True Learn Flashcards

(82 cards)

1
Q

Criterion-related validity in which an interpretation is justified by comparing a measurement to a “gold standard” measurement at approximately the same time.

A

Concurrent validity

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2
Q

Assessment of whether an instrument measures all areas that might be included in a given theoretical concept.

A

Content validity

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3
Q

Degree to which a theoretical construct is measured by a test or measurement.

A

construct validity

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4
Q

Subjective assessment that determines whether a test appears to measure what it is supposed to be measuring.

A

Face validity

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5
Q

What is a reason that a patient with a prosthetic may experience excessive hip drop?

A

prosthetic that is too short

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6
Q

What happens to gait when a patient with a prosthetic has a lateral leaning pylon?

A

positions the foot more medially, causing them to walk with narrow-based gait pattern

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7
Q

What are two reasons that a patient with a prosthetic would be walking with a wide base of support?

A
  • foot is placed too far laterally
  • medial leaning pylon
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8
Q

How do you modify the SLR to stress the sural nerve?

A

inversion and dorsiflexion

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9
Q

How do you modify the SLR to stress the tibial nerve?

A

eversion and df, toe extension

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10
Q

How do you modify the SLR to stress the common fibular nerve?

A

plantarflexion, inversion

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11
Q

Wernicke Aphasia AKA

A

Fluent aphasia

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12
Q

What is wernicke’s/fluent aphasia mean?

A

speaks well but has impaired comprehension or meaningless speech

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13
Q

Broca’s aphasia AKA

A

nonfluent aphasia

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14
Q

Wernicke’s aphasia usually occurs after damage to the …

A

left frontal lobe

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15
Q

Broca’s aphasia is usually due to damage of the..

A

left frontal lobe

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16
Q

What is Broca’s aphasia/nonfluent aphasia?

A

“word salad”, about to comprehend but not able to speak it , produces slow, awkward speech

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17
Q

What is Oswestry used for?

A

Low back pain

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18
Q

How do the scores represent in ODI?

A

The higher the score, the higher level of disability.

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19
Q

Symptoms of spastic gait:

A

-stiff legged
- circumduction
- scissoring of legs and toe-walking
- decreased arm swing
- unsteady, falling toward side of greater spasticity

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20
Q

Causes for spastic gait:

A
  • cortical, subcortical, brainstem infarcts
  • cerebral palsy
  • degenerative conditions
  • MS
  • Spinal cord lesions
  • ALS
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21
Q

Signs of ataxic gait:

A
  • wide-based
  • unsteady
  • staggering from side to side with falling toward the side of worse pathology
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22
Q

Usual causes of ataxic gait:

A

cerebellar pathology

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23
Q

Signs of vertiginous gait:

A

described as patients swaying and falling when attempting to stand with their feet together and eyes closed.

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24
Q

Causes of vertiginous gait:

A

semicircular canals, vestibular nerve, BPPV, and Ménière’s disease

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25
How to reduce discogenic low back pain?
- reclining the backrest - use of support for lumbar lordosis
26
How far do you recline to decrease intradiscal pressure?
110-113°
27
Using BWST, what are some ways to challenge the patient's dynamic balance?
- decrease manual input - increase treadmill speed - increase ambulation time - decrease body weight support
28
What are some ways to help facilitate a reciprocal gait pattern during BWST?
- manual guidance from PT to facilitate weight shifting and encourage typical contact - rhythmic input of the treadmill's constant speed encourages gait pattern
29
What is a swan neck deformity?
- Hyperextension of PIP joint - Flexion of DIP joint
30
What is a common mechanism of injury for swan neck deformity?
- trauma - RA
31
In swan neck deformity is caused due to damage to..
- FDS Tendon - Volar plate - Terminal tendon of EDC
32
Does swan neck deformity involve one or two joints?
two joints
33
Considering the extensor tendon, how can swan neck deformity occur?
- injury to extensor mechanism resulting in flexion of DIP - tightness of extensor mechanism resulting in extension of PIP
34
What is a mallet finger?
- Flexed DIP joint due to tear or avulsion of the distal extensor digitorum tendon (unable to extend DIP joint)
35
MOI for mallet finger
- object strikes the dorsal aspect of distal phalanx while in flexion
36
What is boutonnière deformity?
- flexed PIP joint and hyperextended DIP joint due to tear or avulsion of distal extensor digitorum tendon (unable to extend PIP joint)
37
MOI for boutonnière deformity:
- blow or cut to the dorsal aspect of the middle phalanx
38
What is trigger finger?
- finger being stuck in flexion
39
What causes trigger finger?
- oversuse/systemic disease like diabetes or RA - due to inflammation and hypertrophy of flexor tendons causing a tight, thickened flexor pulley causing difficulty for tendons to run through sheath
40
What are some ways to decrease risk of UTI?
- diaphragmatic breathing (prevent straining) - Drinking 60-80 fluid ounces of water - Normal voiding frequency every 2-4 hours
41
What are some things that increase risk of UTI?
- pelvic floor contractions while voiding - Neurogenic bladder dysfunction - decreasing overall fluid intake - Prolonged holding - not completely emptying the bladder
42
Skier's Thumb/Gamekeeper's thumb is injury to :
ulnar collateral ligament of first MCP joint resulting in excessive valgus motion of the thumb at MCP joint by being pulled into abduction
43
Which bones may be fractures by FOOSH mechanism ?
Scaphoid and Trapezium
44
If UCL of MCP joint is torn what motions can stress the joint?
wrapping thumb around large object when gripping
45
What GHJ motion requires posterior glide ?
Shoulder IR and shoulder flexion
46
What motion is required to reach back to grab seatbelt?
ER
47
What motions are needed to brush hair?
ER and about 90° of shoulder abduction
48
What nerve root primarily innervates elbow flexors and wrist extensors?
C6
49
Which muscle / action is best for assessing C5 nerve root?
Shoulder abduction and middle deltoid
50
Which muscle / action is best for assessing C8 nerve root?
Thumb Extension / EPL, EPB
50
Which muscles/ action are best for assessing C7 nerve root?
Elbow extension / triceps, wrist flexion / flexor carpi ulnaris/radialis
51
Bed rest or return to activity for LBP?
Return to activity
52
When shoulder GCS be administered?
As soon as possible after onset of impaired consciousness
53
What muscles do supine bridges primarily recruit ?
Multifidus and gluteals
54
What muscles does supine crunch/curl-up primarily recruit?
rectus abdominis
55
What muscles does prone hip extension primarily recruit?
gluteals and erector spinae
56
What does the milking maneuver test?
UCL of elbow, requiring valgus force
57
Which muscles work together to posteriorly tilt the pelvis?
- Hip extensors (glutes and hamstrings) - Abdominals
58
What muscles work together to anteriorly tilt the pelvis?
- hip flexors (iliopsoas) - lumbar extensors (erector spinae)
59
What are some ways to strengthen hip extensors?
Supine bridges
60
What is a reason that may cause excessive anterior pelvic tilt in stance phase ?
weak hip extensors
61
How much of a MMT do you need in quadriceps for AFOs?
at least 3+
62
How much of a MMT do you need in quadriceps for KAFOs
< 3+
63
Injury to what nerve would manifest weakness with elbow flexion and sensory hypesthesia of lateral forearm?
Musculocutaneous
64
What is the most common MOI although rare for musculocutaenous nerve injuries?
anterior shoulder dislocation
65
Most common presentations for radial nerve lesions?
- weakness in wrist extension - sensory loss at dorsal aspect of hand
66
In a mild TBI, scored 13-15 on GCS would generally experience PTA for
0-1 day
67
In a moderate TBI, scored 9-12 on GCS would generally experience PTA for
> 1 day and < 7 days
68
In a severe TBI, scored 13-15 on GCS would generally experience PTA for
> 7 days
69
What falls into the treatment based classification category of manipulation?
- segmental hypomobility - symptoms proximal to knee - acute symptoms - low FABQ score
70
When do you use mechanical traction?
individuals with symptoms distal to knee and do not respond to directional preference like flexion or extension
71
What falls into the stabilization based classification category of manipulation?
- younger - increased SLR - positive prone instability test - aberrant motions
72
Superficial burns healing time:
5 days
73
Superficial partial - thickness burns healing time
10-14 days
74
Superficial partial thickness burns features:
weeping, blistered skin, increased drainage, pain
75
Full Thickness burns healing time
> 3 weeks
76
Full thickness burn features:
mottled skin with dry leathery, rigid, eschar
77
Deep partial thickness burns healing time
3 weeks
78
Deep partial thickness burn features:
mottled skin, slow capillary refill with pressure, pain, and decreased pinprick sensation
79
What do you use a biofeedback device for?
improve endurance of muscles
80
How should biofeedback device be utilized?
PT should have pt initially increase pressure by 2 mg and hold for 10s, then the patient can incrementally increase the pressure by 2 mg. Patient continues until the pressure is increased to 30 mg and can hold it for 10s.
81
What is the hold time optimal for training endurance?
10s