TTR Flashcards

(77 cards)

1
Q

The maximum speed not to be exceeded during any operation is:

a. 150 KIAS

b. 175 KIAS

c. 134 KIAS

A

b. 175 KIAS

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2
Q

The maximum weight approved for the start of take off roll is:

a. 8035 Lbs

b. 8000 Lbs

c. 7800 Lbs

A

b. 8000 Lbs

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3
Q

The maximum turbulent air penetration speed recommended is:

a. 134 KIAS

b. 150 KIAS

c. 175 KIAS

A

b. 150 KIAS

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4
Q

The maximum speed at which the flaps may be extended beyond 20 degrees is:

a. 125 KIAS

b. 175 KIAS

c. 150 KIAS

A

a. 125 KIAS

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5
Q

The maximum maneuvering speed is:

a. 150 KIAS

b. 125 KIAS

c. 133 KIAS

A

a. 150 KIAS

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6
Q

The speed which results in the greatest gain in altitude at sea level in a given time is:

a. 125 KIAS

b. 106 KIAS

c. 103 KIAS

A

b. 106 KIAS

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7
Q

Under maximum takeoff power condition at sea level, the maximum permissible engine rotation speed is:

a. 101.6% with temperature adjustment below 30°C

b. 102.6% without temperature adjustment

c. 101.6% without temperature adjustment

A

a. 101.6% with temperature adjustment below 30°C

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8
Q

Under maximum continuous power conditions, the maximum permissible ITT is:

a. 740°C

b. 850°C

c. 805°C

A

c. 805°C

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9
Q

During starting, the maximum permissible ITT is:

a. 685°C for 1 second

b. 1090°C for 1 second

c. 805°C for 1 second

A

b. 1090°C for 1 second

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10
Q

At reverse thrust power settings, the maximum permissible gas generator speed is:

a. 101.6% for 2 seconds

b. 102.6% for 2 minutes

c. 101.6% for 2 minutes

A

c. 101.6% for 2 minutes

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11
Q

The maximum shaft horsepower allowable is:

a. 600 SHP temperature and altitude controlled

b. 600 SHP

c. 600 SHP temperature controlled

A

a. 600 SHP temperature and altitude controlled

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12
Q

The propeller rpm at takeoff is:

a. 1900 rpm

b. 1825 rpm

c. 2090 rpm

A

a. 1900 rpm

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13
Q

The specific power loading is:

a. 28.6 Lbs/Sq.ft

b. 13.3 Lbs/SHP

c. 28.6 Lbs/SHP

A

b. 13.3 Lbs/SHP

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14
Q

The standard empty weight is:

a. 3810 Lbs

b. 4185 Lbs

c. 4190 Lbs

A

a. 3810 Lbs

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15
Q

The maximum take off power under normal operations is limited to:

a. 3 minutes

b. 5 minutes

c. 2 minutes

A

b. 5 minutes

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16
Q

The limitations on the starter operating times using airplane battery is:

a. 30 seconds ON, 60 seconds OFF, with a maximum of 3 attempted starts

b. 30 seconds ON 1 minute OFF, 30 seconds ON 1 minute OFF, 30 seconds ON 30 minutes OFF

c. 30 seconds ON 1 minute OFF, 30 seconds ON 1 minute OFF, 2 minutes OFF

A

b. 30 seconds ON 1 minute off, 30 seconds ON 1 minute OFF, 30 seconds ON 30 minutes OFF

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17
Q

During starting, if ITT approaches the limitation you would:

a. Close and open the throttle to stabilize LTT

b. Select fuel lever OFF, ignition switch NORMAL, and then Motor engine for adequate time

c. Select fuel lever OFF, and then Motor engine for adequate time

A

b. Select fuel lever OFF, ignition switch NORMAL, and then Motor engine for adequate time

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18
Q

To clear an engine of internally trapped fuel and vapor you would:

a. Select fuel lever ON, power lever IDLE, boost pump switches ON, and select start for desired duration, then move to OFF.

b. Allow 5 minutes for self purging with fuel lever OFF before attempting a further start

c. Select fuel lever OFF, power lever IDLE, boost pump switches ON, and select start for desired duration, then move to OFF.

A

c. Select fuel lever OFF, power lever IDLE, boost pump switches ON, and select start for desired duration, then move to OFF.

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19
Q

During engine starting the minimum engine speed to obtain a satisfactory light up is:

a. 15% Ng

b. 12% Ng

c. 10% Ng

A

b. 12% Ng

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20
Q

After starting an engine the minimum oil temperature for acceleration is:

a. 0°C

b. Minus 40°C

c. 10°C

A

b. Minus 40°C

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21
Q

To carry out an overspeed governor check, you would set power lever to give a certain propeller speed and then select PROP. O./SPEED TEST switch as appropriate. The propeller speed selected is:

a. 1850 rpm

b. 1750 +/- 60 rpm

c. 1850 +/- 60 rpm

A

b. 1750 +/- 60 rpm

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21
Q

If the engine oil pressure falls below 65 psi at 72% gas generator rpm or above you would:

a. Continue the flight with power on the engine below 72% rpm

b. Not be concerned

c. Continue the flight with power on the affected engine 72% - 85% rpm

A

c. Continue the flight with power on the affected engine 72% - 85% rpm

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22
Q

If a gas generator speed in excess of 101.6% occur you would:

a. Reduce the gas generator speed to a safer figure

b. Shut down the engine, noting maximum rpm and duration of this rpm and record in technical log

c. Reduce speed to a safe figure, note maximum rpm and duration of this rpm and record

A

c. Reduce speed to a safe figure, note maximum rpm and duration of this rpm and record

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23
Q

In order to achieve reverse pitch on the propellers you would:

a. Select reverse pitch on the propeller controls

b. Operate the propeller controls by pushing upward through the gate and continuing rearward

c. Operate the power lever rearward into BETA range

A

c. Operate the power lever rearward into BETA range

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24
The selection of ignition switch to NORMAL should be limited to: a. 5 minutes b. 46% Ng max c. Does not have limitations
b. 46% Ng max
25
Engine intake inertial separator is provided in order to: a. Give the pilot some measure of control over power plant and oil temperature b. Cater for tropical and subtropical climates c. Prevent the entry of snow, rain and dust into the compressor inlet duct by diverting the particles
c. Prevent the entry of snow, rain and dust into the compressor inlet duct by diverting the particles
26
If starting on the ground you are unable to clear an engine by purging and fire is apparent, you would select: a. Booster pumps OFF, Fuel shut off valves CLOSED, and apply fire extinguisher b. Items from the FIRE EMERGENCY PANEL and carry them out in that order c. Booster pumps OFF, Fuel shut off valves CLOSED, and pull Fire handle
a. Booster pumps OFF, Fuel shut off valves CLOSED, and apply fire extinguisher
27
The correct order for the actions in the event of engine fire in the air is: a. Power lever OFF, propeller lever FEATHER, fuel lever OFF, fuel shut off valves OFF, heat shut off control PULL, forced landing EXECUTED. b. Fuel lever OFF, power lever IDLE, propeller lever FEATHER, fuel shut off valves OFF, fire pull handle PULL, booster pumps OFF. c. Fuel lever OFF, fuel shut off valves OFF, booster pumps OFF, power lever IDLE, propeller lever FEATHER, heat shut off control PULL, forced landings EXECUTED.
a. Power lever OFF, propeller lever FEATHER, fuel lever OFF, fuel shut off valves OFF, heat shut off control PULL, forced landing EXECUTED.
27
Fuel selectors are located at: a. The fuel control panel b. The overhead panel c. The emergency panel
b. The overhead panel
28
During a normal engine start, the emergency power lever must be in: a. IDLE position b. manual position c. full aft position
c. full aft position
29
The fuel condition lever cut-off position: a. Will provide an rpm of 65% Ng b. Will provide an rpm of 52% Ng c. Shuts off all fuel to the engine fuel nozzles
c. Shuts off all fuel to the engine fuel nozzles
30
The fuel vent outlets are located at the: a. Wing tips leading edge reservoir vented to starboard tank b. Wing tips leading edge reservoir to port wing tank c. Wing tips leading edge reservoir vented to both wing tanks
c. Wing tips leading edge reservoir vented to both wing tanks
30
The total drain valves on the aircraft are: a. 5 valves b. 9 valves c. 6 valves
b. 9 valves
31
The firewall shut off valve push-pull knob is located on: a. Centre of pedestal b. Right side of pedestal c. Overhead console
b. Right side of pedestal
32
Normal fuel management is with: a. Either fuel tank selector in the ON position b. Either fuel tank selector or both fuel tank selector in the ON position c. Both fuel tank selectors in the ON position
c. Both fuel tank selectors in the ON position
32
Fuel system management control position for normal operation is: a. Selection of fuel selector to BOTH RIGHT b. Selection of fuel selector to BOTH LEFT c. Selection of fuel selector to BOTH ON
Selection of fuel selector to BOTH ON
33
The fuel contents gauges are located: a. On the instrument panel left hand side b. On the upper portion of the instrument panel c. On the fuel control panel situated in the L-H flight instrument panel
b. On the upper portion of the instrument panel
34
The oil tank access panel is located: a. On the rear of the engine left side b. On the portside of the air intake casing c. On the top rear engine cowling
a. On the rear of the engine left side
34
The oil approved for engine lubrication is: a. Mil-J-5642E or MIL-G5572C b. Mobil Jet oil 11 or 254, Aero Shell Turbine oil 500 or 555, Royco Turbine oil 500 or 555 c. D.T-D585
b. Mobil Jet oil 11 or 254, Aero Shell Turbine oil 500 or 555, Royco Turbine oil 500 or 555
35
The oil tank capacity is: a. 9.5 D.S Quarts b. 14 D.S Quarts c. 12 D.S Quarts
a. 9.5 D.S Quarts
35
Wing tank fuel low warning annunciations will illuminate if: a. Fuel in the respective tank is 25 gallons or less b. Fuel in the respective tank is approximately one-half full c. Fuel pressure in the respective tank is below 4.75 psi
a. Fuel in the respective tank is 25 gallons or less
36
To obtain an accurate oil level reading after a flight: a. Check oil level 10 minutes after engine shutdown b. Check oil level immediately after engine shutdown c. Check oil level after more than 10 minutes has elapsed since engine shutdown
a. Check oil level 10 minutes after engine shutdown
37
Total unusable fuel with both tanks ON is: a. 3 US Gallons b. 5 US Gallons c. 2.5 US Gallons
a. 3 US Gallons
38
The rudder trimming is accomplished through: a. A trim control wheel and nose wheel steering bungee b. A geared tab and a trim tab c. A trim tab and a spring servo tab
a. A trim control wheel and nose wheel steering bungee
39
The elevators are fitted with: a. A right and left trim tab manually or electrically operated b. A trim tab on the left elevator c. A trim/spring servo tab on the right elevator
a. A right and left trim tab manually or electrically operated
40
The aileron trimming is achieved by: a. A geared tab on the left and right aileron and a trim tab on the left aileron only b. Manually operated servo tab on the right aileron only c. A geared tab on the right aileron and a trim tab on the left aileron only
b. Manually operated servo tab on the right aileron only
41
In order to engage the control locks you would: a. Install external gust locks on the control surface b. Install portable aileron/elevator locks which are in turn connected to a permanently installed rudder lock mechanism c. Install control lock rods with holes on control wheel shafts aligned and pull out the rudder lock to lock the rudder
c. Install control lock rods with holes on control wheel shafts aligned and pull out the rudder lock to lock the rudder
42
The elevator trim tab is operated by: a. An electric actuator b. Vertically mounted trim control wheel on the top left side of control pedestal c. A trim tab hand wheel mounted on the trim console
b. Vertically mounted trim control wheel on the top left side of control pedestal
43
The aileron trim tab is operated by: a. Mechanical hand operated wheel on the trim console b. A mechanical knob on the control pedestal c. The movement of aileron
b. A mechanical knob on the control pedestal
44
The wing flap position indicator is: a. On the left side of the selector lever indicating flap travel by a sliding white tipped pointer b. On the flight instrument panel indicating electrically the flap travel c. On the windshield center post indicating flap travel by a mechanical sliding pointer
a. On the left side of the selector lever indicating flap travel by a sliding white tipped pointer
45
With flaps in the lowered position: a. The aileron range of movement is increased but without differential action b. The aileron range of movement is increased and differential aileron movement is maintained c. The aileron range of movement is unchanged and differential aileron movement is maintained
c. The aileron range of movement is unchanged and differential aileron movement is maintained
46
Hydraulic power is used for the operation of: a. Flaps, wheel brakes and the air intake deflector b. Flaps, wheel brakes, nose wheel steering and the air intake deflector c. Wheel brakes only
c. Wheel brakes only
47
The hydraulic fluid reservoir should be refilled when: a. The level drops to 1/4 full b. The level drops to 1/2 full c. The level drops to 3/4 full
b. The level drops to 1/2 full
48
The pneumatic system provides air suction for operation: a. Of airframe de-icing only b. Of the gyroscopic instruments and autopilot c. Of gyroscopic instruments and if applicable, airframe de-icing and autopilot
a. Of airframe de-icing only
48
For effective braking: a. A brake reservoir is provided in addition to brake master cylinders b. A brake reservoir is provided only to meet the braking requirement c. The brake master cylinders will provide the braking requirement
a. A brake reservoir is provided in addition to brake master cylinders
49
Propeller blade de-icing is provided by: a. Electrically heated elements in boots cycling 1 1/2 minutes ON and 1 1/2 minutes OFF b. Slinger rings at the blade roots ejecting isopropyl alcohol c. Electrically heated boots cycling FAST and SLOW with air intake lower cowling boots
a. Electrically heated elements in boots cycling 1 1/2 minutes ON and 1 1/2 minutes OFF
50
Engine anti icing is provided to: a. The lower intake cowling, alternating with the propeller blades b. Leading edge of the air intake cowling c. The propeller blades only
c. The propeller blades only
51
Wing and horizontal tail de-icing is provided by: a. Pressure from engine bleed air system and vacuum created by dumping in a cycle of about 18 seconds b. Ejection of isopropyl alcohol through a porous element installed in the leading edges c. Electrically heated boots, thermostatically controlled MANUAL or AUTO; FAST or SLOW cycle
a. Pressure from engine bleed air system and vacuum created by dumping in a cycle of about 18 seconds
52
With PROP DE-ICE selected the system will be operative: a. Only when the oil pressure switch is made and the propeller is in the unfeathered position b. As soon as the propeller is out of the feather position regardless of oil pressure c. As soon as the oil pressure switch is made regardless of propeller position
c. As soon as the oil pressure switch is made regardless of propeller position
53
The failure of oil operated pressure switch in propeller anti ice system is: a. Detected by continuously monitoring the ammeter b. Cannot be detected c. Easily detected by amber light near the switch
a. Detected by continuously monitoring the ammeter
54
In the event of the propeller anti-ice system timer malfunction: a. The 3 position toggle switch in AUTO position will achieve the emergency propeller anti-icing b. The switch should be placed to OFF position and carry out emergency landing form icing condition c. The 3 position toggle switch can be held in the momentary MANUAL position to achieve emergency propeller anti-icing
c. The 3 position toggle switch can be held in the momentary MANUAL position to achieve emergency propeller anti-icing
55
The windshield anti-icing panel: a. Is a segment of the windshield electrically heated b. Is a detachable electrically heated glass panel on the windshield c. Is the permanently installed electrically heated glass panel on the windshield
b. Is a detachable electrically heated glass panel on the windshield
56
To keep the ice detector light illuminating: a. The two position toggle switch should be either in ON or AUTO position b. The two position toggle switch should be held in ON position c. The two position toggle switch should be in AUTO position
b. The two position toggle switch should be held in ON position
57
Power can be fed to the two general busses from: a. A 200 amp engine driven starter generator, 24 volt nickel cadmium or lead battery and an external power supply b. A 200 amp engine driven starter generator and a 24 volt lead acid battery or Ni-cad battery c. Two 200 amp engine driven generators, two 24 volt nickel cadmium batteries and external power supply
a. A 200 amp engine driven starter generator, 24 volt nickel cadmium or lead battery and an external power supply
57
Generator failure is indicated by: a. The illumination of red light on the annunciator panel b. The illumination of red light and generator going off c. The illumination of generator amber caution light
b. The illumination of red light and generator going off
58
When erratic operation of the generating system is observed: a. Shut off the system momentarily with the generator switch to TRIP position and then recycle by placing the switch back to ON position b. Shut off the system momentarily with the generator switch to TRIP position and then recycle by placing the switch to RESET momentarily before putting it back to ON position c. Shut off the system momentarily with the generator switch to TRIP position and then recycle by placing the switch RESET
b. Shut off the system momentarily with the generator switch to TRIP position and then recycle by placing the switch to RESET momentarily before putting it back to ON position
59
When external power switch is in the STARTER position: a. External power is applied to the battery and starter generator b. External power is applied to starter only c. External power is applied to starter generator
b. External power is applied to starter only
60
When external power is in the Bus position: a. External power is applied to the starter generator and battery busses b. External power is applied to the starter generator only c. External power is applied to the main Bus with no power to starter
c. External power is applied to the main Bus with no power to starter
61
With the battery switch in the OFF position: a. Power is supplied to the two general busses b. Power is supplied to the battery Bus only c. Power is cut off to all busses
b. Power is supplied to the battery Bus only
62
The battery HOT annunciator indicates: a. Battery temperature exceeds 160°F. Terminate the flight as soon as practicable. b. Battery is not charging c. Battery temperature is higher than 140°F. Monitor the temperature during flight
c. Battery temperature is higher than 140°F. Monitor the temperature during flight
63
The sequence in event of electrical fire is: a. Battery switch ON, generator switch OFF, standby switch OFF, and activate fire extinguisher b. Battery switch ON, generator switch TRIP and release, standby power switch OFF, and fire extinguisher ACTIVATE. c. Battery switch OFF, generator switch TRIP and release, standby power switch OFF, and fire extinguisher ACTIVATE.
c. Battery switch OFF, generator switch TRIP and release, standby power switch OFF, and fire extinguisher ACTIVATE.
64
The stall warning electrical circuit is operated by: a. A lift detecting vane mounted in the port main plane operating throughout full flap travel b. A sensor situated in the port main plane operated pneumatically c. Lift detecting vanes upper and lower, mounted in the leading edge of the port main plane
b. A sensor situated in the port main plane operated pneumatically
65
Standby electrical system is supplied to: a. Provide additional power during starting b. Provide additional power for non essential electrical services c. Supplement power in the event of voltage drop during flight
Supplement power in the event of voltage drop during flight
66
Visual engine fire warning is given by: a. Illumination of red lights in fire pull handle on the fire emergency panel b. Illumination of red engine fire annunciator c. Illumination of red caution lights in the caution panel
b. Illumination of red engine fire annunciator
66
The oxygen cylinder for crew use is located: a. Under the pilot's seat b. In the fuselage tail-cone c. Under the co-pilot's seat
b. In the fuselage tail-cone
67
Nominal charged pressure of the oxygen system is: a. 1850 +/- 50 psi b. 2100 +/- 50 psi c. 1500 +/- 50 psi
b. 2100 +/- 50 psi
68
Indication that oxygen is flowing on demand to the users mask is by: a. A blinker indicator marked FLOW b. Indicator being forced away from the mask c. Indicator being forced toward mask
c. Indicator being forced toward mask