unit 1 introduction Flashcards by studyfella Unknown

Which of the following terms refers to the front of the body?
A. Posterior
B. Dorsal
C. Anterior
D. Caudal

C. Anterior

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The sagittal plane divides the body into:
A. Front and back
B. Top and bottom
C. Right and left
D. Head and tail

C. Right and left

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Which term refers to the direction toward the head?
A. Inferior
B. Caudal
C. Cranial
D. Distal

C. Cranial

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The opposite of proximal is:
A. Medial
B. Distal
C. Superior
D. Inferior

B. Distal

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Which term refers to the back of the body?
A. Ventral
B. Dorsal
C. Cranial
D. Inferior

B. Dorsal

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The transverse plane divides the body into:
A. Right and left parts
B. Top and bottom parts
C. Front and back parts
D. Medial and lateral parts

B. Top and bottom parts

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Which of the following is lateral to the nose?
A. Chin
B. Eyes
C. Forehead
D. Tongue

B. Eyes

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The wrist is _______ to the shoulder.
A. Proximal
B. Distal
C. Medial
D. Cranial

B. Distal

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The coronal plane divides the body into:
A. Right and left halves
B. Top and bottom halves
C. Anterior and posterior halves
D. Superior and inferior halves

C. Anterior and posterior halves - since corona passes left to right

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Which term refers to a position closer to the midline of the body?
A. Lateral
B. Medial
C. Distal
D. Inferior

B. Medial

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In anatomical position, the palms of the hands face:
A. Posteriorly
B. Laterally
C. Medially
D. Anteriorly

D. Anteriorly

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Which of the following structures is most caudal?
A. Brain
B. Diaphragm
C. Liver
D. Coccyx

D. Coccyx

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A cut that divides the body into unequal right and left portions is called a:
A. Transverse section
B. Coronal section
C. Midsagittal section
D. Parasagittal section

D. Parasagittal section

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The thumb is _______ to the pinky finger when in anatomical position.
A. Medial
B. Distal
C. Lateral
D. Inferior

C. Lateral

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Which term best describes a structure located below another structure?
A. Cranial
B. Proximal
C. Inferior
D. Medial

C. Inferior

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During a laparoscopic surgery, a surgeon makes a transverse incision. This will cut through which of the following planes?
A. Plane dividing body into anterior and posterior parts
B. Plane dividing body into right and left halves
C. Plane dividing body into superior and inferior parts
D. Oblique plane

C. Plane dividing body into superior and inferior parts

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Which directional term describes the position of the sternum relative to the spine?
A. Posterior
B. Dorsal
C. Anterior
D. Inferior

C. Anterior

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In a CT scan, a horizontal slice through the abdomen shows both kidneys. This imaging is taken in which anatomical plane?
A. Sagittal
B. Coronal
C. Transverse
D. Oblique

C. Transverse - If you’re lying flat in a CT scanner and the scanner takes a “slice” from your waist up toward your head, it’s cutting through your body horizontally—that’s the transverse plane.

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In the anatomical position, which of the following correctly describes the location of the hallux (big toe) relative to the patella (kneecap)?
A. Proximal and medial
B. Distal and medial
C. Distal and lateral
D. Superior and lateral

B. Distal and medial

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Damage to which of the following structures would most likely impair movement in a direction contralateral to the lesion?
A. Cerebral cortex (motor area)
B. Brachial plexus
C. Spinal accessory nerve
D. Rotator cuff muscles

A. Cerebral cortex (motor area) - What does contralateral mean?
Contralateral = affecting or occurring on the opposite side of the body.

For example, if the left motor cortex is damaged, the right side of the body shows weakness or paralysis.

🧠 Why the Cerebral Cortex is Correct:
The motor area of the cerebral cortex (especially the precentral gyrus) controls voluntary movement.

The corticospinal tract, which carries motor signals from the brain to the body, crosses over (decussates) at the level of the medulla in the brainstem.

This means the left hemisphere controls the right side of the body, and vice versa.

🔁 So damage to the left motor cortex → motor impairment on the right side = contralateral effect.

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Which of the following best describes the liver’s position relative to the diaphragm?
A. Inferior and posterior
B. Superior and anterior
C. Inferior and anterior
D. Lateral and inferior

C. Inferior and anterior

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In anatomical terminology, which pair of terms are directional opposites?
A. Cranial – Proximal
B. Anterior – Caudal
C. Medial – Lateral
D. Superior – Ventral

C. Medial – Lateral

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In cardiac surgery, a median sternotomy is performed. The incision follows which anatomical plane?
A. Sagittal
B. Midsagittal
C. Coronal
D. Transverse

B. Midsagittal - A median sternotomy is a common surgical procedure where the sternum (breastbone) is vertically divided down the middle to provide direct access to:
The heart
Great vessels (e.g., aorta, pulmonary arteries/veins)
Lungs (partially)
It’s the standard approach for open-heart surgery.

🧍‍♂️ Which Anatomical Plane is Used?
➤ Midsagittal Plane: Divides the body exactly down the midline into equal right and left halves.
The sternum lies on this midline, so an incision that splits it in half follows this plane.

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Which of the following correctly describes the relative position of the pancreas to the stomach?
A. Anterior
B. Posterior
C. Superior
D. Distal

B. Posterior

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A stab wound enters the left lateral thorax. Which structures would be affected first in terms of directional anatomy? A. Medial thoracic wall B. Posterior rib cage C. Lateral intercostal muscles D. Inferior lung lobes

C. Lateral intercostal muscles

Which of the following is not included in the free part of the upper limb? A) Forearm B) Elbow C) Shoulder D) Hand

C) Shoulder The shoulder is part of the upper limb but not part of the "free part" — which includes arm, forearm, wrist, and hand.

The ankle is anatomically located: A) Between the leg and foot B) Between the thigh and leg C) Between the forearm and hand D) Between the wrist and hand

A) Between the leg and foot

Which of the following correctly represents the transition from the trunk to the lower limb in the anterior view? A) Abdomen → Knee → Leg B) Perineum → Hip → Thigh C) Chest → Abdomen → Buttock D) Neck → Axilla → Thigh

B) Perineum → Hip → Thigh The perineum (a superficial part of the pelvis) leads to the hip, which marks the beginning of the lower limb.

In the posterior view, which structure lies superior to the back but inferior to the occiput? A) Buttock B) Shoulder C) Temple D) Neck

✅ Answer: D) Neck The neck connects the occiput (back of the head) to the back and shoulders

Which of these structures appears in both anterior and posterior views and is part of the lower limb? A) Chest B) Axilla C) Knee D) Temple

C) Knee The knee is a joint of the lower limb visible from both anterior and posterior views.

Which structure in the posterior view of the male is located lateral to the occiput and superior to the ear? A) Temple B) Shoulder C) Back D) Neck

A) Temple The temple is located on the side of the head, above the ear and lateral to the occiput.

In the anterior view of the female, the free part of the lower limb begins at which structure? A) Hip B) Thigh C) Knee D) Leg

B) Thigh The hip is part of the pelvis. The "free part of the lower limb" includes thigh, knee, leg, ankle, and foot—starting at the thigh.

Which posterior body part corresponds anatomically to the breast in the anterior view? A) Scapula B) Back C) Buttock D) Shoulder

Answer: B) Back Anteriorly, the breast lies on the thorax; posteriorly, this region corresponds to the upper back.

Which of the following sequences accurately traces proximal to distal parts of the posterior upper limb? A) Axilla → Wrist → Elbow → Hand B) Shoulder → Arm → Elbow → Forearm C) Neck → Shoulder → Hand → Wrist D) Occiput → Back → Arm → Ankle

✅ Answer: B) Shoulder → Arm → Elbow → Forearm

Which region is not shared between the anterior and posterior views of the body? A) Axilla B) Hand C) Chin D) Thigh

✅ Answer: C) Chin The chin is only visible in the anterior view, not posterior.

The femoral artery pulse is palpated at which landmark? A. Midway between the greater trochanter and ischial tuberosity B. Midway between the anterior superior iliac spine and pubic symphysis C. Midpoint of the inguinal ligament, lateral to the femoral vein D. Midline of the thigh, overlying the quadriceps tendon

B. Midway between the anterior superior iliac spine and pubic symphysis

Which artery is the direct continuation of the femoral artery as it passes through the adductor hiatus? A. Popliteal artery B. Deep femoral artery C. Posterior tibial artery D. Anterior tibial artery

A. Popliteal artery

A weak dorsalis pedis pulse may indicate obstruction in which artery? A. Anterior tibial artery B. Posterior tibial artery C. Fibular artery D. Plantar arch

A. Anterior tibial artery

The facial artery pulse is palpated at: A. Just anterior to the ear B. At the lateral border of the orbit C. Over the angle of the mandible D. Midway between the angle of the mandible and the corner of the mouth

D. Midway between the angle of the mandible and the corner of the mouth

The brachial artery pulse is best palpated: A. At the cubital fossa, medial to the biceps tendon B. At the lateral epicondyle of the humerus C. In the mid-arm, along the lateral border of triceps D. At the wrist, radial to the palmaris longus tendon

A. At the cubital fossa, medial to the biceps tendon

During angiography, a blockage is found just distal to the renal arteries in the abdominal aorta. Which artery’s blood flow would be most directly affected? A. Superior mesenteric artery B. Inferior mesenteric artery C. Celiac trunk D. Right common carotid artery

Correct Answer: B. Inferior mesenteric artery Because it originates distal to the renal arteries, so a blockage there will cut off its blood supply. Recall the order of abdominal aortic branches (top to bottom) Celiac trunk – around T12, just below diaphragm. Superior mesenteric artery (SMA) – around L1. Renal arteries – around L1–L2. Inferior mesenteric artery (IMA) – around L3. Common iliac arteries – bifurcation around L4.

A patient presents with absent posterior tibial pulse but a normal dorsalis pedis pulse. Which artery is most likely obstructed? A. Anterior tibial artery B. Fibular artery C. Posterior tibial artery D. Popliteal artery

C. Posterior tibial artery

A surgeon accidentally ligates the internal iliac artery on one side. Which of the following would most likely remain unaffected due to collateral circulation? A. Uterus B. Rectum C. Kidney D. Urinary bladder

C (Kidney — supplied by renal arteries from abdominal aorta, not internal iliac) internal iliac artery supplies Pelvic organs → bladder, uterus, vagina, prostate, rectum. Gluteal region and perineum

The popliteal artery is difficult to palpate in some patients because: A. It is a small-caliber vessel B. It lies deep in the popliteal fossa, covered by fat and fascia C. It runs very close to the tibial nerve D. It lies anterior to the knee joint capsule

B (It lies deep in the popliteal fossa, covered by fat and fascia)

The carotid pulse is commonly palpated: A. Within the carotid canal B. At the carotid sinus, lateral to the cricoid cartilage C. In the posterior triangle of the neck D. At the angle of the mandible

B. At the carotid sinus, lateral to the cricoid cartilage

A patient has a weak femoral artery pulse but strong popliteal pulse on the same side. Which artery is most likely enlarged and compensating? A. Deep femoral artery (profunda femoris) B. Posterior tibial artery C. Fibular artery D. Inferior mesenteric artery

A (Deep femoral artery can form collateral circulation with popliteal artery branches).

The dorsalis pedis artery pulse is absent in a healthy young adult with no ischemic symptoms. Which is the best explanation? A. Severe peripheral artery disease B. Anatomical variation where dorsalis pedis is replaced by perforating branch of fibular artery C. Thrombosis in posterior tibial artery D. Popliteal artery aneurysm

B. Anatomical variation where dorsalis pedis is replaced by perforating branch of fibular artery

The largest vein in the human body is: a) Femoral vein b) Inferior vena cava c) Superior vena cava d) Great saphenous vein

b) Inferior vena cava

The superior vena cava drains blood from: a) Lower limbs b) Abdomen c) Head, neck, thorax, and upper limbs d) Kidneys

c) Head, neck, thorax, and upper limbs

The great saphenous vein drains into the: a) Femoral vein b) Popliteal vein c) External iliac vein d) Common iliac vein

a) Femoral vein

The internal jugular vein unites with the subclavian vein to form the: a) Superior vena cava b) Azygos vein c) Brachiocephalic vein d) External jugular vein

c) Brachiocephalic vein

Which vein is commonly used for coronary artery bypass graft surgery? a) Basilic vein b) Cephalic vein c) Great saphenous vein d) Radial vein

c) Great saphenous vein

Which of the following veins drains directly into the superior vena cava? a) Azygos vein b) Renal vein c) Common iliac vein d) Internal jugular vein

a) Azygos vein

The basilic vein is a superficial vein located along the: a) Lateral side of the forearm b) Medial side of the forearm c) Posterior side of the arm d) Deep fascia of the arm

b) Medial side of the forearm cephalic vein is on lateral side

The popliteal vein is formed by the union of: a) Anterior tibial and posterior tibial veins b) Femoral and great saphenous veins c) Dorsal venous arch and anterior tibial vein d) Posterior tibial and fibular veins only

a) Anterior tibial and posterior tibial veins

Which of the following is a deep vein of the upper limb? a) Cephalic vein b) Basilic vein c) Median cubital vein d) Brachial vein

d) Brachial vein

The internal iliac vein drains: a) Lower limbs b) Kidney c) Pelvis and perineum d) Thoracic wall

c) Pelvis and perineum

The azygos vein system provides an important collateral circulation between: a) Inferior vena cava and superior vena cava b) Right atrium and left atrium c) Renal vein and femoral vein d) Internal jugular vein and external jugular vein

a) Inferior vena cava and superior vena cava

Which of the following pairs is incorrectly matched? a) Radial vein → runs with radial artery b) Femoral vein → continues as external iliac vein c) External jugular vein → drains brain d) Popliteal vein → formed by anterior & posterior tibial veins

c) External jugular vein → drains brain (Actually, brain is drained by internal jugular vein, not external jugular)

The dorsal venous arch of the foot gives rise to which major superficial vein? a) Cephalic vein b) Basilic vein c) Great saphenous vein d) Subclavian vein

c) Great saphenous vein

Which statement is TRUE regarding venous drainage of the kidneys? a) Right renal vein is longer than left renal vein b) Left renal vein receives tributaries from left gonadal and left suprarenal veins c) Both renal veins drain directly into superior vena cava d) Left renal vein passes behind the abdominal aorta

b) Left renal vein receives tributaries from left gonadal and left suprarenal veins

Which vein connects superficial veins of the upper limb and is often used for venipuncture? a) Cephalic vein b) Basilic vein c) Median cubital vein d) Axillary vein

c) Median cubital vein

If the inferior vena cava is blocked, which venous pathway provides collateral return to the heart? a) Jugular veins b) Azygos system c) Renal veins d) Subclavian veins

b) Azygos system

The longest vein in the human body is: a) Basilic vein b) Cephalic vein c) Great saphenous vein d) Femoral vein

c) Great saphenous vein

The vein that lies most superficially in the neck and is visible when intrathoracic pressure rises (e.g., coughing, heart failure) is: a) Internal jugular vein b) External jugular vein c) Subclavian vein d) Vertebral vein

b) External jugular vein

The great saphenous vein is clinically important because: a) It is the longest vein and used for grafts b) It connects directly to the popliteal vein c) It drains the deep muscles of the thigh d) It terminates in the external iliac vein

a) It is the longest vein and used for grafts

The left renal vein is longer than the right because: a) It passes behind the aorta b) It passes in front of the aorta c) It drains only the left kidney d) It forms the azygos vein

b) It passes in front of the aorta

Dilated and tortuous superficial veins in the lower limb are called: a) Hemorrhoids b) Varicose veins c) Deep vein thrombosis d) Phlebitis

b) Varicose veins

Which of the following veins directly drains into the femoral vein? a) Popliteal vein b) Great saphenous vein c) Deep femoral vein d) All of the above

d) All of the above

Which is the correct order of venous drainage from forearm to heart? a) Radial/ulnar → brachial → axillary → subclavian → brachiocephalic → SVC b) Radial/ulnar → axillary → brachial → subclavian → brachiocephalic → SVC c) Brachial → radial → subclavian → axillary → SVC d) Cephalic → basilic → subclavian → IVC

a) Radial/ulnar → brachial → axillary → subclavian → brachiocephalic → SVC

Which of the following is part of the Central Nervous System (CNS)? a) Brain and spinal cord b) Receptors and effectors c) Somatic nerves only d) Autonomic nerves only

a) Brain and spinal cord

Somatic sensory receptors monitor: a) Internal organ conditions b) External world and body position c) Hormone release d) Cardiac contractions

b) External world and body position

The afferent division of the nervous system is responsible for: a) Carrying motor commands b) Carrying sensory signals to the CNS c) Processing information in CNS d) Stimulating effectors

b) Carrying sensory signals to the CNS

The somatic nervous system controls: a) Skeletal muscle contractions (voluntary) b) Cardiac and smooth muscle c) Secretions of glands d) Both cardiac and skeletal muscle together

a) Skeletal muscle contractions (voluntary)

Visceral sensory receptors provide information about: a) Body movement and joint position b) Skeletal muscle contraction c) Internal organ systems and conditions d) Skin touch and pain

c) Internal organ systems and conditions

The enteric nervous system (ENS) primarily controls: a) Cardiac muscle contraction b) Skeletal muscle movement c) Gastrointestinal smooth muscle activity d) Kidney filtration

c) Gastrointestinal smooth muscle activity

Motor commands traveling away from the CNS move through: a) Afferent division b) Efferent division c) Both afferent and efferent simultaneously d) Receptors only

b) Efferent division

Which of the following best explains the relationship between CNS processing, afferent division, and efferent division? a) CNS sends sensory signals via afferent division, and motor commands return via efferent division b) Afferent division carries sensory input → CNS processes it → efferent division carries motor commands to effectors c) Effectors detect changes and transmit signals directly to CNS without afferents d) Afferent and efferent divisions work only independently

b) Afferent division carries sensory input → CNS processes it → efferent division carries motor commands to effectors

Which of the following pairs is correct? a) Somatic sensory receptors → monitor blood pressure b) Visceral sensory receptors → monitor skeletal muscle contraction c) Somatic nervous system → controls skeletal muscle d) Parasympathetic nervous system → controls voluntary movement

Answer: c) Somatic nervous system → controls skeletal muscle

Which of the following statements about the enteric nervous system is TRUE? a) It operates completely independently of the CNS and ANS b) It regulates gastrointestinal smooth muscle but can be modulated by the ANS c) It only receives input from somatic motor neurons d) It controls skeletal muscles of digestion

b) It regulates gastrointestinal smooth muscle but can be modulated by the ANS

Which of the following divisions of the nervous system has both sensory and motor components? a) Somatic nervous system only b) Autonomic nervous system only c) Entire Peripheral Nervous System (PNS) d) Enteric nervous system only

c) Entire Peripheral Nervous System (PNS)

A patient with gastrointestinal dysmotility shows normal skeletal muscle control but impaired bowel movement. Which nervous system is likely affected? a) Somatic nervous system b) Autonomic nervous system c) Enteric nervous system d) CNS only

c) Enteric nervous system

A patient’s heart rate remains high even at rest after a spinal injury affecting the cranial nerves. Which division of the ANS is likely impaired? a) Sympathetic division b) Parasympathetic division c) Somatic nervous system d) Enteric nervous system

b) Parasympathetic division

A patient can no longer feel pain in the gut but has normal skeletal sensation. Which receptors are affected? a) Visceral sensory receptors b) Somatic sensory receptors c) Motor neurons d) Sympathetic postganglionic fibers

a) Visceral sensory receptors

Lymph originates primarily from: A. Plasma within arteries B. Interstitial fluid C. CSF D. Synovial fluid

B. Interstitial fluid

Primary site of B-cell maturation: A. Thymus B. Bone marrow C. Spleen D. Peyer’s patches

B. Bone marrow

Hassall’s corpuscles are found in the: A. Thymic cortex B. Thymic medulla C. Spleen D. Tonsil

thymus has two zones: Cortex → densely packed with immature T lymphocytes. Medulla → contains fewer lymphocytes and unique Hassall’s corpuscles. Hassall’s corpuscles are whorled structures of epithelial reticular cells, often keratinized, important in T-cell maturation and tolerance induction.

The spleen filters: A. Lymph only B. Blood only C. Both D. Neither

B. Blood only No afferent lymphatics.

Tonsils have: A. Afferent + efferent lymphatics B. Only afferent C. Only efferent D. Neither

C. Only efferent

Thoracic duct begins at the: A. Cisterna chyli B. Right lymphatic duct C. Subclavian vein D. Esophageal hiatus

A. Cisterna chyli

The cisterna chyli is located: A. Anterior to L1–L2, right of aorta B. T5 behind sternum C. Left of IVC at L5 D. At T2 sternum

A. Anterior to L1–L2, right of aorta

The thoracic duct passes into thorax via: A. Caval opening (T8) B. Esophageal hiatus (T10) C. Aortic hiatus (T12) D. Foramen of Morgagni

C. Aortic hiatus (T12)

The thoracic duct drains into: A. Right subclavian vein B. Left venous angle (left subclavian + left IJV) C. SVC D. Azygos vein

B. Left venous angle (left subclavian + left IJV)

The right lymphatic duct drains: A. Whole right side + both legs B. Right head/neck, right upper limb, right thorax C. Abdomen D. Left upper limb

Right head/neck, right upper limb, right thorax

Enlargement of the left supraclavicular (Virchow) node often indicates: A. Lung infection B. Spread of abdominal malignancy C. Thyroiditis D. Tonsillitis

Spread of abdominal malignancy

Testes drain to: A. Superficial inguinal nodes B. Internal iliac nodes C. Para-aortic (lumbar) nodes D. External iliac nodes

C. Para-aortic (lumbar) nodes

Ovaries drain to: A. Internal iliac nodes B. Superficial inguinal nodes C. Para-aortic (lumbar) nodes D. Sacral nodes

Para-aortic (lumbar) nodes

Anal canal above pectinate line drains to: A. Superficial inguinal nodes B. Internal iliac nodes C. External iliac nodes D. Para-aortic nodes

B. Internal iliac nodes

Anal canal below pectinate line drains to: A. Superficial inguinal nodes B. Internal iliac nodes C. Lumbar nodes D. Sacral nodes

A. Superficial inguinal nodes

Major lymph drainage of the lateral breast: A. Parasternal nodes B. Anterior (pectoral) axillary nodes C. Posterior axillary nodes D. Apical axillary nodes

Anterior (pectoral) axillary nodes

Lung lymph initially drains to: A. Tracheobronchial nodes B. Bronchopulmonary (hilar) nodes C. Paratracheal nodes D. Parasternal nodes

Bronchopulmonary (hilar) nodes

The left lower lobe of lung has a unique drainage pattern, often to: A. Left paratracheal only B. Right tracheobronchial → right paratracheal C. Thoracic duct directly D. Parasternal nodes

Right tracheobronchial → right paratracheal

Peyer’s patches are most abundant in the: A. Duodenum B. Jejunum C. Ileum D. Colon

C. Ileum (antimesenteric border)

unit 1 introduction Flashcards

(103 cards)