activates a cascade of enzymes that results in the breakdown of _____ to ____ and inhibition of glycogen synthesis.
cAMP, glycogen to glucose
153
What starts the process of desensitization by adding a phosphate to the GPCR, so it can no longer activate the G protein?
G protein-coupled receptor kinase (GRK)
154
What are proteins that bind to GPCRs and prevent them from activating additional G proteins? (causing a termination of response)
Arrestins
155
What removes phosphate from the enzymes involved in the cascade deactivating them? (causing a termination of response)
Phosphatases
156
What destroys cAMP which helps terminate a response?
cAMP phosphodiesterase
157
About how many different GPCR genes do humans have? How many of all prescription drugs bind these receptors?
2,000, 1/3
158
_____ is progressive degenerative of the retina and blindness. Mutations in the rhodopsin protein may cause mis-folding and its elimination from the cell before it reaches the plasma membrane or produces a rhodopsin. (associated with G Protein-coupled receptors)
Retinitis pinmentosa (Loss of function)
159
A version of the ____ receptor is associated with prolonged survival of HIV infected individuals. (associated with G Protein-coupled receptors)
CCR5
160
Β2 adrenergic receptor are alleles that increase risk for what? (associated with G Protein-coupled receptors)
asthma or high blood pressure
161
Dopamine receptor alleles can increase risk of what? (associated with G Protein-coupled receptors)
substance abuse or schizophrenia
162
____ is a benign thyroid tumor. A mutation causes a missence mutation that causes the tumor to constitutively produce thyroid hormone without thyroid stimulating hormone. (associated with G Protein-coupled receptors)
Adenoma (Increased function)
163
What is caused by a herpes virus that contains a constitutively active receptor for interluekin-8 which stimulates pathways that controls cell division? (associated with G Protein-coupled receptors)
Kaposis’s carcoma
| Increased function
164
What are ras proteins?
a super family of small G proteins
165
They are involved in regulation of cell division, differentiation, gene expression, cytoskeletal organization, vesicle trafficking, and nucleocytoplasmic transport.
Ras proteins
166
How do Ras proteins differ from heterotrimeric G proteins? How are they alike?
by consisting of only a single small subunit; Both can hydrolyze GTP to inactivate themselves.
167
What proteins interact with Ras proteins to greatly accelerate their ability to hydrolyze bound GTP.
GTPase-activating proteins (GAPs)
168
30% of human cancers have a mutation in which genes?
Ras genes
169
Some retroviruses have Ras genes that function as what?
oncogenes
170
What do mutations in the human RAS gene that prevent Ras from hydrolyzing GTP lead to?
tumor formation
171
Mutations in one of the ____ genes causes benign tumors to form along nerves trunks.
Ras-GAP
172
Calcium concentration in the cytosol is (high/low).
low
173
Ca2+ in the ER is 10,000 times (higher/lower) than in the cytosol.
higher
174
Ca2+ ion channels in the plasma and ER membranes normally remain (open/closed).
closed
175
Energy-driven Ca2+ transport systems of the plasma and ER membranes pump Ca2+ (in/out) of the cytosol.
out
176
Ca2+ (opens/closes) Ca2+ ion channels in ER.
opens
177
Opening of Ca2+ channels in ER (increases/decreases) cytosol Ca2+ concentration.
increases
178
Release of these can activate or inhibit enzymes and transport systems, change the ionic permeability of membranes, induce membrane fusion or alter cytoskeletal structure and function.
calcium ions
179
Ca2+ works by binding to what kinds of proteins?
Calcium-binding proteins
180
Calmodulin (CaM) is a _________.
| The Ca2+-CaM complex activates other proteins throughout the _____.
Calcium-binding protein, cytoplasm
181
Nitric Oxide (NO) can act in paracrine signaling by activating Guanylyl cyclase,which converts ___ to ____.
GTP to cGMP
182
cGMP causes smooth muscles in blood vessels to do what?
relax
183
_______ has been used to treat angina since the 1860s.
Nitroglycerine
184
Viagra inhibits an isoform of cGMP phosphodiesterase, which is an enzyme that does what?
destroys cGMP
185
What is apoptosis?
programmed cell death
186
What is the main function of apoptosis?
destroy!
187
Apoptosis plays a role in neurodegenerative diseases such as _____, _____, and ______.
Alzheimer’s disease, Parkinson’s disease, and Huntington’s disease
188
What triggers apoptosis?
Extrinsic and intrinsic
189
This is a trigger of apoptosis that is known for ionizing radiation, toxic chemicals, elevated temperatures, and viral infection.
Extrinsic
190
This is a trigger of apoptosis that is responsible for irreparable genetic damage, lack of oxygen, extremely high Ca2+ concentrations, viral infection, severe oxidative stress, and ER unfolded protein response.
Intrinsic
191
What do the following have in common? Protein kinases like focal adhesion kinase, which is responsible for maintaining a cell’s attachment to neighboring cells; Lamina which makeup the inner lining of the nuclear envelope;
Proteins of the cytoskeleton; and DNase inhibitory protein
Targets of Executioner Caspase Cleavage
192
Cancer is a _____ disease. However, in most cases, it is not ____.
genetic, inherited
193
Most cases of cancer are caused as what happens?
mutations accumulate in somatic cells during the lifetime of an individual
194
How many cancers are known to be contagious? Give an example.
3, Devil facial tumor disease
195
Benign tumors contain cells that have proliferated to form a mass, but pose little threat of becoming malignant (meaning what)?
cancerous
196
Benign tumors are what kind of tumors?
noncancerous
197
These genes encode proteins that restrain cell growth and prevent cells from becoming malignant. These genes are recessive for cancer.
Tumor-suppressor genes
198
These encode proteins that promote the loss of growth control by increasing cell division, increase genetic instability, prevent apoptosis, or promote metastasis. These genes are dominant for cancer.
Oncogenes
199
These are normal genes that can be mutated into oncogenes.
Proto-oncogenes
200
Proto-oncogenes can be turned into oncogenes by mutations that:
alter the function of a protein, duplicate the gene causing increase expression of the protein, and rearrange a chromosome resulting in increased expression or altered product
201
___ is a transcription factor that activates the expression of a large number of genes involved in cell cycle regulation and apoptosis.
p53
202
What kind of gene is p53?
a tumor-suppressor gene
203
More than 50% of human cancers contain cells with mutations in which gene?
the TP53 gene
204
p53 activates the expression of what?
p21 and the BAX gene
205
p53 activates the expression of p21 which inhibits the cyclin-dependent kinase that normally drives the cell through the G1 checkpoint. Without p21 cell division can occur without what?
time for DNA repair
206
p53 activates the expression of the BAX gene, whose product does what?
initiates apoptosis
207
Innate and Adaptive Immune Responses both require the ability to do what?
distinguish self from foreign
208
Innate responses occur _____ while adaptive responses ______.
immediately; requires a lag period
209
Which responses occur without previous contact?
Innate
210
Which response is more specific?
adaptive
211
Which immunity has a memory?
adaptive
212
All animals have some type of innate immunity but, only ______ mount an adaptive immune response.
vertebrates
213
The following are types of which immune response? Inflammation, Phagocytosis by macrophages and neutrophils, Defensins from many of the body’s cells disrupt membranes of pathogens, Complement proteins in blood, Natural killer cells, Interferons produced by virus infected cells
innate
214
What are natural killer cells? Which immune response do they apply to?
cells that kill virus infected cells, innate
215
_____ immunity is carried out by antibodies.
Humeral
216
A progenitor cell becomes a committed B cell due to what? Note: No antigen is needed for B cells to become committed.
DNA rearrangement
217
These cells respond to antigen binding by becoming activated and forming a clone of antibody producing plasma cells.
B cells
218
Some activated B cells remain in lymphoid tissues as memory cells. These cells rapidly produce a clone of plasma cells during a secondary response. What is the term used for this?
Immunologic Memory
219
The T-cell response is ____ immunity.
cell-mediated
220
Which cells are activated by antigen presenting cells which can be infected cells that display antigens on their cell surface or dendritic cells and macrophages which ingest, fragment, and present antigens on their surface?
T cells
221
What do activated T cells become?
a clone of cells that interact with other cells through direct contact
222
Nematodes: The place where these creatures mature and reproduce in the human body.
the small intestine
223
Nematodes (Hookworms: Nectator americanus): The place where these creatures enter the human body.
The feet
224
Nematodes: These tough fibers are laid down in
| layers and make up the cuticle.
collagen
225
Nematodes: Since they molt their cuticles, this phylum is grouped with others that
can do the same – the __________.
Ecdysozoa
226
Nematodes: This phylum’s key to success seems
| to be their _________.
Simplicity
227
Echinoderms: Shared derived characters: radial, indeterminate cleavage, blastopore becomes anus, mouth forms from second opening
Deuterostome
228
Echinoderms: central disc with five or more arms, use tube feet for locomotion
subclass Asteroidea
229
Echinoderms: Pincer-like structures on sea stars. Some keep debris off body, others
used for defense or capturing prey.
pedicellaria
230
Echinoderms: If you irritate or attack me, I’ll aim my backside at you and shoot sticky red tubules out of my anus. That will
teach you a lesson!
Sea Cucumber (Class Holothuroidea)
Cellular Biology
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