Textbook Flashcards

(249 cards)

1
Q

What is the scientific method?

A

The scientific method is a method of research with defined steps that include experiments and careful observation. Testing hypothesis is a crucial way to help understand the physical and natural world.

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2
Q

 What is a hypothesis?

A

A hypothesis is a suggested explanation that can be tested

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3
Q

What are the steps to the scientific method

A

The steps to the scientific method are:
making an observation
ask a question
form a hypothesis that answers the question
make a prediction based on the hypothesis
do an experiment that test the prediction
analyze the results
determine whether the results were supported or not
if the results were supported report the results
if they were not supported try again.

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4
Q

What is inductive reasoning?

A

Inductive reasoning, uses related observations to arrive at a general conclusion

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5
Q

What is deductive reasoning?

A

Deductive reasoning uses a general principle or law to forecast specific results

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6
Q

What is the goal of basic science?

A

Basic science seeks to expand knowledge, regardless of the short term application of that knowledge

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7
Q

What is the goal of applied science?

A

The goal of applied science is to use science to solve real world problems

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8
Q

Wha are the levels of organization of living things

A

Atom
molecule
organelle
cells
tissues
organ
organ systems
organisms
populations
communities
ecosystems
the biosphere

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9
Q

What are the classifications of life?

A

Domain
kingdom
phylum
class order
family
genius
species

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10
Q

What do all atoms contain excluding hydrogen?

A

All atoms, excluding hydrogen, contain protons, neutrons, and electrons. Hydrogen is made up of one proton and one electron.

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11
Q

What are isotopes?

A

Isotopes are a type of atom which are different forms of the same atom that vary in their number of neutrons

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12
Q

How is an atoms mass number determined?

A

An atom’s mass number is determined by its number of protons and neutrons

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13
Q

True or false. Electrically neutral atoms have the same number of protons and electrons.

A

True

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14
Q

What are Cations?

A

Cations are positive ions that form by losing electrons

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15
Q

What are anions

A

Anions are negative ions that form by gaining electrons

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16
Q

When do covalent bonds form?

A

Covalent bonds form when a pair of electrons is shared between two elements and are the strongest and most common form of chemical bond in living organisms

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17
Q

What is considered the universal solvent?

A

Water

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18
Q

Plants, animals, fungi, and protists form which group

A

Eukaryotes

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19
Q

Bacteria (Archaea) form which group?

A

Prokaryotes

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20
Q

List the different sections of a prokaryotic cell

A

They contain a nucleoid which houses the DNA
a cell wall, which is an extra layer of protection
a capsule which enables cells to attach to surfaces
flagella pilo or fimbriae, which is used for locomotion

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21
Q

What are desmosomes?

A

They are linkages between adjacent epithelial cells that forms when cadherins in the plasma membrane attach to intermediate filaments

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22
Q

What are fap junctions?

A

They are a channel between two animal cells that allows ions nutrients and other low molecular weight substances to pass between the cells enabling cell communication

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23
Q

In functional groups what are the characteristics of of Amines?

A

Amines contain N - C bonds

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24
Q

What is plasmodesma?

A

It is a channel that passes between cell walls of adjacent plant cells, connects their cytoplasm and allows materials to be transported from cell to cell

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25
What is mitochondria’s role in the cell function?
Mitochondria is the powerhouse of the cell where ATP formation takes place
26
What is the general formula for carbohydrates?
CH2O
27
What is the most common monosaccharide?
Glucose
28
How can monosaccharides be identified by name?
They often end in OSE. The number of carbons in the sugar determines whether they are a Triose, a pentose or a hexose
29
What is an aldose?
an Aldose is a sugar that has a carbon group at the end of the carbon chain and has an aldehyde group (R-CHO)
30
What is a ketose?
 a ketose is a sugar that has a carbon group not at the end of the carbon chain and has a ketone group (R(C=O)R)
31
How do disaccharides form?
Disaccharides form when two monosaccharides undergo a dehydration reaction (or a condensation reaction or dehydration synthesis.) during this process one monosaccharide hydroxyl group reacts with the hydroxyl group of another monosaccharide, releasing a water molecule and forming a covalent bond called a glycosydic bond
32
What are polysaccharide’s?
Polysaccharides are a long chain of monosaccharides linked by glycosidic bonds
33
What form is glucose stored as in humans
Glucose is stored as glycogen
34
What are plant cell walls made of
Cellulose
35
True or false lipids are polar
False lipids are largely nonpolar and contain hydrocarbons, which mostly include nonpolar carbon to carbon or carbon to hydrogen bonds
36
True or false non-polar molecules are hydrophobic and insoluble in water
True
37
What do fat molecules consist of?
Glycerol and fatty acids
38
What is glycerol made up of?
Glycerol is an organic compound (alcohol) with three carbons, five hydrogen’s, and three hydroxyl groups (-OH)
39
What are some characteristics of saturated fatty acids?
They have only a single bond between neigh and carbons in the hydrocarbon chain and they are solid at room temperature, i.e. animal fat
40
What are some characteristics of unsaturated fatty acids?
They contain a double bond in the hydrocarbon chain and are liquid at room temperature i.e. plant oils
41
What are some characteristics of poly unsaturated fatty acids?
They contain multiple double bonds in the hydrocarbon chain
42
What do phospholipids make up?
The plasma membrane
43
What are some characteristics of phospholipids?
They are amphipathic meaning they have a hydrophobic section (tail) and a hydrophilic (head) section
44
What do phospholipids do in an aqueous solution?
They can form a bilayer
45
In functional groups what are the characteristics of Alcohol
Alcohols have an OH or C-OH bond
46
Why are steroids considered lipids?
Because they are also hydrophobic and are insoluble in water. They have a fused ring structure as well.
47
What are some characteristics of proteins?
Proteins are different shapes, molecular weights, and have different functions. They are comprised of amino acids.
48
What are the six primary functions of proteins?
Enzymes catalyst in biochemical reactions, transport, carrying substances around the body structure mechanical support hormones, coordinate different body systems activities defence protect the body from different pathogens storage provide nourishment
49
Approximately how many types of amino acids are there?
20
50
What is the fundamental structure of an amino acid?
A central carbon atom (or the alpha carbon) bonded to an amino group a carboxyl group and hydrogen atom along with the R group
51
What is the most crucial thing to protein function?
It’s shape
52
How many levels of protein structure are there and name them?
There are four primary secondary tertiary and quartenary
53
What does the primary structure refer to in protein?
This refers to the amino acids, unique sequence in a polypeptide chain
54
What does the secondary structure refer to in protein?
To the local folding of the polypeptide in some regions, most common shapes are the alpha helix, and the beta plated sheet
55
What does tertiary structure referred to in protein?
It refers to the polypeptides unique, three dimensional structure, primarily created by the interactions among the R- groups
56
What does the quartenary structure refer to in protein?
This refers to the subunits (several poly peptides) and their interactions weak interactions between the subunits help to stabilize the overall structure
57
What is denaturation?
Denaturation is the change in the protein structure, losing its shape, but not sequence due to the subjection to pH, temperature or chemical changes
58
What are enzymes made up of and what is their primary function?
They are primarily made up of proteins and their critical task is lowering the activation energy of biochemical processes
59
When referring to enzymes what does substrates refer to?
Substrates refers to the chemical molecule that the enzyme binds to
60
What is the active site in an enzyme?
The active site is the location within the enzyme that the substrate binds to
61
What is formed when a substrate and an enzyme bind
An enzyme substrate complex
62
When discussing enzymes, what does inhibition refer to?
Inhibition refers to a similar enough molecule (to the substrate) that binds to the active site which blocks the substrate from doing so, this is also referred to as competitive inhibition
63
What is non-competitive inhibition when referring to enzymes?
Non-competitive inhibition refers to an inhibitor molecule binding to an enzyme, not in the active site, but still manages to block the substrate binding. The binding site is called the allosteric site.
64
What is feedback inhibition when referring to enzymes?
Feedback inhibition refers to the use of a reaction product to regulate its own further production. The cell responds to an abundance of products by slowing down production during anabolic and catabolic reactions
65
What is the photosynthesis equation?
6CO2 + 6H2O => C6H12O6 + 6O2 Six carbon dioxide + 6 water converts to 6 sugar (usually glucose) plus 6 oxygen
66
Where does the Calvin cycle start in Plant respiration
In plants CO2 enters the chloroplast through the stomata and diffusers into the stroma of the chloroplast the site of the Calvin cycle reaction, where sugar is synthesized
67
What are the three basic stages of the Calvin cycle?
Fixation, reduction and regeneration
68
Outline stage one of the Calvin cycle fixation
CO2 is “fixed” from its inorganic form into organic molecules. This is due using the enzyme ribose -1, 5 biphosphate (RubisCO) to form the molecule ribulose biphosphate (RuBP). Each turn using 1 RUBP and 1 CO and forms 2 molecules of 3-PGA
69
When discussing enzymes, what does inhibition refer to?
Inhibition refers to a similar enough molecule (to the substrate) that binds to the active site which blocks the substrate from doing so, this is also referred to as competitive inhibition
70
In functional groups what are the characteristics Thiols
They have a S atom instead of an O, C-SH
71
Outline stage two of the Calvin cycle reduction
ATP and NADPH use their stored energy to convert 3-PGA into glyceraldehyde 3-phosphate (G3P). It is a reduction because 3-PGA gains electrons. The ADP and NADPH resulting from the reaction return to the light dependent reactions to be re-energized
72
Outline stage three of the Calvin cycle regeneration
One of the G3P molecules leaves the Calvin cycle for the cytoplasm to contribute to the formation of other carbohydrate molecules. The remaining G3P regenerate RuBP which enables to be system to prepare for the carbon fixation set again.
73
How many terms of the Kelvin cycle to fix six carbon atoms from CO2
It takes six turns. These six turns require 12 ATP molecules and 12 NADPH molecules in the reduction step and six ATP molecules in the regeneration step.
74
What is thermodynamics?
Thermodynamics refers to the study of energy and energy transfer involving physical matter
75
What type of energy system are biological organisms?
Biological organisms are open systems, matter and energy are exchanged between them and their surroundings
76
What is the first law of thermodynamics?
The first law of thermodynamics states that the total amount of energy in the universe is constant and conserved. This means energy may maybe be transferred from place to place or transformed from one type to another, but it cannot be destroyed or created.
77
What does entropy refer to?
Entropy refers to the state of randomness or disorder within a system. High entropy means high disorder and low energy.
78
In functional groups what are the characteristics of Ether
They are an O surrounded by C. The trick is they sound like either and when written out will look like R OR
79
What is the second law of thermodynamics?
The second law of thermodynamics states that energy will always be lost as heat in energy transfers or transformations
80
What is kinetic energy?
Kinetic energy refers to the energy associated with objects in motion
81
What is potential energy?
Potential energy refers to the energy, put into something that when triggered may transfer or transform to a different energy. It is associated with the location of matter and structure.
82
What is free energy?
Free energy refers to the energy associated with a chemical reaction that is available after the losses are accounted for e.g. the loss of heat
83
What is bioenergetics?
Bioenergetics is the concept of energy flow through living systems, such as cells
84
What is metabolism?
Metabolism refers to all the chemical reactions that transpire inside the cell
85
What do anabolic pathways do?
They require an input of energy to synthesize complex molecules from simpler ones
86
What do catabolic pathways do?
Catabolic pathways breakdown, larger molecules into smaller ones
87
What does ATP stand for and what is it?
ATP stands for adenosine tri phosphate, and is the energy currency of the cell and works like a rechargeable battery
88
How many phases does glycolysis have outline them?
Glycolysis has two phases. The first part energy is used to make adjustments so that the six carbon ring sugar molecule can be split evenly into 2 3 carbon pyruvate molecules. The second part ATP and nicotinamide adenosine de nucleotide NADH are produced. the first two ATP are used to activate glucose. second the glucose splits into two branches with one NADH and two ATP produced from each branch. The net products are two pyruvate molecules, 2 NADH and two ATP.
89
In eucaryotic cells, where do the pyruvate molecules go at the end of glycolysis?
The pyruvate molecules produced at the end of glycolysis are transported into mitochondria, which are the sites of cellular respiration
90
What is pyruvate transformed into and outlined the process?
Pyruvate will be transformed into a two carbon acetyl group (by removing a molecule of CO2) that will be picked up by a carrier compound called a coenzyme (COA) the resulting compound is called a acetyl COA. Its primary function is to deliver the acetyl group from the pyruvate to the next pathway in glucose catabolism.
91
The citric acid cycle is an open loop true or false
False it is a closed loop
92
What does oxidative phosphorylation refer to?
Oxidative phosphorylation refers to the potential energy of the electrochemical gradient, used to generate ATP
93
Where does the electron transport chain get its oxygen from?
It gets its oxygen from the atmosphere and is referred to as a terminal acceptor
94
What happens during the electron transport chain?
During this chain electrons are passed through a series of chemical reactions as the electrons are passed from NADH or FADH2 down the electron transport chain they lose energy. The products of the electron transport chain are water and ATP.
95
If aerobic respiration does not occur what must happen to NADH
NADH must be oxidized to NADH+ for reuse as an electron carrier for glycolysis to continue
96
What is the formula for NADH to NAD+
The formula is pyruvic acid + NADH converts to lactic acid + NAD+
97
Describe the plasma membrane and how it functions
The main fabric of the plasma membrane is comprised of two layers of phospholipid molecules, and the polar ends of these molecules are in contact with aqueous fluid both inside and outside the cell. Thus both surfaces of the plasma membrane are hydrophilic. In contrast the interior of the membrane between it’s two surfaces is a hydrophobic or nonpolar region because of the fatty acid tails.
98
What is the landscape of the plasma membrane studded with?
The plasma membrane is studded with proteins some of which served transport materials into or out of the cell
99
Carbohydrates are attached to some of the proteins and lipids on the alpha facing surface. What is their purpose?
They form complexes that function to identify the cell to other cells
100
Plasma membranes are selectively, permeable, true or false
True
101
What is passive transport?
Passive transport is a naturally occurring phenomenon and does not require the cell to expend energy
102
What is diffusion?
Diffusion is the process of substances moving from area areas of higher concentration to areas of lower concentration
103
What does a concentration gradient mean?
A concentration gradient refers to a physical space in which there is a difference in concentration of a substance
104
What factors affect the diffusion rate?
Extent of the concentration gradient, the greater the difference in gradient, the more rapid the diffusion The mass of the molecules diffusing, heavier molecules move slower than lighter ones Temperature, higher temperatures increase the energy of moving particles, and therefore the movement of molecules Solvent density, as the density of the solvent increases the rate of diffusion decreases Solubility of the solute, nonpolar or lipid soluble materials passed through plasma membranes more easily than polar ones Distance traveled, the greater the distance travelled the slower the rate of diffusion
105
What is a Carbonyl
Is a C=O as it is doubled bonded
106
What is facilitated transport?
Facilitated transport refers to the moving of materials across the plasma membrane with the assistance of transmembrane proteins down a concentration gradient high to low. Energy is not required as the concentration gradient is a form of potential energy.
107
What are the two types of channel proteins?
The two types of channel proteins are either open all the time or gated which controls the opening
108
What do carrier proteins do?
Carrier proteins bind to a substrate, and thus triggers, a change of its own shape, moving the bound molecule from the cells outside to its interior
109
What do channel proteins do?
Channel proteins transport, much more quickly than carrier proteins
110
What is osmosis?
Osmosis is the diffusion of water through a semipermeable membrane, according to the concentration gradient of water across the membrane, which is inversely proportional to the solutes concentration
111
What is tonicity?
Tonicity describes how the amount of extracellular solute in a solution, affects the cells volume by osmosis y
112
What is osmolarity?
Osmolarity is the measure of the tonicity of a solution or the total amount of solute dissolved in a specific amount of solution
113
Describe a hypotonic solution
In a hypotonic solution, i.e. tapwater, the extra cellular fluid has a lower concentration of solute than the fluid inside the cells, water then enters the cells
114
Describe an isotonic solution
In an isotonic solution, the extra cellular fluid has the same osmolarity as the cell. If the concentration of solute of the cell matches that of the extra cellular fluid, there will be no net movement of water.
115
Describe a hypertonic solution
In a hypertonic solution, the extra cellular fluid has a higher concentration of solute than the cell cytoplasm. The fluid contains less water than the cell does a sea water. Because the cell has a lower concentration of solution, the water will leave the cell.
116
What is active transport?
Active transport mechanisms require the use of the cells energy usually in the form of ATP. This process is used when a substance must move in the cell against the concentration gradient.
117
What is the cells entire genetic content called?
It’s called it’s genome
118
What are eucaryotic chromosomes made up of?
The substance of eukaryotic chromosomes is DNA, which has formed a complex with histone protein to form chromatin
119
How do eukaryotic DNA molecules communicate with the rest of the cell
Eucaryotic DNA molecules, communicate with the rest of the cell using an intermediary Mesenger RNA (mRNA)
120
Where is the cell cells genetic blueprint found?
The cells genetic blueprint is found in the nucleic acids and also the instructions for its functions. The two main types are DNA deoxyribonucleic acid and RNA ribonucleic acid.
121
What are nucleotides comprised of?
Nucleotides are comprised of a nitrogenous base, a pentos (five carbon) sugar, and one or more phosphate groups
122
What are the two categories of bases called?
Purines and Pyrimidines
123
What are the two double ringed purines called
Adenine and Guanine they are made up
124
What are the three single ring pyrimidines called?
Cytosine thymine, and uracil
125
What four possible nitrogenous bases does DNA contain
Adenine, Guanine, Cytosine and Thymine
126
What four possible nitrogenous bases does RNA contain?
Adenine, Guanine, Cytosine and Uracil
127
What does mRNA do
mRNA carries messages from DNA which controls all cellular activity
128
What does rRNA do
rRNA is a major constituent of ribosomes on which the mRNA bonds
129
What is tRNA‘s function?
tRNA‘s function is to carry the correct amino acids to the protein synthesis site
130
What is miRNA’s function
miRNA is involved in regulating gene expression by interfering with the expression of certain mRNA messages
131
Which bases share equal amounts
Adenine is equal to the amount of thymine and cystine is equal to the amount of guanine
132
Summarize the process of DNA replication in prokaryotes
Step one DNA unwind at the origin of replication step two helicase opens up the DNA forming replication fork. These are extended bi-directionally. Step three single strand, binding proteins coat, the DNA around the replication fork to prevent rewinding of the DNA Step four topoisomerase bines at the region ahead of the replication fork to prevent super coiling Step five primase synthesizes RNA primers complementary to the DNA strand Step six DNA polymerase three starts adding nucleotides to the 3– OH end of the primer Step seven elongation of both the lagging and the leading strand continues Step eight RNA primers are removed by exonuclease activity Step nine gaps are filled by DNA pol I by adding dNTP Step 10 the gap between the two DNA fragments is sealed by DNA ligase, which helps in the formation of phosphodiester bonds
133
What does DNA pol I do
It removes RNA primer and replaces it with new DNA
134
What does DNA pol III do
the main enzyme that adds nucleotides in the 5-3 direction?
135
What does helicase do
Helicase opens the DNA helix by breaking hydrogen bonds between nitrogenous bases
136
What does ligase do?
Ligase seals the gap between Okazaki fragments to create one DNA strand
137
What does primase do
Primase synthesize RNA primers needed to start replication
138
What does the sliding clamp do?
Helps to hold the DNA polymerase in place when nucleotides are being added
139
What do topoisomers do?
Topoisomers help relieve the strain on DNA when unwinding by causing brakes and then resealing the DNA
140
What do single strand binding proteins do
They bind to single-stranded DNA to prevent DNA from rewinding back
141
What is polymerase’s function?
Polymerase acts as a proofreading to make sure the newly added base is correct before adding the next one
142
What do genes do?
Gene specify the sequence of mRNA, which intern specifies the sequence of amino acids, making up all proteins and RNA’s
143
What are amino acids defined by?
Amino acids are defined by a three nucleotide sequence called the triplet codon, there are 64 possible nucleotide triplet combinations
144
How many of the 64 codon’s terminate protein synthesis?
Three of the 64 codon’s terminate protein synthesis and release the polypeptide from the translation machinery. These triplets are called nonsense or stop codes.
145
What is the function of codon AUG
Codon on AUG has a special function in addition to specifying the amino acid methionine. It also serves as a start codon to initiate translation.
146
What do genes specify?
Central dog states that gene specify the sequence of mRNA’s, which interns specify the sequence of proteins
147
What does the term colinear mean?
The term colinear refers to RNA and protein, three units of RNA nucleotides specify, one unit of protein amino acids
148
What does the term degeneracy mean?
Degeneracy describes that a given amino acid can be encoded by more than one nucleotide triplet. The code is degenerate not ambiguous.
149
In prokaryotes, why can the processes of transcription translation and mRNA degradation all occur simultaneously?
These processes can occur simultaneously because prokaryotes do not have a membrane bound nuclei
150
In functional groups what are the characteristics of Ketone?
Has a carbonyl (C=O) in the middle of the chain
151
In DNA what is meant by a promoter
A promoter is a DNA sequence onto which the transcription machinery, including RNA polymerase binds and initiates transcription 
152
How many polypeptide subunits do prokaryotes have? Outline their functions.
There are five subunits the two alpha subunits are necessary to assemble the polymer raises on the DNA The beta subunit binds to the ribonucleotide tri phosphate that will become part of the nascent mRNA molecule The beta minor subunit binds the DNA template The omega subunit is involved in the transcription initiation. Without it, the core enzyme would transcribed from random sites.
153
How many polymerases do eukaryotes have?
Eukaryotes have three polymerases that are each made up of 10 subunits or more. Each polymerase also requires a distinct set of transcription factors to bring it to the DNA template.
154
What is the function of RNA polymerase I?
RNA polymers eye is located in the nucleus a specialized nucleus substructure in which ribosomal RNA (rRNA) is transcribed processed into ribosomes
155
What is the function of RNA polymerase II?
RNA polymerase II is located in the nucleus and synthesize all protein coding nuclear pre-mRNA
156
What is the function of RNA polymerase III
The function of RNA polymerase III is also located in the nucleus. This polymerase is transcribes a variety of structural RNA’s.
157
How are polypeptides formed?
Polypeptides are formed when the amino group (-NH2) of one amino acid forms an amide (peptide) bond with the carboxyl group (-COOH) of another amino acid. This reaction is catalyzed by ribosomes and generates one water molecule.
158
What happens during interphase?
During interphase the cell undergoes normal processes while also preparing for cell division, there are three stages of interphase G1 S and G2
159
What happens during the G1 stage?
G one (first gap)is the first stage of interphase and is called this because little change is visible. The cell is accumulating, the building blocks of chromosomal DNA and the associated proteins as well as accumulating enough energy reserves to complete the task of replicating each chromosome in the nucleus.
160
What happens during S phase?
S (synthesis) phase DNA replication results in the formation of two identical copies of each chromosome sister chromatids that are firmly attached at the centromere region. The centromere is duplicated during S phase. The 2 centromeres will give rise to the mitotic spindle, the apparatus that orchestrates the movement of chromosomes during a mitosis.
161
What happens during the G2 phase?
The G2 (second gap) phase the cell replenishes its energy stores and synthesize the proteins necessary for chromosome manipulation. Some cell organelles are duplicated, and the cytoskeleton is dismantled to provide resources for the mitotic spindle. The final preparation for the mitotic phase must be completed before the cell is able to enter the first stages of mitosis.
162
What are the phases of mitosis?
The phases of mitosis are prophase, prometaphase, metaphase, anaphase, and telophase. These result in the division of the cell nucleus.
163
In functional groups what are the characteristics of Aldehyde?
Has the carbonyl (C=O) at the end of the chain not in the middle. The trick is there will be a H at the end of the chain not a C
164
In functional groups what are the characteristics of Carboxylic Acid?
Has a carbonyl (C=O) with an OH at the end of the chain
165
In functional groups what are the characteristics of Ester?
Will have an O-R (R being the remaining molecules) at the end of the chain
166
In functional groups what are the characteristics of Amide?
Has an NH2 at the end of the chain and a doubled bonded O before it (R-C-O2-NH2)
167
In functional groups what are the characteristics of Nitrile?
Has a triple bond
168
In functional groups what are the characteristics of Phenol?
Has a 6 ring carbon chain with an OH attached to the ring
169
In functional groups what are the characteristics of Phenyl?
Has a 6 ring carbon chain with a carbon attached (R)
170
In naming conventions what does Meth denote?
a 1 carbon chain molecule
171
In naming conventions what does Eth denote?
a 2 carbon chain molecule
172
In naming conventions what does Prop denote?
a 3 carbon chain molecule
173
In naming conventions what does But denote?
a 4 carbon chain molecule
174
In naming conventions what does Pent denote?
a 5 carbon chain molecule
175
In naming conventions what does Hex denote?
a 6 carbon chain molecule
176
In naming conventions what does Hept denote?
a 7 carbon chain molecule
177
In naming conventions what does Oct denote?
a 8 carbon chain molecule
178
In naming conventions what does Non denote?
a 9 carbon chain molecule
179
In naming conventions what does Dec denote?
a 10 carbon chain molecule
180
In naming conventions what does Ane denote?
the chain is all single bonds
181
In naming conventions what does Ene denote?
the chain contains at least 1 double bond
182
In naming conventions what does Yne denote?
the chain contains at least 1 triple bond
183
What do the letters on the periodic table represent?
The name of the Element
184
What does the whole number of an element represent on the periodic table?
The atomic number which is how many protons the atom has
185
What does the decimal number of an element represent on the periodic table?
The atomic mass of the element which is the weight of the combined protons and neutrons
186
As you move from left to right on the periodic table what happens to the atomic numbers?
The increase by 1
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How many groups are there on the periodic table (left to right)?
18 groups
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How many periods are there on the periodic table (top to bottom)?
7 periods
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What is a common characteristic of each group on the periodic table?
They share valence electrons
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What category does the far left of the periodic table fall into (first 2 groups)?
Alkali metals
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What category does the center of the periodic table fall into (groups 3-12)?
Transitional metals
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What characteristics do transitional and alkali metals share?
They are both metallic, shiny, conductive and solid at room temperature (excluding mercury)
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What category does the "step down" section of the periodic table fall into (starting at Al 13 and ending at Bi 83)?
The metalloids which share properties with both metals and non-metals
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What category does the right side of "the step down" the periodic table fall into?
The non metals.
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What category does the far right group of the periodic table fall into (group 18)?
The noble gasses, these dont like to mix with other molecules
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What is group 17 known as on the periodic table?
The Halogens or Halides in organic chemistry. They are F, Cl, Br, I and At
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What happens as you move upwards and to the right on the periodic table?
Electronegativity increases (excluding the noble gasses)
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What are the main atoms to remember in organic chemistry?
Hydrogen - H - AN 1 - Group 1 Carbon - C - AN 6 - Group 14 Nitrogen - N - AN 7 - Group 15 Oxygen - O - AN 8 - Group 16 Fluorine - F - AN 9 - Group 17 Phosphorus - P - AN 15 - Group 15 Sulphur - S - AN 16 - Group 16 Chlorine - Cl - AN 17 - Group 17 Bromine - Br - AN 35 - Group 17 Iodine - I - AN 53 - Group 17
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How many electrons can shell 1 (K) hold
2 electrons
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How many electrons can shell 2 (L) hold
8 Electrons
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How many electrons can shell 3 (M) hold
18 electrons
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How many electrons can shell 4 (N) hold
32 Electrons
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How can you determine an elements number of valence electrons (number of electrons on the outer shell)?
Groups 1-2 the group number is the number of valence electrons Groups 3-13 you need to count the numbers of electrons/know the number of shells Groups 13-18 you minus 10 from the group number which gives you the number of valence electrons
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What happens during Prophase?
During prophase the nuclear envelope starts to break into small vesicles and the Golgi apparatus' and endoplasmic reticulum disperse to the periphery of the cell. The microtubules that form the basis of the mitotic spindle extend between the centrosomes, pushing them further apart as the microtubule fibers lengthen. The sister chromatids begin to coil more tightly and become visible under a light microscope.
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What happens during Prometaphase?
Prophase processes continue to advance and culminate in the formation of a connection between the chromosome and the cytoskeleton. The remnants of the nuclear envelope disappear. The mitotic spindle continues to develop as microtubules assemble and stretch across the length of the former nuclear area. Chromosomes become more condensed and visually discrete. Each sister chromatids face the opposite poles. Eventually all the sister chromatids will be attached via their kinetochores to microtubules for opposing poles. Spindle microtubules that do not engage the chromosomes are called polar microtubules. These microtubules overlap each other midway between the two poles and contribute to cell elongation. Astral microtubules are located near the poles, aid in spindle orientation and are required for the regulation of mitosis.
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What happens during Metaphase?
All of the chromosomes are aligned in a place called the metaphase plates or the equatorial place, midway between the two poles of the cell. The sister chromatids are still tightly attached to each other by cohesion proteins. At this time the chromosomes are maximally condensed.
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What happens during Anaphase?
The sister chromatids at the equatorial plane are split apart at the centromere. Each chromatid now called a chromosome is pulled rapidly toward the centrosome to which its microtubule was attached. The cell becomes visibly elongated as the non-kinetochore microtubules slide against each other at the metaphase plate where they overlap.
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What happens during Telophase?
All of the events that set up the duplicated chromosome for mitosis during the first three phases are now reversed. The chromosomes reach the opposite poles and begin to decondense (unravel). The mitotic spindles are broken down into monomers that will be used to assemble the cytoskeleton components for each daughter cell. Nuclear envelopes from around the chromosomes.
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What is Cytokinesis?
The second part of the mitotic phase during which cell division is completed by the physical separation of the cytoplasmic components into two daughter cells.
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In animal cells (those lacking cell walls) when does cytokinesis begin?
Following the onset of anaphase. A contractile ring composed of actin filaments forms just inside the plasma membrane at the former metaphase plate. The actin filaments pull the equator of the cell inwards, forming a fissure. This fissure is called the cleavage. The furrow deepens as the actin ring contracts and eventually the membrane and the cell are cleaved in two.
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How and why do plant cells split differently than animal ones?
Their cell walls are too rigid for the cleavage furrow to occur. Instead a new cell wall forms between the daughter cells.
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Which check point determines whether all conditions are favorable for cell division to proceed?
G1, if met the cell irreversibly commits to cell division.
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What does the G2 check point do?
The G2 check point bars entry into the mitotic phase if certain conditions are not met. If the check point mechanism detects a problem with the DNA the process is halted and the cell tries to either complete the DNA replication or repair the damaged DNA
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What happens at the M check point?
This checkpoint occurs near the end of Metaphase. It determines if all the sister chromatids are attached to the spindle microtubules.
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What kind of cell division do Prokaryotes undergo?
Binary Fission
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How many sets of chromosomes do most plants and animals have?
2 sets as they are diploid.
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In animals what do haploid cells contain?
The contain a single set of each homologous chromosome and are only found within gamete cells.
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What is the clear division that forms haploid cells?
The clear division that forms haploid cells is called Meiosis. To achieve the reduction in chromosome number, meiosis consists of one round of chromosome duplication and 2 rounds of nuclear division.
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What are the stages of Meiosis?
G1, S phase and G2.
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In Meiosis what is G1's main focus?
Cell growth.
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In Meiosis what happens during S phase?
During S phase each chromosome becomes composed of the 2 identical copies (sister chromatids) that are held together at the centromere until they are pulled apart during Meiosis II
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In Meiosis what happens during Prophase I?
The chromosomes can clearly be seen on a microscope. The nuclear envelope begins to break down and the proteins associated with homologous chromosomes bring the pair closer together. The tight pairing is called Synapsis.
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In Meiosis what happens during Prometaphase I?
The key event is the attachment of the spindle fiber microtubules to the kinetochore proteins at the centromeres.
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In Meiosis what happens during Metaphase I?
The homologous chromosomes are arranged in the center of the cell with the kinetochores facing opposite poles. Orientation of the homologous chromosomes is random. This randomness is the physical basis for the second form of genetic variation.
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In Meiosis what happens during Anaphase I?
The spindle fibers pull the linked chromosomes apart. The sister chromatids remain tightly bound together at the center.
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In Meiosis what happens during telophase I?
The separated chromosomes arrive at the opposite poles, the remaining processes of telophase mar or may not occur depending on the species.
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In Meiosis what happens during cytokinesis?
Cytokinesis occurs without the reformation of the nuclei in other organisms. At each pole there is just one member of each pair of homologous chromosomes so only one full set of chromosomes is present.
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What happens to the sister chromatids during Meiosis II?
Those remaining in the haploid cell from meiosis I will be split to form the haploid cells. The two cells go through the events of meiosis II in synchrony.
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In Meiosis II what happens during Prophase?
During Prophase II if the chromosomes decondensed in telophase I they condense again. If nuclear envelopes were formed they fragment into vesicles. The centrosome duplicated during interkinesis move away from each other towards opposite poles and new spindles are formed.
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In Meiosis II what happens during Prometaphase?
The nuclear envelopes are completely broken down and the spindle is fully formed. Each sister chromatid forms an individual kinetochore that attaches to microtubules from opposite poles.
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In Meiosis II what happens during Metaphase?
The sister chromatids are maximally condensed and align at the center of the cell.
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In Meiosis II what happens during Anaphase?
The sister chromatids are pulled apart by the spindle fibers and move towards opposite poles.
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In Meiosis II what happens during Telophase?
The chromosomes arrive at opposite poles and begin to decondense. Nuclear envelopes form around the chromosomes.
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In Meiosis II what happens during Cytokinesis?
Cytokinesis separates the two cells into four genetically unique haploid cells. At this point the nuclei in the newly produced cells are both haploid and have only one copy of the single set of chromosomes.
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What is genetics?
Genetics is the study of heredity, with Mendels work setting the framework it is built upon.
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What are alleles?
Alleles are gene variants that arise by mutation and exist at the same relative locations on homologous chromosomes.
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What are phenotypes?
Phenotypes are observable traits expressed by an organism
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What does genotype refer to?
An organisms underlying genetic make up, consisting of both the physically visible and non-expressed alleles.
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What does homozygous refer to?
Homozygous refers to having two identical alleles for a given gene on the homologous chromosomes.
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What does heterozygous refer to?
Heterozygous refers to having 2 different alleles for a given gene on the homologous chromosomes.
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Why would scientists conduct a test cross?
To determine heterozygous individuals with the dominant phenotype.
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What does epistasis refer to?
Epistasis refers to the antagonistic interaction between genes such that one gene makes or interferes with the expression of another.
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What is the law of dominance?
In a heterozygote, one trait will conceal the presence of another trait for the same characteristic.
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What is the law of independent assortment?
Genes do not influence each other with regard to sorting an allele into gametes.
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What is the law of segregation?
Paired unit factors (genes) segregate equally into gametes such that offspring will have an equal likelihood of inheriting any combination of features.
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What is incomplete dominance?
A genetic inheritance pattern where neither dominant nor recessive allele fully masks the other in a heterozygote, resulting in an intermediate or blended phenotype in the offspring, like pink flowers from red and white parents
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What is codominance?
A genetic pattern where both versions of a gene (alleles) are fully and separately expressed in an offspring, rather than one masking the other, leading to a phenotype showing both traits distinctly, like a person with AB blood type having both A and B antigens
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What does phenotypic ratio refer to?
The likelihood of an offspring producing the observable trait. In a punnit's square where T is for tall and t is for short, if the both parents are Tt and Tt the ratio would be 3:1 or 75%-25% as the square would produce TT, Tt, Tt and tt.
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What does genotypic ratio refer to.