1
Q
The maximum operating altitude of the B7373 is:
A
41,000ft
2
Q
Weather radar operation should only be used in test mode:
A
In the hangar or near ground personnel
3
Q
Severe turbulent air penetration speed is:
A
280 / .76M
4
Q
Reduce crosswind limitations by 1 knot per meter when runway width is less than:
A
40m
5
Q
When landing on wet or contaminated runways, if asymmetric reverse thrust is used reduce crosswind limitations by:
A
5kts
6
Q
Sideslip only landings are not permitted with a crosswind component of:
A
> 15kts
7
Q
Use of aileron trim with autopilot engaged is:
A
Prohibited
8
Q
On takeoff the autopilot must not be engaged below:
A
400ft agl
9
Q
Minimum use height (MUH) for single channel autopilot operation is:
A
111ft agl
10
Q
LVL CHG must not be used on final approach below:
A
1000ft afe
11
Q
Maximum and minimum glide slope angles for automatic landing are:
A
3.25° and 2.5°
12
Q
HF radios must not be operated
A
During refueling
13
Q
Intentional selection of reverse thrust in flight is:
A
Prohibited
14
Q
If thrust reverser is deployed on landing:
A
A go-around must not be attempted
15
Q
Maximum altitude for APU use for electrical load is:
A
41,000ft
16
Q
Maximum altitude for APU bleed air is:
A
17,000ft
17
Q
Maximum altitude for APU bleed air and electrical load is:
A
10,000ft
18
Q
Maximum altitude with flaps extended is:
A
20,000ft
19
Q
Holding in icing conditions with flaps extended is:
A
Prohibited
20
Q
In flight, the Speedbrake lever must not be extended beyond:
A
FLIGHT DETENT
21
Q
The Speedbrakes must not be deployed below:
A
1000ft RA
22
Q
In flight do not extend the Speedbrake lever beyond the ARMED detent when:
A
Flaps 40
23
Q
QFE operations are:
A
Prohibited
24
Q
During an aborted engine start the first action is:
A
Engine start lever (affected engine) CUT OFF
25
If stick shaker is activated set the following gear up pitch attitude and thrust:
10° and 80% N1 with flaps extended
26
If an APU fire is detected in the APU you must confirm the APU fire switch, then:
Pull, rotate to the stop and hold for 1 second
27
In the event of a cabin altitude warning or rapid depressurization:
Don oxygen masks set 100%, establish crew communications, pressurization mode selector MAN, outflow valve switch hold in CLOSE
28
When initiating an emergency descent:
Pilot flying will advise cabin crew on the PA system while pilot monitoring advises ATC and obtains area altimeter setting
29
During an engine fire on the ground, the Captain’s first 2 actions are;
Thrust levers CLOSE, parking brake SET
30
In the event of an engine fire or engine severe damage or separation:
Autothrottle DISENGAGE, (affected engine) thrust lever CLOSE, engine start lever CUTOFF, engine fire switch PULL
31
With an engine limit or surge or stall, once autothrottle is disengaged you must:
Retard the affected engine thrust lever until the engine indications stay within limits
32
In the event of smoke, fire or fumes, the first action of the flight crew must be:
Don oxygen masks and set regulators to 100%
33
If ENG 1 OVERHEAT or ENG 2 OVERHEAT is displayed, after disengaging the autothrottle you must:
Close the affected engine thrust lever
34
In the event of an engine tailpipe fire, once the affected engine start lever is at CUTOFF you must:
Advise the cabin
35
Where can you find the evacuation checklist?
QRH back cover
36
With loss of thrust on both engines a restart must be attempted by:
Engine start switches (both) FLT, engine start levers (both) CUTOFF, (when EGT decreases) engine start levers (both) IDLE detent
37
With a runaway stabilizer, if the runaway stops after the autopilot is disengaged:
Autopilot and autothrottle must not be re-engaged
38
If the intermittent warning horn sounds or a CABIN ALTITUDE light illuminates in flight at an altitude above 10,000 ft, the first action of the flight crew must be:
Don oxygen masks and set regulators to 100%
39
With the Emergency (EMER) EXIT LIGHTS Switch set to ARMED:
All emergency lights illuminate automatically if airplane electrical power to DC bus No. 1 fails or AC power is turned off
40
The passenger oxygen masks automatically deploy when the cabin altitude passes:
14,000 feet
41
With the crewmember station oxygen mask NORMAL/100% switch set to 100%:
The user is supplied with 100% oxygen on demand
42
The First Officer’s number two window:
Can be opened from the inside and outside. The Captain’s window cannot be opened from the outside.
43
If an Emergency Exit (Overwing) Door fails (flight lock failure or a fault detected) occurs. What indication can you expect in the flight deck
MAINT light, overhead annunciator and master caution lights illuminate
44
The BLEED Light (amber) indicates:
Excessive engine bleed air temperature, over-pressure or under-pressure
45
With both packs operating and set to AUTO:
Each pack regulates to low flow
46
With the engine bleed air switch set to ON, the valves are:
DC activated & pressure operated
47
The TRIP RESET Switch can be used to reset:
BLEED, ZONE TEMP or PACK lights
48
The maximum differential pressure is:
9.10 psi
49
A flight is aborted, and a return to the field of departure is made, the crew:
Should do nothing since the controller programs the cabin to land at the takeoff field elevation without further pilot inputs
50
The wing anti-ice system provides bleed air to all leading edge slats:
False
51
Illumination of an amber COWL ANTI-ICE light indicates:
An overpressure condition.
52
Positioning the ENG ANTI-ICE switch to ON in flight:
Sets stick shaker logic for icing conditions only when ENG-ANTI ICE switch is ON.
53
Which probes and sensors are not heated?
Static ports.
54
Positioning the WING ANTI-ICE switch to ON in flight? :
Sets stick shaker logic for icing conditions for the remainder of the flight.
55
The Automatic Flight System (AFS) includes:
All answers correct
56
Whilst commencing a CATIII autoland, What FMA’s should you expect to see passing 50ft RA
MCP SPD / VORLOC / FLARE
57
Which A/T modes permit manual thrust change without A/T interference?
THR HLD & ARM
58
If an engine failure occurs during takeoff, the pitch command target speed is:
All answers correct
59
The autopilot flare maneuver starts at approximately ____ feet RA and is completed at touchdown. :
50 feet
60
When flying on a geometric path with VNAV engaged you push SPD INTV. What will happen:
VNAV PTH will remain engaged and IAS/Mach display is unblanked showing FMC target speed.
61
LNAV automatically disconnects when:
All answers correct
62
What is the minimum altitude (RA) for selecting 'CMD' on the second autopilot during an ILS approach?
800 feet
63
The Cockpit Voice Recorder records flight deck audio for what period of time?
120 minutes or 25 hours
64
Which radio does the First Officer use in the degraded mode?
VHF-2
65
In case of degraded audio system operation:
Audio warnings for altitude alert, GPWS and wind shear are not heard.
66
Pushing the PILOT CALL switch on the External Power Connector Panel:
Sounds a single–tone chime in flight deck
67
Which of the following statements is correct with the Standby Power switch set to set to BAT?
The Standby busses are powered directly from the battery/static inverter
68
With External Ground Power connected & both IDGs & APU shutdown:
Both AC transfer busses 1 & 2 are powered by external power
69
The Ground Service Switch on the Forward Attendants Panel:
Connects External power to the Ground Service Busses
70
With the APU powering both AC transfer busses & ground power available:
APU generator breaker connected, both BTBs closed
71
One possible cause for a Generator Drive (DRIVE) Light to illuminate is:
IDG failure
72
During a fail operational dual channel ILS approach the Cross Bus Tie Relay:
Opens at G/S capture
73
During engine start the ENG VALVE CLOSED lights should be monitored to ensure:
The light extinguishes - indicating that the valve has opened
74
Fuel is heated by:
Main engine oil/fuel heat exchangers
75
For an impending hot start on the ground:
The EEC will automatically cut off the fuel and turn off the ignition for a rapid EGT rise which quickly nears or exceeds start limit on the ground
76
How are the engines supplied with fuel when no Fuel Pumps are switched on
Suction feeding occurs from the corresponding main tank
77
The EEC performs Bowed rotor motoring:
Is active for 6-90 seconds on the ground only
78
What actions are required prior to selecting the EECs to Alternate Mode?
Retard thrust levers to a mid-position
79
The engine in-flight start envelope is limited by:
Speed (IAS) and pressure altitude and may be cross bleed or windmill
80
Derated thrust is available:
For take off power and climb power settings
81
How many igniter plugs are fitted in each engine?
2
82
Thrust reversers can be selected:
When either radio altimeter senses less than 10 feet altitude combined with an air/ground safety sensor in the ground mode
83
What indications are received upon receiving REVERSER LIMITED light located on the AFT overhead panel :
MASTER CAUTION & ENG system annunciations
84
In order for the APU to operate:
APU fire switch on the overheat/fire panel must be IN, the APU fire control handle on the APU ground control panel must be IN & battery switch must be ON
85
An 'X-BLD' annunciation:
May appear above the N2 display
86
The FLT position on the ENGINE START switch provides ignition to:
Both igniters regardless of the setting of the IGNITION SELECT Switch
87
Following discharge of a cargo fire extinguisher bottle:
It may take up to 30 seconds for the fire DISCH light to illuminate
88
With an APU fire in flight:
The APU automatically shuts down but the extinguisher bottle must be operated manually
89
The master FIRE WARN lights remain illuminated:
As long as the condition exists or until either FIRE WARN light is pushed
90
The power source for engine fire extinguishing is:
The hot battery bus.
91
Pulling up the APU fire switch:
Trips the generator control relay and breaker, arms APU extinguisher bottle, closes the bleed air valve, fuel shut off valve and the APU inlet door. Dectivates the fuel solenoid.
92
Cargo Compartment Fire Extinguishing: Two fire extinguisher bottles are installed in the air conditioning mix bay on the forward wing spar. Detection of a fire in either the forward or aft compartment will cause the FWD or AFT cargo fire warning light to illuminate. The extinguishers are armed by pushing the appropriate cargo fire ARMED switch.
True
93
FLAP LOAD RELIEF:
Will operate at 167kts with Flaps at 40
94
In normal operations leading edge slats will move to the Full Extend position when the Flap Lever is moved beyond:
Flap 25
95
With the ALTERNATE FLAPS Master Switch selected to ARM, selecting DOWN momentarily using the ALTERNATE FLAPS position switch:
Fully extends LE Devices using standby hydraulic power.
96
During manual reversion in order for the standby yaw damper to operate:
Both FLT CONTROL switches must be positioned to STBY RUD
97
The Elevator Feel System:
Simulates aerodynamic forces using airspeed information from a dedicated Pitot probe & stabilizer position
98
The Flap Position Indicator:
Indicates the position of the left & right TE flaps, in addition to TE flap asymmetry and skew conditions
99
What actions interrupts an active MCAS operation?
All answers correct
100
What is Stabilizer Cross-FCC Trim Monitor protection?
The system protects against erroneous stabilizer trim commands
101
The IRS system in order to enter NAV mode from ALIGN requires the following inputs?
Aircraft Latitude and Longitudev
102
When will the PFD display IRS generated attitude information?
When the associated IRS enters the NAV mode
103
During a CAT III approach LOC and GS flags appear on the Captains PFD and also on the ISFD. This indicates:
Failure of the No 1 aircraft ILS receiver
104
What indicates that the Flight Director is not supplying valid commands?
Amber 'FD' Flag on the PFD and/or disappearance of command bars
105
Attitude data is unavailable during pre flight until IRS has completed alignment and enters NAV mode. The ATT flag:
Does not appear during normal alignment
106
If ILS deviation should occur during approach:
Localiser and/or Glideslope scales change to amber, pointer(s) flash
107
When conducting a RNAV approach using VNAV/LNAV minimums:
The fight crew manually enter 125 feet for vertical RNP
108
Which of the following will always be displayed when the ND is in the MAP mode?
Active route and tuned VOR/DME stations within the range selected
109
The FMC transitions to go-around logic when which of the following events occur:
Pushing either TO/GA switch while in a descent below 2,000 feet radio altitude
110
The first RTE page (1/X):
Displays origin and destination data
111
What does the DES NOW prompt on the PATH DES page provide?
Execution allows early initiation of a PATH descent at 1000 FPM until intercepting the idle descent path
112
The FMC Alerting Message 'VERIFY POSITION' indicates:
Position information is contradictory.
113
The FMC Advisory Message 'BUFFET ALERT' indicates:
Current conditions result in a maneuver margin less than specified.
114
Electrical power to the fuelling panel:
Is connected when the access door is opened
115
A Fuel IMBAL Indication is displayed:
Below the main tank quantity indicator with the lower fuel quantity
116
The center tank scavenge jet pump operates when:
The No.1 main fuel tank is about one-half and the main tank No.1 forward pump is operating.
117
The Fuel imbalance alert (IMBAL) will be showed when the imbalance is more than:
453 kg (1000 lbs)
118
With the Fuel LOW Alert displayed (amber):
Fuel quantity is at least less than 2000 lbs / 907 kg.
119
In flight, two fuel pumps LOW PRESSURE lights for the No.1 tank illuminate. What happens to the No.1 engine?
The engine can draw fuel from the fuel tank through a suction feed line that bypasses the pumps
120
Following the loss of Hydraulic System Pressure A:
Autopilot A is inoperative
121
Following the loss of Hydraulic System Pressure B:
Alternate Brakes are available including anti-skid protection on wheel pairs
122
The Power Transfer Unit operates automatically:
To operate the Leading Edge Devices if System B Engine Driven Pump fails
123
The Standby Hydraulic system is activated automatically:
All answers correct
124
The Standby Hydraulic System Low Pressure amber Light:
Armed only when Standby Hydraulic pump operation is activated
125
Which system powers the alternate brakes
Hydraulic system A
126
If manual braking is applied during RTO or Landing with the autobrakes already applying braking action:
Autobrakes will disengage and the AUTOBRAKE DISARM light will illuminate
127
How is in flight and ground operation controlled?
Using air/ground logic signals from six sensors, two on each landing gear
128
Hydraulic pressure is removed from the landing gear system:
By the PSEU 10 seconds after the LANDING GEAR lever is in the UP and locked position
129
Manual gear extension is achieved by:
Releasing uplocks which allow the gear to free-fall to the down and locked position
130
With the manual extension access door opened:
Landing gear retraction is not possible
131
How is limited braking provided following failure of both normal & alternate braking systems:
Hydraulic pressure trapped in the brake accumulator
132
How are alternate brakes activated?
Automatically if the normal brake system pressure drops
133
Stall warning is provided by:
By a control column shaker on each control column
134
Deviation below the glideslope is alerted by:
A BELOW G/S light in the pilots primary field of vision
135
An intermittent takeoff configuration warning horn sounds if
All answers correct
136
While flying an ILS approach 1.3 dots below glide slope, a BELOW G/S alert occurs. To cancel or inhibit the below glide slope alert:
Correcting the flight path or pushing pilot´s BELOW G/S P-INHIBIT light below 1,000 feet.
137
Which of the following is an input into the Stall Management Yaw Damper computers?
All answers correct
138
What is correct about the color on the terrain display?
Solid red – look ahead terrain warning is active
139
1. The minimum required Approach Climb Gradient is 2.1%.
Both answer 1 and 2 are correct.
140
2. Using improved climb can increase obstacle limited weight when limited by distant obstacles.
141
What is the maximum percentage of thrust reduction that can be achieved when using reduced thrust only?
0.25
142
CAT.OP.MPA.303 regulations dictate an 1.15 factor to all LDTA calculations. What does TUI add to the LDTA calculations additionally?
2 Seconds flare time (or the 500 ft equivalent) increment to all runway conditions
143
Runway 07/25 has a runway length of 2345 meters. Runway 07 has a stopway of 125 meter. Runway 25 has a clearway of 355 meter. What are the TORA, TODA and ASDA for runway 07 and runway 25?
07: 2345, 2345, 2470
144
25: 2345, 2700, 2345
145
The published Engine Failure Procedure (EFP) in OPT will _________ compliance with take-off performance regulations.
ensure
146
What is the ZFW?
60981kg
147
What is the TOW MAC%
18.4
148
It turns out that MEL item 28-22-02A (One Inoperative Center Tank Fuel Pump) is active. Under Operations (O), the following is stated:
Yes with 424kg
149
Adjust the maximum zero fuel weight by subtracting the weight of center tank fuel.
150
Provided that we have 4261 kg center tank fuel, do we need to offload pax/cargo? If yes, how much?
151
What is the Performance Limited Takeoff Weight with the above conditions?
76799kg
152
What are the V-speeds, %N1 and ACCEL HT with an actual TOW of 74350 kg, actual ZFW of 62100 kg and actual CG of 24%?
V1 142
153
VR 144
154
V2 151
155
%N1 89.8
156
ACCEL HT 810ft AGL
157
What is the maximum Performance Limited Takeoff Weight you can achieve with the PH-TFN on EHAM runway 04 under the provided environmental conditions?
79553kg
158
Use RTG optimum, IC optimum, FLAP optimum, A/I off, A/C off, CG 24
159
What is the Vref and Limit Wt?
148kt 68174kg
160
Can you land with Autobrakes 1? If yes, what is the Landing Distance Required?
2660m
161
What is the Performance Limited Takeoff Weight with the above conditions?
70063kg
162
What is the Performance Limited Takeoff Weight with the above conditions?
69545kg
B737 MAX
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