Topic 11- Integument Flashcards by Jacquie Swenson

What is the term for a collection of fluid within or below the epidermis that is greater than 1.0 cm in diameter?

Bulla

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A thickened, often pigmented, and hyperkeratotic plaque that occurs in areas of chronic pressure trauma or friction is known as a ____.

Callus.

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What is the term for a cystically dilated, keratin-filled hair follicle, characteristically seen in Schnauzer comedo syndrome?

Comedo

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A special type of loose scale arranged in a circular pattern, representing a ruptured pustule or papule, is called an _____.

Epidermal collarette

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What is the term for a non-raised lesion less than 1.0 cm in diameter where the color differs from the surrounding skin?

Macule.

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A solid, circumscribed elevation in the skin that is less than 1 cm in diameter is called a ____.

Papule

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What is the term for a fluid-filled blister less than 1.0 cm in diameter?

Vesicle

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An epidermal collarette, a circular pattern of loose scale, typically represents a ruptured _____ or _____ from bacterial folliculitis.

Pustule papule

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What is an eschar?

A thick crust that forms in association with an ulcer and is tightly adherent to the skin.

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What is the term for an exaggeration of normal skin markings, resulting from long-standing surface trauma, that is often hyperpigmented?

Lichenification

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What is the difference between a macule and a patch?

See answer
A macule is a non-raised lesion <1.0 cm in diameter, while a patch is a macule >1.0 cm in diameter.

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Solid, circumscribed elevations in the skin that are <1 cm in diameter are called _____.

papules

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What is a pustule?

A gross or microscopic accumulation in the skin filled with inflammatory cells, usually neutrophils or eosinophils.

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How is ‘scale’ defined in dermatology?

A flat plate of stratum corneum.

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A fluid-filled blister <1.0 cm in diameter is known as a _____.

Vesicle

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What is a wheal?

A firm, circumscribed, raised elevation in the skin composed of oedema, which is often erythematous.

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In the congenital disease Epitheliogenesis Imperfecta, what is the underlying mechanism?

A failure of the stratified squamous epithelium of the skin, adnexa, and/or oral mucosa to develop completely.

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What is the primary mechanism of Epidermolysis Bullosa?

Poor cohesion of the epidermis and dermis due to genetic defects in structural components at the basement membrane zone.

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The congenital skin disease _____ is characterized by genetic mutations leading to excessive production of the stratum corneum, resulting in marked scaling.

Ichthyosis

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What is the mechanism behind Collagen Dysplasia?

Genetic mutations affecting collagen synthesis or processing, leading to structurally abnormal dermal collagen with decreased tensile strength.

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What are the key clinical findings in an animal with Collagen Dysplasia?

Skin that tears easily, is hyperextensible and loose, and the presence of numerous scars, seromas, or hematomas.

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What two adaptive tissue responses are seen with chronic pruritus, leading to thickening and darkening of the skin?

Lichenification and hyperpigmentation.

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Describe the basic mechanism of a Type I Hypersensitivity reaction upon re-exposure to an allergen.

The allergen binds to IgE on sensitized mast cells, causing them to degranulate and release histamine and other inflammatory mediators.

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Atopic Dermatitis is considered a clinical syndrome because its signs can be associated with multiple underlying causes, not just a single disease. True or false?

True, it is a clinical syndrome with complex and multifactorial causes including genetics, barrier defects, and immune response.

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What is the primary mechanism of pruritus in Environmental Atopic Dermatitis?

Allergen exposure leads to IgE production, mast cell degranulation, and release of inflammatory mediators like histamine and IL-31.

List three of the eight clinical criteria for diagnosing canine atopic dermatitis.

Any three of: onset <3 years, dog lives mostly indoors, pruritus responds to glucocorticoids, pruritus without lesions at onset, affected front feet, affected ear pinnae, non-affected ear margins, non-affected lumbodorsal area.

What is miliary dermatitis, a common reaction pattern in Feline Atopic Skin Syndrome (FASS)?

A dermatitis characterized by small (1-2 mm), papulo-crusted lesions that can be local or generalized Felin atopic skin syndrome

What is pyotraumatic dermatitis, also known as a 'hot spot'?

A lesion formed in atopic dogs when pyoderma occurs secondary to pruritus-induced self-trauma, resulting in a red, moist region of skin.

The vast majority of pyodermas are considered _____ to underlying cutaneous, endocrine, or immunologic abnormalities.

secondary

What is the primary pathogen responsible for pyoderma in dogs?

Staphylococcus pseudintermedius.

Deep pyoderma involves follicular rupture, which releases hair and keratin into the dermis, triggering what type of inflammatory reaction?

An endogenous foreign body reaction

What is the causative agent of 'Greasy Pig Disease' (Exudative Epidermitis)?

Staphlococcus hyicus subsp. hyicus

Dermatophilosis, or 'rain scald,' is caused by what type of organism?

The actinomycete bacterium Dermatophilus congolensis.

What two factors are most important in the pathogenesis of Dermatophilosis?

Trauma to the skin and prolonged wetting.

What yeast is the primary cause of Malassezia dermatitis in dogs and cats?

Malassezia pachydermatis.

Flea allergy dermatitis (FAD) is mediated by what two types of hypersensitivity reactions to flea saliva?

Type I (immediate) and Type IV (delayed) hypersensitivity.

What is the typical lesion distribution for flea allergy dermatitis in dogs

The dorsum and caudal thighs.

What is the causative agent of sarcoptic mange (scabies)?

The mite Sarcoptes scabiei.

What is a characteristic feature of sarcoptic mange in dogs?

The sudden onset of intense pruritus in one or more localized areas that enlarges over time.

How does an erosion differ from an ulcer?

An erosion is a defect of the epidermis that does not penetrate the basement membrane, while an ulcer is a deeper defect that extends into the dermis.

Pemphigus diseases are mediated by a Type _____ hypersensitivity reaction, where autoantibodies target cell-to-cell adhesion molecules in the epidermis

What is a key cytological finding in a pustule from a patient with Pemphigus Foliaceus (PF)?

The presence of acanthocytes (detached, rounded keratinocytes).

Lupus Erythematosus is an example of a disease mediated by _____ hypersensitivity, involving the deposition of antigen-antibody complexes in tissues.

What is the most common clinical manifestation of cutaneous lupus in dogs?

Discoid lupus, which presents as a nasal dermatitis with depigmentation, erythema, erosion, and crusting.

The clinical signs of vasculitis reflect a vascular disturbance, leading acutely to hemorrhage and chronically to _____.

Ischemia

Erythema multiforme (EM) and toxic epidermal necrolysis (TEN) are drug reactions caused by a misdirected cell-mediated (Type _____) hypersensitivity response against keratinocytes.

What is a characteristic gross lesion of Erythema Multiforme (EM)?

Target-like lesions (circular areas of erythema that disappear centrally).

Feline herpesvirus-1 (FHV-1) infection can cause dermatitis, usually localized to the face, making it an important differential for what common feline allergic reaction pattern?

Head and neck pruritus.

What is the pathogenesis of Ergotism?

Ingested toxic alkaloids induce marked peripheral vasoconstriction and endothelial damage, leading to thrombosis and ischemic necrosis of distal tissues.

What is the fundamental mechanism of photosensitization?

A photodynamic chemical in the skin absorbs long-wavelength UV light, releasing reactive oxygen species that cause cellular injury and death.

In Type III (hepatogenous) photosensitization, what substance, formed from the breakdown of chlorophyll, accumulates due to impaired liver function?

Phylloerythrin

Solar or actinic dermatitis lesions are grossly similar to other causes of chronic skin irritation. What two clinical clues are crucial for diagnosis?

The distribution of lesions (e.g., light-skinned areas, ventrum) and a lack of significant pruritus.

What is the key difference between inflammatory alopecia (e.g., folliculitis) and non-inflammatory alopecia (e.g., endocrinopathy)?

Inflammatory alopecia involves damage to the hair follicle from an inflammatory process, while non-inflammatory alopecia involves a disruption in the hair growth cycle without primary inflammation.

Dermatophytosis (ringworm) lesions are due to inflammation stimulated by fungal antigen, causing folliculitis and often presenting as circular, scaly patches of _____.

alopecia

Generalized demodicosis in adult dogs is often associated with what type of underlying conditions?

Underlying metabolic disorders (like hypothyroidism or hyperadrenocorticism) or immunosuppressive drug therapy.

What are the typical clinical features of endocrine dermatopathies?

A dry, coarse, dull haircoat; hypotrichosis; hyperpigmentation; and bilaterally symmetrical, non-pruritic alopecia.

What is color-dilution alopecia?

A type of follicular dysplasia occurring in breeds with a color-dilute coat (e.g., blue, fawn), leading to generalized thinning of the coat and hair loss.

What is the clinical term used to describe excessive scaling of the skin, which can be dry or greasy?

Seborrhoea.

Zinc-responsive dermatosis is characterized by erythema, alopecia, and thick, adherent crusts. What is the key histological feature?

Parakeratosis

Acquired hyperpigmentation is a common post-inflammatory change due to inflammatory mediators upregulating _____ synthesis.

melanin

What is the term for firm swellings, nodules, abscesses, and draining tracts of the mandible or maxilla in cattle, caused by Actinomyces bovis?

lumpy jaw

Cutaneous Pythiosis in horses typically affects areas exposed to what environmental condition?

Stagnant water or aquatic vegetation.

Cutaneous Habronemiasis in horses is caused by the larvae of Habronema or Draschia spp., which are deposited on traumatized skin by what vectors?

House or stable flies.

What is the characteristic sequence of cutaneous lesions caused by Poxviruses?

Macule to papule to vesicle to umbilicated pustule to crust to scar.

What is the cause of Lumpy Skin Disease in cattle?

A poxvirus

Equine sarcoids are locally aggressive, non-metastatic fibroblastic skin tumors associated with which type of virus?

Bovine Papillomavirus (BPV-1, BPV-2, BPV-13).

What is the most common malignant skin tumor in dogs?

Mast Cell Tumor (MCT).

A young dog presents with a smooth, pink, raised 'button tumor' on its head that may regress spontaneously. What is the most likely diagnosis

Canine cutaneous histocytoma

What is the primary factor used to differentiate a benign melanocytoma from a malignant melanoma histologically?

The mitotic count.

Solar exposure is a risk factor for the development of what two common mesenchymal tumors in light-skinned, short-haired dogs?

Haemangioma and Haemangiosarcoma.

Soft Tissue Sarcomas (STS) are poorly circumscribed and often have microscopic _____ that extend beyond the visible margins, necessitating wide surgical excision.

tendrils

What is an infiltrative lipoma?

A benign, non-metastatic tumor of adipocytes that is locally invasive with intramuscular infiltration.

What is the most common hyperplastic lesion seen in horses, which occurs in deep wounds?

Proud flesh (exuberant granulation tissue).

Under what circumstance should a nodular dermatosis always be biopsied?

All nodular dermatoses, including those suspected to be neoplastic, are an indication for biopsy.

Topic 11- Integument Flashcards

(75 cards)