1
Q
- The source of antibody heterogeneity is:
a. gene rearrangement in the peripheral immune organs
b. gene rearrangement in the central immune organs
c. gene insertion in the fetus
d. hereditary mutation
A
b. gene rearrangement in the central immune organs
2
Q
- What is the most common cause of acute haemolytic transfusion reaction?
a. bacterial contamination
b. ABO errors
c. Antibodies to the antigens of the Kell system
d. RhD negative patient transfused with RhD positive red blood cells
A
b. ABO errors
3
Q
- Regarding platelet transfusion, anti-HLA antibodies play a key role in the development of
a. posttransfusion infection
b. refractoriness to platelet transfusions
c. posttransfusion purpura
d. neonatal alloimmune thrombocytopenia (NAIT)
A
b. refractoriness to platelet transfusions
4
Q
- Which is the most common type of genetic variants among blood group antigens?
a. frameshift
b. splice site
c. large deletion
d. single nucleotide polymorpisns (SNP)
A
d. single nucleotide polymorpisns (SNP)
5
Q
- Who should be deferred from blood donation?
a. Actually febrile donors
b. Persons just returning from the Zika-endemic areas
c. All of the above
d. Persons who disclose iv. Drug use
A
c. All of the above
6
Q
- Obligatory donor screening test in all developed countries EXCEPT:
a. Lues ( syphilis)
b. Hepatitis B (Ag, Ab or both)
c. HIV
d. Hepatic enzyme levels (ALAT, ASAT) or serum bilirubin
A
d. Hepatic enzyme levels (ALAT, ASAT) or serum bilirubin
7
Q
- Which of the following are accepted definitions of “massive blood loss”?
a. Blood loss of ≥ 150ml/min
b. Replacement of 50% of TBV within 3 hours
c. Transfusion rate ≥ units within a 24h period
d. Replacement of 100% of total blood volume (TBV) within 24h
A
a. Blood loss of ≥ 150ml/min
8
Q
- Platelets can be transfused regardless of donor RhD
a. a pregnant women with eclampsia
b. a young man aged 22
c. a woman of childbearing age
d. a twelve-year old girl
A
b. a young man aged 22
9
Q
- The transfusion related immunomodulation (TRIM)..
a. is always harmful for the patient, because it is related to higher incidence of tumor recurrence
b. has no clinical significance since the universal leukoreduction has been implemented all over
c. Is always beneficial for the patient, because it is related to better graft survival
d. Can be either beneficial or harmful, depending on the clinical situation
A
d. Can be either beneficial or harmful, depending on the clinical situation
10
Q
- The most common inherited bleeding disorder
a. factor XI deficiency
b. Haemophilia A
c. Von Willebrand’s disease
d. Factor VII deficiency
A
c. Von Willebrand’s disease
11
Q
- The most likely source of Yersinia contamination of a red blood cell unit is
a. The skin flora of the donor
b. Transient asymptomatic donor bacteremia
c. Contamiation of the plastic bag
d. The skin flora of the laboratory staff
A
b. Transient asymptomatic donor bacteremia
12
Q
- Advantages of the subcutaneous immunoglobulin substitution, EXCEPT:
a. Can be used in patients without available veins
b. Lack of local side effects
c. Results in higher IgG trough levels
d. Can be advantageous in IgA deficiency
A
b. Lack of local side effects
13
Q
- MHC (HLA) class I complex
a. Is expressed on lymphocytes, dendritic cells and red blood cells
b. Is expressed on macrophages, dendritic cells and red blood cells
c. Is expressed in all nucleated cells
d. Is expressed on macrophages, dendritic cells and lymphocytes
A
c. Is expressed in all nucleated cells
14
Q
- The transfusion related immunomodulation (TRIM) is associated with
a. The living leukocytes transfused by the blood product
b. Soluble factors released during storage
c. Soluble HLA molecules
d. All the above
A
d. All the above
15
Q
- Possible way to collect more plasma for fractionation than whole blood donation
a. To collect more than 450ml whole blood from donors
b. Plasmapheresis
c. To increase the centrifugal force “g” for the better separation in the blood bag
d. Red cell apheresis
A
b. Plasmapheresis
16
Q
- A person of unknown ABO/RhD type should be transfused with
a. RhD negative red blood cells and ABO fresh frozen plasma
b. RhD positive red blood cells and ABO fresh frozen plasma
c. RhD negative red blood cells and O fresh frozen plasma
d. RhD positive red blood cells and O fresh frozen plasma
A
a. RhD negative red blood cells and ABO fresh frozen plasma
17
Q
- Characteristic for intravenous immunoglobulin products; except
a. Contains stabilizer
b. 5 or 10% IgG concentration
c. Produced from pooled plasma of a few thousand blood donors
d. High IgG aggregate content
A
c. Produced from pooled plasma of a few thousand blood donors
18
Q
- Common donor eligibility criteria; except
a. Level of education (secondary school or higher)
b. Weight (eg. More than 50kg)
c. Defined hemoglobin level
d. Age (eg. 18-66 years)
A
a. Level of education (secondary school or higher)
19
Q
- The immunogenicity of a red cell antigen indicates
a. Its potency to give marked in vitro reactions
b. Its vulnerability to proteolytic enzymes
c. Its frequency in the population
d. Its potency to induce the production of an alloantibody in an individual for the giv..
A
d. Its potency to induce the production of an alloantibody in an individual for the giv..
20
Q
- The window period of an infection is a time period
a. When there is a 100% safety that the person cannot transmit infections
b. When both antigens and antibodies reach their peak levels
c. When antigens are already cleared but antibodies are not produced yet
d. When the viral nucleic acids are absent
A
c. When antigens are already cleared but antibodies are not produced yet
21
Q
- Which is the maximum benefit that can be expected from a directed blood donation?
a. A family member with hepatitis can be identified
b. Higher safety compared to the general donor pool
c. The donating family member may become a regular donor
d. Family members can learn more about their risks for HIV infection
A
a. A family member with hepatitis can be identified
22
Q
- Commonly applied treatments in excessive menstrual bleeding caused by von Willebrand disease except
a. oral tranexamic acid
b. recombinant VIII factor products
c. haemate p factor replacement therapy
d. 3. Generation oral contraceptives
A
b. recombinant VIII factor products
23
Q
- Passenger leukocytes are responsible for all of the following adverse events except
a. hemolysis
b. non-hemolytic febrile reaction
c. anaphylaxia
d. human leukocyte antigens (HLA) immunization
A
c. anaphylaxia
24
Q
- Benefits of autologous blood transfusion except
a. purity, no risk of transmitted disease
b. urgency, available also in urgent situations
c. safety, no risk of transfusion reactions due to incompatibility
d. availability in contrast with donor blood, autologous blood is instantly available and requires.
A
b. urgency, available also in urgent situations
25
25. Which blood group is determined by a transferase
a. ABO blood group
b. KELL blood group
c. Duffy blood group
d. RhD blood group
a. ABO blood group
26
26. Indications for intraoperative cell salvage in adults and children except
a. major hemorrhage
b. patients with rare blood groups or multiple blood group antibodies
c. surgery where the anticipated blood loss is <20% of the patients estimated blood volume
d. elective or emergency surgery in patients with risk factors for bleeding
c. surgery where the anticipated blood loss is <20% of the patients estimated blood volume
27
27. Which is not characteristic for subcutaneous immunoglobulin substitution treatment
a. Systemic side effects are infrequent
b. Can be applied at home
c. Can be used only with infusion pump
d. ??
c. Can be used only with infusion pump
28
28. Which of the following statements is NOT true?
a. Syphilis can be transmitted by transfusion
b. Transfusion related bacterial infections are more often related to platelet products than to red blood cell
transfuse...
c. Blood products with bacterial contamination do not always cause severe infections
d. Transfusion related bacterial infections and hemolytic reactions cause completely different clinical
symptoms
d. Transfusion related bacterial infections and hemolytic reactions cause completely different clinical
symptoms
29
30. Transfusion associated graft versus host disease can be prevented by
a. leukoreduction of the blood components
b. washing the red blood cells
c. freezing thawing of preparation
d. irradiation with a minimum dose of 25 Gy
d. irradiation with a minimum dose of 25 Gy
30
31. The positive selection means
a. all macrophages are surviving in lymph nodes if recognizing self antigens
b. all macrophages surviving in lymph nodes if not recognizing self MHC
c. All T-cells are killed in thymus if not recognizing self MHC
d. All T-cells are killed in the thymus if not recognizing self antigens
c. All T-cells are killed in thymus if not recognizing self MHC
31
32. What is the most common cause of acute hemolytic transfusion reactions?
a. ABO errors
b. Bacterial contamination
c. Antibodies to the antigens of the Kell system
d. RhD negative patient transfused with RhD positive red blood cells
a. ABO errors
32
33. The optimal rate of blood donation activity (donation/inhabitants)
a. 3%
b. 5%
c. 10%
d. 7%
b. 5%
33
34. The most widespread screening tests to prevent transfusion transmitted infections are:
a. PCR for hepatitis A,B,C,D and E viruses and anti-HIV
b. Anti-Hb’s, anti-HAV, zikavirus PCR, anti HCV, influenza serology
c. HBeAg, anti-HBe, anti-HCV, anti-HIV, syphilis serology (VDRL), EBV PCR
d. HBsAg, anti HBc, anti-HCV, Anti HIV, HCV PCR, Syphilis serology (VDRL)
d. HBsAg, anti HBc, anti-HCV, Anti HIV, HCV PCR, Syphilis serology (VDRL)
34
35. The immunogenicity of a red blood cell antigen indicates:
a. Its potency to induce the production of an alloantibody in an individual negative for the given antigen
b. Its frequency in the population
c. Its vulnerability to proteolytic enzymes
d. Its potency to give marked in vitro reactions
a. Its potency to induce the production of an alloantibody in an individual negative for the given antigen
35
36. Who discovered the ABO blood group system?
a. Edward Schwartz and Kristof Novak
b. Karl Landsteiner
c. Joul Behringer
d. Lisa Anaphylax
b. Karl Landsteiner
36
37. Blood transfusion for a potential organ transplant recipient...?
a. ...is contraindicated, because the immunosuppression amplifies the risk of transmission of infections by blood
products
b. ...can be performed only by leukoreduced blood products
c. ...is obligatory before registration for a transplant waiting list, because the graft survival of all transfused
patients is better
d. ...should be indicated after a thorough consideration, because the risk of harmful HLA sensitization or the
potential graft survival advantage is not predictable
d. ...should be indicated after a thorough consideration, because the risk of harmful HLA sensitization or the
potential graft survival advantage is not predictable
37
38. Which of the following statements are true about volunteer and paid donors?
a. Both types of donations carry equally high risk
b. Patients receiving blood products from volunteer donors carry higher risk of transmitted infections
c. Patients receiving blood products from paid donors carry higher risk of transmitted infections
d. In our days, both types of donations are completely free from infectious risk
c. Patients receiving blood products from paid donors carry higher risk of transmitted infections
38
39. The most frequent cause of serious lethal transfusion associated adverse events:
a. Infections transmitted by blood transfusions
b. TRALI
c. Incorrect blood component transfused
d. Acute transfusion reactions
b. TRALI
39
40. What is the complication that is less likely if HLA-match is perfect in hematopoetic stem cell transplantation?
a. mucositis
b. fungal infection
c. polyneuropathia
d. GVHD
d. GVHD
40
41. What are the most important characteristics of tissue stem cells?
a. unlimited lifespan and plasticity
b. unlimited proliferation capability and plasticity
c. self-preservation and differentiation capability
d. unlimited lifespan and proliferation capability
c. self-preservation and differentiation capability
41
42. Which therapeutic approach is inappropriate in patients with common variable immunodeficiency (CIVD)?
a. Subcutaneous immunoglobulin substitution
b. Interferon gamma
c. Targeted antibiotic treatment
d. Intravenous immunoglobulin substitution
b. Interferon gamma
42
43. The primary immune organs are:
a. Bone marrow and spleen
b. Spleen and thymus
c. Bone marrow and skin
d. Bone marrow and thymus
d. Bone marrow and thymus
43
44. The T-cell receptors are consisting of:
a. Two variable chains
b. One variable and one constant chain
c. Two variable and two constant chains
d. Four variable chains
c. Two variable and two constant chains
44
45. Which alleles are not inherited in a co-dominant way?
a. RhD blood group: D and d
b. Duffy blood group: Py-a and Py-b
c. RhCE blood group: C and c
d. ABO blood group: A and
a. RhD blood group: D and d
45
46. Which type of transplantation has the greatest requirement of blood?
a. Kidney
b. Heart
c. Lungs
d. Liver
d. Liver
46
47. Anemia tolerance is independent of (NO IDEA.)
a. Age
b. The speed of anemia ...
c. Sex
d. The severity of anemia
b. The speed of anemia ...
47
48. Cross-match prior to kidney transplantation allows
a. The selection of optimal immunosuppression after transplant
b. The exclusion of donor related infections
c. The prevention of hyperacute rejection
d. The proper evaluation of recipient immune status
c. The prevention of hyperacute rejection
48
49. The risk of transfusion related potassium toxicity can be decreased by
a. Warming the RBC product to body temperature
b. Freezing the RBC product
c. Utilizing fresh (not older than 1 week) RBC product
d. irradiation
c. Utilizing fresh (not older than 1 week) RBC product
49
50. Disease frequently causing platelet function alterations, except
a. Uraemia
b. Paraproteinanemia
c. Hyperuricaemia (gout)
d. Liver failure
c. Hyperuricaemia (gout)
50
51. Risk of HCV transmission can be decreased by, EXCEPT:
a. Leukoreduction (filtering)
b) Application of centrifugation techinques for production
c) utilizing early HCV seronegative donors
d) deferreal of high risk donors
b) Application of centrifugation techinques for production
51
52. Expectation towards responding solution during blood product generation
a) decreases protein content of the preparation
b) decrease allo- antigen expression of RBC
c) decreae WBC contamination by cell lysis induction
d) allow hematocrit adjustment
b) decrease allo- antigen expression of RBC
52
53. Indications for albumin support, except
a) autoimmune hemolytic anemia
b) plasmapheresis
c) severe burns
d) nephrosis syndrome
a) autoimmune hemolytic anemia
53
54. MHC (HLA) class ll molecules are expressed
a) Red blood cells
b) fibroblast
c) platelets
d) dendritic cell
d) dendritic cell
54
55. Options for living donations, Except:
a) genetic factors
b) emotional relative
c) donor with notarized contract
d) participant of a cross-over donation
b) emotional relative
55
56. What is the mechanism by which mesenchymal stem cells enhance the regeneration of damaged tissue?
a) synthesis of trophic and/or anti-apoptotic factors
b) oxygen transport to the site of damage
c) synthesis of pre-coagualation factors
d) replacement of damaged cells of affected tissue.
d) replacement of damaged cells of affected tissue.
56
57. Primary function of the MHC (HLA) system
a) Apoptosis induction
b) facitliating cell-cell interaction thrugh binding to integrin proteins
c) antigen presentation
d) activation of allo-reactive NK cells
c) antigen presentation
57
58. The advantages of intraoperative cell salvages, except
a) low level of 2,3 DPG
b) lower risk for infectious diseases
c) functionally ...superior. Cells?
d) Normothermic
a) low level of 2,3 DPG
58
59. A potential donor should be deferred in case, except:
a) of fever
b) of a previous blood donation, 6 months earlier
c) of realistic likelihood of IV drug use
d) of pregnancy
b) of a previous blood donation, 6 months earlier
59
60. Potential cause of ineffective RBC transfusion, except?
a) significant splenomegaly
b) auto or allo immune hemolysis
c) acute autoimmune disease
d) continuous presence of blood loss
c) acute autoimmune disease
60
61. Preferred safe donor population for blood donation
a) foreign people (rare blood types)
b) voluntary non-remunerated donors
c) paid, repeat donors
d) friends, relatives (for the safer donation)
b) voluntary non-remunerated donors
61
62. Appropriate therapy against citrate toxicity
a) Potassium chloride
b) sodium bicarbonate
c) calcium gluconate
d) calcium carbonate
c) calcium gluconate
62
63. the following technique for unstable blood product allows lower than 1 x 106 WBC/unit
a) centifucation technique
b) buffy coat technique
c) apheresisis technique
d) heat treatment technique
c) apheresisis technique
63
64. in massive bleeding, the factor that the soonest reaches critical levels
a) Factor v
b) Factor Vll
c) Prothrombin
d) Fibrinogen
d) Fibrinogen
64
65. Regarding platelet transfusion, anti HLA antibodies play a key role in the development of.
a) posttransfusion purpura
b) neonatal alloimmune thrombocytopenia (nAIT)
c) refractoriness to platelet transfusion
d) posttransfusion infection
c) refractoriness to platelet transfusion
65
66. Which phenotype is caused by an inactive Abo glycocosil transferase ?
a) AB
b) B
c) A
d) O
d) O
66
67. What is the minimal frequency of heart rate control during transfusion
a) Following the transfusion
b) Prior and after each unit transfused
c) Every 15 min
d) The frequency is dependent on the actual condition of the patient
b) Prior and after each unit transfused
67
68. The person should be deferred from blood donation, except
a) Persons just returning from zika endemic areas
b) Actually febrile diseases
c) Regularly plasma donation
d) Persons who disclose IV drug use.
c) Regularly plasma donation
68
69. structurally carbohydrate blood group antigen
a) Kidd
b) HBO
C) H
C) H
69
70. Which autoimmune disease has the strongest correlation to HLA antigens?
a. Celiac disease
b. Familial hyperlipidemia
c. Hypercholesterolemia
d. ...
a. Celiac disease
70
71. Put the key events in blood transfusion in order
(fnd the alternatve where the following are arranged in the right order)
a. Donor
b. Recipient
c. Outcome
d. Product
e. Diagnostcs
f. Screening
(Donor – Screening – Product – diagnostic – Recipient – outcome)
Donor -> product -> recipient -> outcome
71
72. What is the HLA-Haplotype:
a) The group of HLA alleles physically linked on a single chromosome.
b) Special characteristic of immature system cells
c) The collection of specific platelet antigens
d) Immunological signal transduction molecules linked to each other.
a) The group of HLA alleles physically linked on a single chromosome.
72
73. What is the disease that has a marked component of HLA association?
a) Gastro esophageal reflux disease
b) Pancreas carcinoma
c) Coeliakia (gluten sensitive enteropathies)
d) Familial hypercholesterolaemia
c) Coeliakia (gluten sensitive enteropathies)
73
74. What is the approach to restore haemostasis after a loss of 100% of blood volume?
A) Red blood cells + Fresh Frozen plasma + Factors (ll + Vll + LX + X + Fibrinogen +/- platelets
B) RBC + Factor (LL, VLL, IX, X, Fibrinogen)
C) Red blood cell transfusion
D) Red blood cells + fresh frozen plasma + platelets
A) Red blood cells + Fresh Frozen plasma + Factors (ll + Vll + LX + X + Fibrinogen +/- platelets
74
75. The source of antibody heterogeneity is:
d) Gene rearrangement in the central immune organs
75
76. Common donor eligibility criteria, except
a) Weight, more than 50kg
b) Defined hemoglobin level
c) Level of education
d) Age (18-66)
c) Level of education
76
77. In case of bone marrow failure, how much blood should be transfused?
a) 1 bag of RBC per week
b) 2 bags of RBC per week
c) 1 bag per month
d) 2 bags per month
a) 1 bag of RBC per week
77
78. What is the difference between IgG and IgM?
a. IgM cant cross placenta while IgG can
b. IgG cant cross placenta while IgM can
IgM cant cross placenta while IgG can
78
79. Symptoms of TACO (transfusion associated circulatory overload) except:
a. Hypoxia (True)
b. Bradyarrhytmia
c. Jugular venous distension (True)
d. Dyspnea and moist sounds above lungs on oscultation
b. Bradyarrhytmia
79
80. Sign of brain death (something like that.)
a. No corneal Reflex
b. Babinski sign
c. Loss of pain sensation
d. ...?
a. No corneal Reflex
80
81. What is the function of the Rh on RBC?
a. Protein that holds together RBC membrane
b. Protein that presents antigens on RBC membrane
c. Receptor for antibodies on RBC membrane
a. Protein that holds together RBC membrane
81
82. When should we monitor blood pressure ..(in transfused
patient).. nobody knows.
a. 15min everino
b. Before and after transfusion
c. ..
d. ..
b. Before and after transfusion
82
83. Who can undergo autologous blood transfusion, except:
a. Above 45,
b. Age >18
c. Woman who was pregnant before ß this or
d. .. ß that
??
83
84. What is synthesized by the endothelium?
a. Von Willebrand + NO + Signal Protein ERK5
84
85. How much does 1 unit of RBC increase the HG level approximately?
a. 1g/dl
b. 10g/dl
c. 1mg/ dl
d. 10mg/dl
a. 1g/dl
85
89. Which transplanted organ needs the highest amount of O2?
a. Heart
b. Lung
c. Kidney
d. Liver
c. Kidney
86
90. Which antigen is Carbohydrate (something like that)?
a. Kid
b. Rh
c. H
d. ...
c. H
87
91. Most frequent main diagnosis for cadaveric ( deceased) donors
Select one:
Cerebrovascular attack
Polytrauma
Acute myocardial infarction
Peripheral vascular disease
Cerebrovascular attack
88
92. Regarding platelet transfusion anti-HLA antibodies play a key role on the development of
Select one:
Posttransfusion purpura
Neonatal alloimmune thrombocytopenia (NAIT)
Refractoriness to platelet transfusions
Posttransfusion infection
Refractoriness to platelet transfusions
89
93. The most favourable donor population Select one:
repeat donors with remuneration
representatives of minority groups
patient relatives, friends
voluntary donors without remuneration
voluntary donors without remuneration
90
94. Important information in the history with respect to allo immunization
Select one
Previous pregnancies and their proceess
Oonurence of autoimmune
Number of siblings
Occpation
Previous pregnancies and their proceess
91
95. Which of the following symptoms require urgent therapy for a patient with delayed haemolytic transfusion
reaction ?
a. Mild jaundice
b. Shivering
c. Oliguria
s A slight elevation of body temperature( 37.5℃)
c. Oliguria
92
96. Role of the glycoprotein IIb/IIIa in hemostasis:
Select one:
a. Its deficiency causes Bernard-Soulier disease
b. Binds fibrinogen allowing platelet-platelet binding
c. It binds von Willebrand factor allowing platelet adhesion
d. It binds to subendothelial collagen
b. Binds fibrinogen allowing platelet-platelet binding
93
97. Dynamic testing options of the coagulation system:
Select one:
a. Viscoelastic tests (TEG, ROTEM)
b. International normalized ratio (INR), activated factor X levels
c. Prothrombin time, activated partial thromboplastin time (APTT)
d. Fibrinogen, antithrombin III levels
a. Viscoelastic tests (TEG, ROTEM)
94
98. Function of the Rh blood group proteins
Select one:
a. Complement inactivation
b. Cell-cell contact receptor
c. Gas transporter (transports CO2 or NH3)
d. ATPase
c. Gas transporter (transports CO2 or NH3)
95
99. Complications with increased risk after the transfusion of long-stored (old) red blood cell concentrate, EXCEPT:
Select one:
a. Hyperkalemia, potassium toxicity
b. Citrate toxicity
c. Hypocalcemia
d. Circulatory overload
d. Circulatory overload
96
100. Diagnostic tests to be performed on the cadaver donor to facilitate transplantation, EXCEPT:
Select one:
a. Blood group determination
b. HLA-typing
c. Virus diagnostics: HIV, HBC, HCV testing
d. CT-angiography
d. CT-angiography
97
101. What is the treatment of post transfusion purpura (PTP):
High dose IVIG (this is the 1st choice, other can be plasmapheresis and corticosteroids)
98
102. What can happen if you transfuse unwarm blood, EXCEPT:
Select one:
a. Hemolysis
b. Cardiac arrest
c. Poor coagulation
d. Hyperkalemia
a. Hemolysis
99
103. What are the signs of hemolysis, EXCEPT:
Select one:
a. Hyperkalemia
b. Hypocalcemia
c. Acidosis
d. Alkalosis
d. Alkalosis
100
104. Pathomechanism of hyperacute reaction, EXCEPT:
Select one:
a. Normal cytotoxic T cells
b. IgA
c. Complement
d. Cytokines from macrophages
a. Normal cytotoxic T cells
101
105. MHC type I receptors are present, EXCEPT:
Select one:
a. Monocytes
b. Platelets
c. Dendritic cells
d. Trophoblasts
d. Trophoblasts
102
106. Pathomechanism of transfusion-related acute lung injury (TRALI):
Select one:
a. Massive occlusion of pulmonary microvessels and causing lung damage
b. Caused by the recipient’s antibody with mast cell activation
c. Neutrophil-mediated endothelial damage
d. Activation of the cytotoxic T cell causing lung damage
c. Neutrophil-mediated endothelial damage
103
107. Consequences of traumatic massive bleeding, EXCEPT:
Select one:
a. Alkalosis
b. Acidosis
a. Alkalosis
104
108. What is the reason for post transfusion purpura?
Consumption coagulopathy
105
120. Potential complications of massive transfusion:
Hyponatremia
Hyperthermia
Citrate toxicity
Hypovolemia
Citrate toxicity
106
121. Acute hemolytic transfusion reaction (AHTR) can develop in the presence of
a. A complement binding allo-antibodies
b. Unaltereg IgA production capacity
c. Intact cytokine reaction of macrophages
d. Normal cytotoxic T cell function
a. A complement binding allo-antibodies
107
122. Characteristic element of the pathomechanism of post transfusion purpura
a. impairment of platelet aggregation and release functions
b. allo-antibody against platelet antigens
c. increased consumption of clotting factors
d. increased dilution of clotting factors
b. allo-antibody against platelet antigens
108
123.The risk of transfusion related hemosiderosis is increased in
a. Beta thalassemia major
b. Hereditary hemochromatosis
c. Paroxysmal nocturnal hemoglobin
d. Hereditary spherocytosis
a. Beta thalassemia major
109
124. Which components are indicated for transfusion in case of 100% blood loss.
a. RBC
b. RBC + FFP
c. RBC + FFP + coagulation factors II, V, VII, IX, X
d. RBC + FFP + coagulation factors II, V, VII, IX, X + platelets
d. RBC + FFP + coagulation factors II, V, VII, IX, X + platelets
110
125. What do you give to someone who needs 100% blood?
a. RBC
b. RBC + plasma
c. RBC + plasma +/- platelets
d. RBC + plasma + fibrinogen +/- platelets
d. RBC + plasma + fibrinogen +/- platelets
111
126. approximate effect on hemoglobin level of 1 unit RBC concentrate in a healthy adult with average body weight
without blood loss?
a. approx. 7-8g/dL
b. approx. 1g/dl
c. approx. 5g/dl
d. approx.2-3g/dl
b. approx. 1g/dl
