Untitled Deck Flashcards by Hayley Cho

How do you know that a patient has penicillin allergy?

Skin rashes, urticaria, fever, joint pain, anaphylaxis.

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What should be added to beta-lactamase to make it more efficient against anerobes?

Co-amoxyclav

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Drug for trigeminal neuralgia?

Carbamezepine

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Most common site for squamous cell carcinoma in a patient exposed to sun-light?

Lower lip

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What is the action of glucagon?

It converts glycogen to glucose

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For minimum discomfort & maximum efficiency during scaling?

the instrument should be sharp

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Cement which requires treatment with polyacrylic acid?

Conventional glass ionomer cement

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Restoration in a MOD cavity which has caries below the contact point?

Amalgam

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Cement for cementing porcelain veneers?

Resin cement

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Walking bleach?

sodium perborate

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Cement for cementing temporary bridge?

ZOE

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Best drug for asthma?

Salbutamol

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According to Data Protection Act, the patient has access to all computerised records

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Patient with gingival inflammation, fever, malaise and lymphadenopathy?

Acute herpetic gingivostomatitis

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Patient with fatigue & excessive bleeding?

Leukaemia

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X-ray for a patient with flattened zygoma & bilateral black eyes?

10 and 30 Occipitomental view

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What is the amount of gas in the lungs at the end of tidal volume?

functional residual capacity

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What is the minimum platelet count required in a patient undergoing extraction?

50 X 10^9

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Which enzyme acts on proteins?

Pepsin

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Which enzyme acts on fats?

Lipase

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Which acid is involved in gastric reflux disease?

Hydrochloric acid

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Along with inferior alveolar nerve block & lingual nerve block, which other nerve has to be anesthetised?

long buccal nerve

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Which nerve block for upper first premolar?

middle superior alveolar nerve block

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Which cell is responsible for carrying oxygen & nutrients?

Hemoglobin(RBCs)

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Which drug to you prescribe to a patient 2 days after the extraction of a 3rd molar if the socket has not yet healed & there are 2 extra-oral draining sinuses?

Penicillin

What is not important in consent taking?

Whether the patient can read or write

X-ray in TMJ pain?

OPG

Stephen’s curve’s most important feature?

Critical ph after sugar intake

Patient comes to you after 2 years of not visiting a dentist, which radiograph will you take?

Bite-wings

Most common odontogenic cyst?

Radicular cyst

How many exposures of hepatitis vaccine is required for immunity?

Four

Where do you take support while restoring a tooth?

On the tooth

Which organism is most stable outside the body?

hep A

Viral infection for which there is a vaccine.

Mumps (MMR vaccine)

Condition expected after extracting a tooth in a smoker?

Dry socket

Most common site for facial fracture?

Nasal bone

Most common site in mandible likely to fracture?

Condylar

Second common site in mandible likely to fracture?

angle

# fracture at the angle of the mandible will cause

inferior alveolar nerve damage - paraesthesia

notched incisors seen in which condition?

Congenital syphilis

Lesion on the palate in a smoker?

Stomatitis nicotina(pipe), Necrotising siolometaplasia(cigarette)

Pic of a small cavity on the mesial surface of lower premolar which has not invaded the enamel surface.

Access occlusally with marginal ridge intact

Cyst in which white paste is seen.

Odontogenic keratocyst

Bilateral condylar # causes

classIII appearance (dropped mandible)

Zygomatic arch # causes

trismus

Orbital blow-out # causes

paresthesia of infra-orbital nerve, diplopia in upgaze

Which nerve supplies the muscles of facial expression?

Nerve VII

Which access for mesial cavity on upper incisor?

Palatal

Lesion on the lower lip.

Mucocele

Drug for herpes zoster.

Acyclovir

Lower premolar is set __ the alveolar ridge

on maxilla resorption is up and in (centripetal) mandible is down

Upper incisors are set 8-10 mm anterior to the incisive papilla.

Nerve emerging from the incisive foramen.

Nasopalatine nerve

All maxillary teeth moving together?

Le Fort I #

What is the most effective method of fluoridation?

Water fluoridation

What is the first step in a patient who has erosion?

Dietary record

Anemia in rheumatoid arthritis?

Anemia of chronic disease(warm autoimmune hemolytic anemia) (normocytic) | IgG antibodies destroy RBC at 37C secondary to infection, cancer

In which condition is intra-articular bleeding minimal?

Von Williebrand disease

Factor VIII is reduced in

Hemophilia A

Patient with allergy to penicillin.

Clindamycin

What is the role of aspirin in MI?

antiplatlet

Which antibiotic is prescribed in chronic sinusitis?

doxycyclin (amoxicillin is being used recently)

In which blood cell is the nucleus lost in the early stages?

rbc

Vitamin K antagonist?

Warfarin

Test to be done in a patient taking warfarin?

INR

Which is the most step to be taken after taking an impression?

Disinfection before sending to lab

Which drug potentiates the effect of warfarin?

azole

White lesions with reticular striae.

Lichen planus

Man with white lesions which when scrapped off leaves an erythematous area.

Acute pseudomembranous candidiasis(thrush)

White discoloration on buccal mucosa which disappear on stretching?

leukodema

12-year old children with caries experience?

38%

Condition in which epithelium separates from the connective tissue.

Mucous membrane pemphigoid

Which condition has the most tendency to become malignant?

erythroplakia Nodular or speckled leukoplakia ,erosive lichen planus , oral submucous fibrosis. (erythroplakia is the most)

What is the per centage of 5 years survival of T1NM tumour?

69% (check latest)

Immunoglobin in reaction to perfume?

IgE

Drug given to a patient with dry socket?

Metronidazole(not sure)

Drug for a patient after 3rd molar extraction?

Ibuprofen

Patient has bilateral involvement of joints and pain in the morning & small hand joints are involved.

Rheumatoid arthritis

Patient has pain in few weight bearing joints and it is better in the morning than at night?

osteoarthritis

Per centage of 12-year olds with erosion?

30%

Patient with splenomegaly & intra-oral lesions(palatal red petechia),lymphadinopathy?

epstein-barr virus: Infectious mononucleosis coxsackie A virus: hand foot and mouth ddx: AIDS - thrombocytopenic purpura which could be mistaken for kaposi's sarcoma, petechiae or blood blisters.

65-year old lady with forgetfulness & difficulty in doing daily tasks?

Alzheimer’s Disease

Picture of tongue with several small ulcers

Caeliac disease

Drug for angular cheilitis.

Miconazole gel 10 – 14 days

Antibiotic prophylaxis required in

mitral valve defect cyanotic CHD previous IE prosthetic valve replacement (5T's) | increased risk not necessitating prophylaxis include: acquired valvular

Hand sign in rheumatoid arthritis.

Ulnar deviation

What is a long-term effect of a patient who has had radiation therapy for carcinoma?

Xerostomia

Intraoral effect of patient under radiation therapy?

mucositis | dyseugesia (taste), xerostomia, caries

Which dental procedure will you perform most carefully in a patient who has had radiation therapy?

Dental extractions

What type of hypersensitivity do you find in anaphylaxis?

Type 1 | IgE

What will you see in a patient with penicillin allergy?

Skin rashes

What is the position of lower incisors in Class I malocclusion?

They lie immediately below or just posterior to the cingulum plateau of the maxillary incisors

What is the position of the lower incisors in Class II div II malocclusion?

They lie posterior to the cingulum plateau of the maxillary incisors and the maxillary incisors are retroclined

What is the position of the lower incisors in Class II div I malocclusion?

They lie posterior to the cingulum plateau of the maxillary incisors and the maxillary incisors are proclined.

Position of the lower incisors in Class III malocclusion?

They lie anterior to the cingulum plateau of the maxillary incisors.

Patient complains of pain near the salivary glands while eating & there is reduction in the flow of saliva.

Salivary calculus

Patient complains of enlargement of both parotid glands.

Mumps

Patient complains of pain on one side of the palate.

Herpes zoster

Reactivation of the herpes zoster virus causes

shingles

Most effective method of reducing infection is

sterilisation.

Most commonly used hand-wash is

chlorhexidene gluconate.

Most transmission of prions is by

the endo file

103) Experimentally the most proven method of disinfection is the washing of hands

before and after the patient

104) Which method of behaviour control is used in a child with a minimal occlusal cavity?

tell show do

106) The best restoration for a missing maxillary central incisor in an otherwise healthy mouth is

an implant

107) Which analgesic is given in a patient with peptic ulcers? Paracetamol

108) Picture of medial surface of mandible with a syringe

inferior alveolar nerve block

109) _ of LA is an adjunct to the inferior alveolar

intraligamentary injection

110) What is found in a patient with cleidocranial dysotosis?

failure of eruption, supernumerary teeth

111) Picture with a dot marked on maxillary canine. Which type of anesthesia?

buccal and palatal infiltration

112) Patient has scarce hair & missing teeth.

Ectodermal dysplasia

113) Patient with Down’s syndrome has __

immue defects

114) In hyper-ventilation

which gas has high concentration? O2

115) What is the emergency treatment of hyperventilation?

*slowed breathing, reassurance, belly breathing, not a paper bag* ??ask the patient to inhale co2 from cupped hands

116) NiTi instruments are preferred to stainless steel instruments because of

hyperflexibility, shape memory avoid ledging

117) Which glands secrete hormones into ducts?

exocrine glands | endocrine secrete into blood steam

118) Patient has oral & genital ulcerations & problems with his eye-sight.

behcet's | behcet's: oral, genital, uveitis erythema multiforme ddx

119) Posterior lobe of pituitary gland secretes __

oxytocin

120) Which hormone is secreted by the middle lobe of the pituitary gland?

melanocyte stimulating hormone

122) What causes food poisoning? salmonella

123) Type of collagen most common in PDL?

type I

124) Type of collagen second most common in PDL?

type III

125) PDL is thinnest at the

mid root region

126) PDL is thicker in adolescents as compared to adults.

127) The direction of PDL fibres is oblique.

128) PDL fibres are attached to the cementum

129) LA for a normal & healthy adult?

lignocaine

130) Which is a long acting LA?

bupivacaine

131) LA which penetrates bone the most?

articaine

132) The method of drilling a cavity without LA is the last resort when all other

vitality tests fail

133) Test to determine infectious mononeucleosis.

paul bunnell test

134) What is the normal fasting blood sugar level?

3.5-5.5mmol/mol

135) Patient with NIDDM diabetes undergoing dental procedure.

eat normally and take regular dose of metformin

136) Which drug causes severe abdominal cramps? Clindamycin

after 48 hours

138) In delayed hypersensitivity reaction the patch test should be checked

after 48 hours

What is the concentration of sodium hypochlorite used as an irrigating

2.5

140) In which case is the highest IOTN score Submerged deciduous teeth? 5

141) How many hours of C.P.D. do dentists have to complete in order to avoid being struck off the register?

250 hours

142) What is the hand-washing time that is most effective and practical? 2

143) What is the per centage of edentulous patients in UK? 13%

144) What sort of working surface is best in a clinical working environment?

Impervious

145) What is sclerotic dentine?

Secondary dentine with mineralized dentinal tubules

146) Hand sign in inflammation of hand joints in osteoarthritis.

Heberden’s nodes - bony swelling in hand

147) Hand sign in mitral valve problems.

Splinter hemorrhages

148) From what age can a person give consent for treatment?

16 years

149) Which type of consent is not present? (types are written verbal and implied)

Delegated

153) APHTOUS ULCER COMMON WITH WHICH DISEASES?

Behcet, Crohns

154) Most commonly used TEMPORARY LUTING CEMENT?

ZOE

155) DRUG USED FOR MIGRAINOUS NEURALGIA?

Ergotamine

156) DRUG USED FOR ANUG?

METRONIDAZOLE 200MG 3 TIMES DAILY FOR 3 DAYS

157) LA has the longest duration of action?

Bupivacaine

158) Respiratory disease of unknown etiology?

Sarcoidosis

159) Oral manifestation of Coliec disease?

Apthae

160) Antibiotic causing pseudomembranous colitis?

Clindamycin

161) Analgesic for patient with peptic ulcer?

Paracetamol

162) Drug of choice for MRSA?

Vancomycin

164) Fasting blood glucose levels?

3.5-5.5

165) How to measure cardiac ouput?

HR * SV

166) most oxygen exchange happen where?

Alveoli

167) which ig in type 1 hypersensitivity?

IgE

168) penicillin allergy which type of hypersensitivity?

TYPE 1

169) amalgam lichenoid reaction which type of hypersensitivity? TYPE

170) which cell type with no nucleus when mature?

RBCs

171) Action of aspirin in myocardial infarction?

ANTIPLATELET

172) Rheumatoid arthritis main hand sign?

ulnar deviation

173) Biologic width of periodontal ligament?

2mm

174) Hormone causing acromegaly?

ACTH

175) Which clotting factor affected in haemophilia A ?

factor VIII

176) Percentage of population in UK drink above low risk level?

26%

177) Percentage of population in UK who are hazardous drinkers?

23%

178) How many alcohol units in one pint of beer?

2units

179) Blue swelling on gums where lateral incisor should be but tooth missing?

Eruption cyst

180) Vesicles on one side of face?

Herpes zoster

181) First line of treatment of rampant caries? Dietary

182) Gag reflex impression technique? Distraction

183) Most abundant Ig in saliva? IgA

184) Which antibiotic get destroyed by gastric acidity?

penicillin G

185) Which element act as scavenger in amalgam?

Zinc

186) Herpes virus is it DNA or RNA?

DNA

187) Which type of diseases doesn’t get destroyed by steralization?

CJD

188) Which group of patients are more prone to infection by prion? Who had

Dura Graft before 1985

189) Drug of choice for lichen planus?

Azathioprine

190) LA used as spray for children?

Benzocaine

191) You are not using adrenaline but require vasoconstrictor?

prilocaine + felypressin

192) Angular cheilitis treatment?

Miconazole gel 10 – 14 days

193) MMR vaccine age?

13 months

194) Treatment for Denture stomatitis and resisted angular cheilitis?

Fluconazole

195) Antibiotic Treatment of choice for TB?

Rifampicin

196) What can aspirin do if given to children below 12 years?

Reye’s syndrome

197) Which anti-inflammatory drug is indicated for children?

Brufen

198) Which medication for anaerobic infection?

Metronidazole

199) Drug which potentiate Warfarin?

Azoles

200) LA safest in pregnancy?

Lignocaine

201) Which element in LA cause allergy?

PABA(para-aminobenzoic acid) sodium metabisulpite (antioxidant)

202) Which LA cause methaemoglobulineamia? Prilocaine

203) Which LA has the shortest duration of action? Mepivacaine

204) Side effects of Beta-blockers? lichenoid reactions

205) Side effect of Calcium channel blockers? gingival hyperplasia

206) Which antibiotic causes diarrhoea and abdominal cramps

(pseudomembranous colitis)? Clindamycin

207) Which antibiotic causes rash if given in the infectious mononucleosis?

Amox

Ampicillin and amoxicillin

208) What is the percentage of Chlorhexidine gel? 1%

209) What is the percentage of Chlorhexidine mouthwash? 0.2%

210) What is chlorhexidine family? Cationic biguanides

211) What is Beta-adrenergic antagonist? Salbutamol

212) What is the side effect of Chlorhexidine? Extrinsic staining

213) What is the Antibacterial element in toothpaste? triclosan

sodium laurel

sulphate or ZnCl

214) What is percentage of Duraphat fluoride varnish? 2.26%

215) Which drugs cause peptic ulcer? NSAIDS

216) What is the Flavoured topical anaesthesia? Benzocaine 20%

217) Which anaesthesia used for topical application? Lignocaine5% and

benzocaine 20%

218) Inhalational sedation is most successful with? Children

219) who is most likely to have bleeding after extraction? Patients on warfarin

220) Medication for trigeminal neuralgia? Carbamazepine

221) Medication causing constipation? Codeine

222) Which type is Epinephrine? catecholamine

223) Which type is Felypressin?

Non catecholaine vasoconstrictor

224) Best solution for hand scrubbing? Chlorhexidine gluconate and povidoneiodine

225) Concentration of Prilocaine? 3% with felypressin or 4% plain

226) Drug exacerbating asthma? NSAIDs (Aspirin. Ibuprofen)

227) Normal range for the INR? 0.8–1.2

228) What is Stepwise excavation? Bacteriostatic dressing Calcium hydroxide

plus GI

229) A tumour that spreads along neural sheath of the submandibular or

parotid gland? Adenoid cystic carcinoma

230) Commonest carcinoma in the mouth? Squamous cell carcinoma

231) Commonest site for squamous cell carcinoma inside the mouth? Tongue

232) Which LA penetrates the bone the most? Articaine

233) Main action of saliva? buffering

234) Which immunoglobulin is present after a bacterial and viral infection? IgG

235) Which immunoglobulin is pentameric? IgM

236) What is the role of HCO3 in saliva? Buffering action

237) What are the end products of CO2 metabolism? Hco3

238) What combines with O2 to distribute it to the tissues? Haemohlobin

239) What bind irreversibly with haemoglobin? Carbon monoxide

240) Which anion is present in bone?

Phosphate

241) Which virus most stable outside the body?

Hep C Next is Hep B

242) How will you dispose newspaper? Non-clinical waste (black bag)

243) How will you dispose clinical waste? Orange bag

244) What is the Prions composed of? protiens

245) Which virus causes hand foot and mouth disease? Coxsakie A virus

246) Which cells are predominant in periodontal ligament? fibroblast

247) Which cells are present in chronic inflammation? Plasma cells

248) Which cells are present in acute inflammation? neutrophils

249) Which suture material is banned in UK? catgut

250) How many cpd hrs do the nurses need from july 2008? 150/5 years cycle

251) How many cpd hrs do the dentists need? 250/5 years cycle

252) Which is the most benign lymphoma? Burkitt’s lymphoma

253) How can u locate the apex other than a radiograph? Apex locator

254) Which cells are present in chronic periodontitis? Plasma cells

255) Which cells are present in acute periodontitis? neutrophils

256) In which condition does the basement membrane separate?

MMP

membrane pemphigoid

257) What term do you give to excessive WBC? Leukocytosis

258) What group is a neutrrophil? Granulocyte

259) BMI-the lowest level yond which someone is obese? 30

260) how you describe saliva in relation to plasma? Hypotonic

261) Best pulp protector? Dentine

262) which type of hepatitis comes through the oro-faecal rout? HepA

263) Which type of hepatitis is more important in dentistry? HepB

264) A dentists suspects he has contracted HIV infection what should he do?

Consult the occupational health centre

265) Which virus cause Kaposi sarcoma? HSV-8

266) Down’s syndrome which gene is affected? trisomy 21

267) Best radiograph for class 2 div 1 malocclusion? lateral cephalometrics

268) What vitamins action is countered by Warfarin? Vit K

269) Best analgesic for a 12 year old asthmatic? paracetamol

270) The most likely food to cause erosin? coke

271) Best way to assess erosive food cause? diet diary

272) In which injury is the pulp likely to remain vital? concussion

273) All maxillary teeth are moving together? le forte 1 fracture

274) Which facial fracture cause elongated or dish face? Le forte 2 and 3

275) A fair coloured man working in the sun which is the most likely area of a

malignancy? Lower lip

276) Hormone produced by the islet of Langerhans by the beta cells? Insulin

277) Hormone produced by the islet of Langerhans by the alpha cells?

Glucagon Insulin by beta cells

278) Hormone produced in the adrenal cortex & which increases in stress?

Cortisol

279) Nerve passing through optic canal? Optic nerve

280) Drug is most likely to cause rashes in infectious mononucleosis?

Ampicillin and amoxicillin

281) If a salivary gland on one side are stimulated what will the response be

like? bilateral

282) Which drug is given three times a day? amoxicillin

283) Hand sign of Rheumatoid arthritis? ulnar deviation

284) Hand sign of Osteoarthritis? Heberden's node

285) Hand sign of Raynaud's disease? Raynaud’s phenomenon

286) Hand sign of lung diseases? Finger clubbing

287) Hand signs of endocarditis

Splinter haemorrhage

288) Muscle involved in closing the oropharyngeal isthmus? Palateglossus

289) Which structure gives guidance to the placement of maxillary incisors on

dentures? Incisive papilla

290) Drug avoid in asthmatics? Aspirin

291) Virus associated with hairy leukoplakia? EBV

292) Way of 1mg of glucagon is given? I.M

293) Failure of closure of vertebral arches?

Spina Bifida

294) Which cells are usually not seen in the pulp? Osteoclast

295) Percentage of UK fluoridated water? 10%

296) Which antibiotic is contraindicated in lactating mothers? Metronidazole

297) Age of MMR vaccine? 13 months

298) Micro organism resilient to decontamination and sterilization? prions

299) Time for hand washing? 2 minutes

301) Which colour of bag is used to dispose of clinical waste? Orange

302) Which type of hypersensitivity is seen in a patient who is allergic to latex and kiwi?

Type 1

303) Infectious mononucleosis is caused by which virus? EBV

304) Tetany is caused by? decreased calcium

305) 55yr old lady with increased production of growth hormone? acromegaly

306) 2yr old boy with increased production of growth hormone? Gigantism

307) Patient with iatrogenic overproduction of ACTH? Cushing syndrome

308) Patient with endogenous overproduction of ACTH? Cushing disease

309) Which drug is used for the systemic treatment of candidiasis? Fluconazole

310) Which of these drugs stabilizes mast cells

stopping release of histamine?

Salbutamol

311) Commonest site for oral cancer? Lower lip

312) Commonest site for malignant melanoma in the mouth? Palate

313) In which condition is there a separation of epithelium at the basement

314) In which condition will direct immunoflourescence reveal binding of

autoantibodies to the intercellular substance of epithelial cells? Pemphigus

315) Concentration of chlorhexidine mouth wash commonly used in uk? 0.2%

316) Concentration of chlorhexidine gel commonly used in uk? 1%

317) Level of IgA in saliva>breast milk>tears>serum

318) On radiograph

a mutilocular radioluscency in the region of the

angle/ramus of the mandible

what is the most likely diagnosis? ameloblastoma

319) which group of people are not required to be registered with the GDC by July 2008?

Practice managers

July 2008? Practice manegers

320) Which radiographic view will you use for orthodontic assessment?

Cephalometric

322) Which clotting factors are associated with VON WILLEBRAND’S disease?

Factor VIII

323) Which clotting factors are associated with Haemophilia A? Factor VIII

324) Stephan’s curve represents change in ph of saliva after sugar intake

325) Which of the following is most important in the development of dental

caries? Frequency of sugar intake

326) What is composition of GIC?

Aluminosilicate glass & polyacrylic acid

327) Which leukoplakia is most likely to turn malignant? Speckled and nodular

328) What percentage of oral submucous fibrosis become malignant? 5 – 8%

329) Which medicine to avoid in asthmatics? Aspirin

330) What drug is used for the management of type 1 diabetes? Insulin

331) What is the age of onset for type 1 diabetes? Below 25 years

332) What vaccine is used to prevent TB? BCG

333) What component of amalgam was formerly used as a scavenger but is now no longer widely used?

Zinc

334) What component of amalgam gives it strength? COPPER

335) What kind of lichen planus is more likely to turn malignant? erosive

336) Lack of what vitamin causes sub acute degeneration of the spinal cord?

B12

337) What is the dose of aspirin for myocardial infarction? 300 mg

338) mucocele

where is it usually found? Lower lip

339) How would you treat a mucocele? Excision with underlying gland

340) What type of virus is hepatitis A? RNA

341) What is the commonest cause of Cushing’s disease? Pituitary adenoma

342) At rest what gland produces 2/3 of saliva? Submandibular gland

343) Features of epithelial dysplasia?

Hypochromatism

344) What antibiotic is used to treat ANUG? metronidazole

345) What hormone reduces blood glucose? insulin

346) What hormone increases blood glucose? glucagon

347) What part of the nervous system is responsible for fight or flight?

Sympathetic

348) What enzyme assists microorganisms when they are causing dentine caries?

Lactoferrin

349) How many CPD hours for dentists are verifiable? 75 hours

350) What ion acts as a second messenger? calcium

351) Recommended daily fluoride supplement?

Less than 0.3 ppm Less than 0.7ppm more than 0.7ppm

0.5 – 3 years 0.25mg

3 – 6 years 0.5 mg 0.25 mg

Over 6 years 1 mg 0.5 mg

352) Question on tunnel preparation

in what type of furcation would you use

this technique? Grade II and III furcation

353) Chron’s disease oral manifestation? Cobblestone mucosa

354) LA has shortest duration of action? MEPIVACAINE

356) LA causes methaemoglobinaemia? Prilocaine

357) What is the effect of exercise on cardiac output

heart rate

mean arterial pressure

Pulse pressure and End-diastolic volume? All increase

358) What is the effect of exercise on total peripheral resistance? Decrease

359) Which nerve is affected if a patient is unable to gaze laterally to the left?

Left abducens

360) Which nerve is affected if the tongue deviates to the right when

protruded? Right hypoglossal

361) Ramsey Hunt’s syndrome is a complication of which virus? Herpes zoster

362) Which type of hypersensitivity is seen in tuberculosis? Type 4

363) What are u most likely to see in a patient with erythema multiforme?

target skin lesions

364) Which dental hard tissue is 45% mineralized and resorbs slower than

bone? cementum

365) Percentage of UK fluoridated water? 10 %

366) What ion is factor 4? calcium

367) What drugs are inhibited by beta lactamase? Penicillin

368) Which drug contain co-amoxyclav? augmentin

369) Which of these infections would cause congenital deafness? rubella

370) A 60 year old man on anti-hypertensive has gingival enlargement what

drug can cause it? Amlodipine (calcium channel blocker)

371) Fluoride treatment for a child with high caries rate? Application of 2.2%

duraphat 2 time yearly

372) A picture of a man who can’t open his mouth properly for treatment

what

condition does he have? scleroderma

373) If a person has pockets of 6mm what BPE score does the person have? 4

374) BCG VACCINATION TIME OF IT? 13 – 15 years and neonates in high risk

375) What is Thick muscle fibres? are one of the two types of protein filaments

that

together form cylindrical structures call myofibrils and which extend along

the length of muscle fibres. they are formed from a proteins called myosin

grouped in bundles

376) What is Thin muscle fibres? are formed from three proteins called actin

troponin and tropomyosin.

377) which cranial nerve has branch into abdomin? Vagus

378) chrom cobalt

stainless steel

modulus of elasticity? Chrom cobalt has least modulus and NITI has highest

(NITI>GOLD>STAINLESS STEEL>CHROM COBALT)

379) what is the functions of GDC? To maintain dentists register and to

supervise the standards of dental education

380) Age of onset of type 1 diabetes? Under 25

381) Mast cells stabiliser? Salbutamol

382) What is Turner tooth? This term used to describe the effect of a

disturbance of enamel and dentine formation by infection from an overlying

primary tooth

therefore usually affecting premolar teeth.

383) If patient on azathioprine what is most likely to happen to bone?

Fractures due to bone marrow suppression

384) If he is on warfarin he is likely to have? bleeding after extraction

385) Amount of fluoride ppm in water? 1ppm

386) Ideal method of providing fluoridation to society? Water fluoridation

387) Which cement is placed after treating with polyacrylic acid? GIC

388) PROFESSIONAL PERFOMANCE COMMITTEE AND ITS DUTIES? The PrPC

is charged with determining whether or not a registrant’s fitness to

practise is impaired by reason of his or her performance. Where fitness to

practise is found to be impaired

the PrPC decides whether to impose a

direction.

389) BEST OPTION FOR PT WITH DENTURE STOMATITIS+RESISTED

ANGULAR CHEILITIS? Fluconazole

390) WHO DOESN’T NEED TO BE REGISTERED BY 31 OF JULY? Practice

managers

391) MAXIMUM RECOMMENDED ALCOHOL UNITS FOR MEN PER WEEK? 21

392) MAXIMUM RECOMEMMENDED ALCOHOL UNITS FOR WOMAN PER

WEEK? 14

393) ALCOHOL UNITS IN A PINT? 2

394) DENTURE COMES OUT WHEN A PERSON EATS AN APPLE? LACK OF

RETENTION

395) IRRIGANT USED FOR IRRIGATION OF ROOT CANAL? SODIUM

HYPOCHLORITE

396) DRUG USED FRO LICHEN PLANUS? AZATHIOPRINE( not sure )

397) HOW LONG THE AVULSED TOOTH CAN STAY OUT THE MOUTH FOR

SUCCESSFUL REIMPLANTATION? 30 MINUTES

398) IRRIGANT USED TO REMOVE THE SMEAR LAYER OF THE TOOTH? EDTA

399) WHICH KIND OF MATERIAL USED FOR WIRES FOR ORTHODONTICS?

stainless steel

400) NON-VERIFIABLE CPD FOR A DENTIST? 175 HOURS

401) NON-VERIFIABLE CPD FOR A NURSE? 100 HOURS

402) VARIFIABLE CPD FOR A DENTIST? 75 HOURS

403) VERIFIABLE CPD FOR A NURSE? 50 HOURS

404) Who fabricate dentures? Dental technician

405) Ulnar deviation and xerostomia characteristics of? Secondary sjogren

syndrom

406) type of body of type 1 diabetes? Slim

407) type of body of type 2 diabetes? Overweight

408) In allergic rhinitis what would be elevated? IgE

eisinophils and mast cells

409) Treatment for mucocele? Excision with underlying gland

410) Which nerve makes patient to look upwards and outwards? Trochlear

nerve

411) Angina emergency drug? aspirin 300mg

412) At what degree gutta-percha is dissolved? 100 c

413) Which immunoglobulin in anaphylaxis? IgE

414) After injury and contact or something about soil? Tetanus

415) Measles is it DNA or RNA? RNA

416) Most likely to be acquired after needle stick injury? Hep B(not sure may

be hep c)

417) Precursor cells of platelets? Megakariocytes

418) Least level of platelets that you can do extraction? 50*10

419) Pituitary gland

hormone of middle part? Melanocyte stimulating

hormone

420) Dental characteristics in patient with bulimia? palatal surface erosion

421) Child that cannot swallow and need antibiotic prophylaxis but is allergic

to penicillin? Azythromicin

422) Which of the following analgesics produce constipation after 5 days of

taking it? Codeine

423) Patient with peptic ulcer which analgesic would you prescribe?

PARACETAMOL

424) Percentage of people without decay between 10 to 12 years old in 2003?

0.66

425) Percentage of edentulous patients in England and Scotland? 12% and

18% respectively

426) Infection in urinary tract

which bacteria? E.coli

427) Which is the acid produced in the stomach? Hydrochloridric acid

428) Where does the exocrine gland put its secretion? duct

429) Which of the following options given is a typical exocrine gland? sweating

gland (sebaceous gland)

430) What is the hand sign of Iron deficiency anaemia? Koilonychia

431) Which are the normal levels of fasting blood glucose? 3.5 – 5.5

432) Where do you put your fingers while scaling to get support? Tooth

433) Internal bleaching

which is the most common material that is used for

that? sodium perborate

434) Vital and home bleaching

which is the most common material used?

Hydrogen or carbamide peroxide

435) Which is the function of posts? increase retention of core

436) Stephan curve what does it shows? pH of saliva after sugar intake

437) Nerve passing through nasopalatine canal? Nasopalatine nerve

438) which nerve is anaesthetized for flap elevation for apicectomy in lateral

incisor? Anterior superior alveolar nerve

439) Most important factor in retention of post? Length

440) Sodium hypochlorite concentration used in endo? 1-5% usually 2.5%

441) Cavity test (drilling)

when do you use it as vitality test? When all other

tests have failed

442) What you can check outside patients mouth in articulator? Trial wax

443) What does Fracture of 2 condyles cause? causes class III appearance and

dropped mandible

444) What does Le Fort 1 fracture cause? causes maxilla and teeth to move

together

445) What does Fracture of zygomatic arch cause? causes trismus

446) What is the post-treatment effect of radiation therapy?

osteoradionecrosis

447) Which cells are usually not seen in the pulp? Osteoclasts

osteoblast

cementoclast and cementoblast all are not in the pulp

448) What condition is caused by failure of closure of vertebral arches? Spina

Bifida

449) Which muscle is required to close the oro-pharyngeal isthmus?

Palatoglossus

450) What is the composition on glass ionomer cement? Aluminosilicate galss

and liquid is polyacrylic acid

451) lesion near the eye of a man? dermoid cyst

452) What is the percentage of patients with oral submucous fibrosis become

malignant? 5 -8%

453) At what age is the MMR vaccine given? 13 months

454) Which antibiotic is contraindicated in lactating mothers? Tetracycline

455) Weight gain & intolerance to cold? Hypothyroidism

456) Condition which is relieved by sleeping on 3-4 pillow? heart failure

457) What is the most likely site in the lung that the inhaled tooth can be in?

Right main bronchus

458) Swelling of inter-pharngeal joints(Heberden's node)? Osteoarthritis

459) Calcium deposits into joints? gout

460) Average width of periodontal ligament? 0.2 mm

461) What type of organism is streptococcus viridians? G-positive cocci

facultative anaerobes

462) Strength of amalgam depends on? copper

463) Which valve is present between the right atrium & the right ventricle?

tricuspid

464) Drug given 3 times a day? amoxycillin

465) 1 mg of glucagons to be given to an unconscious diabetic patient? Intramuscularly

466) Hormone produced by the islet of Langerhans by the beta cells? Insulin

467) Hormone produced in the adrenal cortex & which increases in stress?

Cortisol

468) Tightness in the chest

wheezing

469) Crushing pain in the chest accompanied by vomiting? Myocardial

infarction

470) Crushing pain in the chest radiating to arm & relieved by sub-lingual

glyceryl trinitrate? Angina

471) Buffering action of saliva is due to? Bicarbonates

472) Dose of aspirin for angina? 300mg

473) What behaviour method will you choose in a co-operative

accompanied

child? Tell

show

474) Impression taking in an apprehensive adult with gag reflex? distraction

475) Ulnar deviation is seen in which condition? rheumatoid arthritis

476) Which nerve passes through the parotid gland? facial nerve

477) What is the average respiratory rate for adults? 12/min

478) What is the average respiratory rate for children? 25/min

479) After what percentage of blood loss should transfusion be given? 20%

480) Which artery passes through the parotid gland? external carotid artery

481) Which vein passes near the base of the parotid gland? retromandibular

vein

482) Acute pseudomembranous candidiasis is associated with which disease?

Hiv or diabetes

483) Which nerve passes through the optic canal? Optic nerve

484) Which structure gives guidance to the placement of maxillary incisors?

Incisive papilla

485) What type of secretion is the parotid gland? serous

486) Where does the duct of the parotid gland open? buccal to maxillary

second molar

487) Which immunoglobin is pentameric? IgM

488) Most common odontogenic cyst in the UK? Radicular cyst

489) Test more important before exodontia? INR

490) How far from the papilla would you place anterior teeth on a denture? 8 –

10 mm

491) What is less important when taking consent form? was the pt doesn’t

know how to read and write

492) Cement used for veneers? Resin cement

493) Cement used for temporary crowns? ZOE

494) Cement used for pulp capping? CALCIUM HYDROXIDE

495) What makes scaling easier and less exhausting? Sharpness of the

instrument

496) Most stable virus outside the body? Hep A

497) Most likely to be malignant: erythroplakia

498) Most common food poisoning bacteria in the UK? Salmonella typhe

499) Forgetful pt 65 years old? Alzheimer

500) Reduction in red

white cells and platelets? pancytopenia

501) Patient that bites tongue and has a lesion? Fibrous polyp

502) Pregnant patient with a lump

plaque accumulation? Pyogenic granuloma

503) Stroke volume how do you measure it? SV =EDV -ESV

504) Tidal volume? 500 ml

505) Most common Collagen in periodontal ligament? Type I

506) Second most common collagen type in periodontal ligament? Type III

507) Periodontal ligament of adolescent in comparison to adult? Wider

508) Width of periodontal ligament? 0.2mm

509) Predominant fibres in periodontal ligament? oblique

510) In periodontal ligament where are the fibres thinner? Middle

511) Patient prone to develop pigmentation and skin cancer? Xeroderma

pigmentosa

512) Cells in granulomatosis inflammation? macrophages

513) Which instrument carries prion? Endo file (any neurosurgery instrument)

514) Test for infectious mononucleosis? Paul Bunnell test

515) In delayed hypersensitivity test what time should the reaction be seen?

48-72 hours

516) Hypersensitivity type in amalgam lichenoid reaction? Type 4

517) Hypersensitivity reaction in pt with rash after antibiotics? Type I

518) Which cranial nerve innervates facial muscles? VII Facial N

519) Ph normal of blood? 7.35 – 7.45

520) Where you dispose wedges? Sharps

521) How long Nayarr core should go through root? 4- 6mm

522) Which options is mandatory during doing inhalation sedation? Pulse

oximetry

523) Which material is polished the best? Microfilled composite resin

524) Picture of palate with many vesicle-like lesions on only left

side

asked what is the diagnosis? HERPES ZOSTER

525) A 30 years old man with a lip lesion

he had come back

from holiday recently and his new partner had this lesion as well

that healed recently. What is the diagnosis? Herpes simplex

526) A young boy with oral ulcers in the mouth and on lip which is

bloody crusted? Erythema multiform

527) Which grade of IOTN is the hypodontia (more than one tooth missing

in every quad)? Grade 5

528) Which grade of IOTN is the cleft lip and palate? Grade 5

529) What is the depth of curing composite? 2 mm

530) Angioneurotic odema is characaterised by which esterase inhibitor? C1

esterase inhibitor

531) Block given to anaethetize buccal side in 3rd molar extraction? Long

buccal

532) Infective endocartitis is caused by which bacteria? Streptococcus

viridians

533) ACTH is produced by which gland? Anterior pituitary

534) Which gland produces cortisol? Adrenal cortex

535) Most common Site for Cohrn’s disease? Ileum and caecum

536) Warfarin antagonist? Vitamin k

537) Type of cell that resorbs bone? Osteoclast

538) Which salivary gland gives the major contribution at rest? Submandibular

539) Which salivary gland gives the major contribution at function? parotid

540) The most important factor in replacing an avulsed tooth? Time

541) The angle between the prepared and unprepared surfaces in amalgam

restoration occlusal? 90o

542) The angle between the prepared and unprepared surfaces in amalgam

restoration genial? 110o

543) End product of protein metabolism? Amino acids

544) Which lab investigation you would do like temporal arthritis? ESR

545) Abo blood reaction is what type of hypersensitivity? Type 2

546) What substances are increased in a diabetic coma? ketone

547) Potential at the SA node? Pacemaker

548) Patient with breathlessness and sleeps with 4 pillows? Orthopnia or heart

failure

549) Safest material for vital pulpotomy? ferrous sulphate

550) The diameter of the scaler? should be less to have more efficiency

551) Mode of action of Trimetroprim? inhibit synthesis of tetrahydrofolic acid

552) Mode of action of Ciprofloxacin? inhibit DNA gyrase metabolism

553) Mode of action Acyclovir? inhibitor of viral DNA polymerase

554) Where to store the tooth before getting to the surgery? inside mouth with

saliva

555) Treatment for pt with gingival hyperplasia due to epilepsy medication?

gingivectomy

556) Epulis is a characteristic of which condition? pregnancy

557) What helps not to get tired while scaling related with the size of the

handle of the curette? less diameter

558) Curettes – shank

which part of it has to be parallel to the long axis of the

tooth? lower part

559) Name of instrument for survey models? Surveyor

560) Position of unerupted canine

which is the best xray technique to identify

its position? parallax techinique

561) Extraction of 3

rd molar with dentigerous cyst in the angle of the mandible

superior and inferior border of mandible very thin. What can happen during the

extraction? Fracture of the mandible

562) DENTURE MOVES ON BITING-WHAT NEED TO ENHANCE? retention

563) AMALGAM TATOO TREATMENT? excision

564) ADAM’S CLASP IS MADE OF WHAT? Stainless steel wire

565) MOST COMMON MATERIAL FOR CLASPS OF PD? cobalt chromium( not

sure )

566) MOST RETENTIVE TYPE OF POSTS? threaded post

567) BEST CONTRAST OF RADIOGRAPHY RELATED TO? the film

568) WHICH AREA IN THE UK HAS BEST ORAL CONDITION? South

569) %OF CHILDREN HAVING PLAQUE ON THEIR TEETH...? 5 years 50%

years 76%

12 years 73%

570) WICH IG EXIST AS A MONOMER AND DIAMER? iga

571) WHICH IS THE SECRETORY IG? Iga

572) WHICH IG IS THE FIRST TO BE FOUND WHEN THE CHILD IS BORN? igg

573) WHICH MEDICATION FOR ANAEROBIC INFECTION? METRONIDAZOLE

574) WHICH ANTIBIOTIC CAUSES PEUDOMEMBRANOUS COLITIS?

clindamycin

575) WHICH ANTIBIOTIC IS USED IN MRSA? vancomycin

576) WHAT DOES”P” STAND FOR IN RPI? rest plate ibar

577) WHAT TYPE OF RADIOGRAPH IS TAKEN PRIOR TO ORTHOGNATIC

SURGERY? cephalometric

578) WHAT IS THE CONCENTRATION OF CHLORHEXIDINE GEL? 1%

579) WHAT IS CONCENTRATION OF MOUTHWASH? 0.2%

580) WHICH TYPE OF CELLS IS SEEN IN THE EARLY STAGE OF CHRONIC

PERIODONTITIS? Lymphocytes

581) WHICH TYPE OF CELLS SEEN IN LATE STAGE OF CHRONIC

PERIODONTITIS? PLASMA CELLS

582) FISSURE SEALANTS FOR 1

ST MOLAR BEST AGE? 6-7

583) ASTHMATIC PATIENT AFTER EXTRACTION ANALGESIC? PARACETAMOL

584) CLAUSTROPHOBIA: is the fear of having no escape and being closed in

(opposite: claustrophilia). It is typically classified as an anxiety disorder and

often results in panic attack

585) HYPOCHONDRIASIS : (sometimes referred to as health phobia or health

anxiety) refers to excessive preoccupation or worry about having a serious

illness. An individual suffering from hypochondriasis is known as a

hypochondriac

586) OBSESSIVE COMPALSIVE DISORDER: Obsessive–compulsive disorder

(OCD) is an anxiety disorder characterized by intrusive thoughts that produce

uneasiness

apprehension

reducing anxiety

or by a combination of such thoughts (obsessions) and

behaviors (compulsions)

587) PRIMARY IMPORTANCE OF CONSENT? CARE OF PATIENT

588) OROFACIAL GRANULOMATOSIS MANIFESTATION MORE COMMON OF?

CHRON’S DISEASE.

589) WHAT IS THE CONCENTRATION OF LIGNOCAINE IN TOPICAL

ANAESTHTIC? 5%

590) PAGET’S DISEASE:ALKALINE PHOSPHATASE INCREASED

591) HOW MANY OF ALL THE CANCERS IN THE UK ARE ORAL IN

PERCENTAGE?2%

592) HOW MANY DEATHS IN THE UK EACH YEAR CAUSED BY ORAL

CANCER?1700

593) SQUAMOS CELL CARCINOMA DIAGNOSIS? INCISIONAL BIOPSY

594) WHAT IS THE MOST PREDICTABLE ANAESTHETIC TECHNIQUE FOR

LOWER LATERAL INCISOR? INFILTRATION

595) WHAT IS THE MOST PREDICTABLE ANAESTHETIC TECHNIQUE FOR

LOWER MOLARS? ID BLOCK

596) IF YOU STIMULATE THE SALIVARY FLOW IN ONE SIDE OF THE MOUTHWHERE DOES THE SALIVA APPEAR? biLATERAL

597) NITROS OXIDE.IS IT SOLUBLE OR INSOLUBLE IN BLOOD? Insoluble

598) WHICH SUTURE MATERIAL IS BANNED IN THE UK? Catgut

599) Grinspan syndrome: essential hypertension

diabetes mellitus & oral

lichen planus. Oral lichen planus is thought to be a result of the drugs used for

treatment of hypertension & diabetes mellitus but this is not confirmed.

600) WHICH IGIS PRESENT AFTER A BACTERIAL AND VIRAL INFECTION? Igg

601) WHICH DENTAL TISSUE IS 45%MINERALIZED AND RESORBS SLOWER

THAN BONE? CEMENTUM

602) ON RADIOGRAPH

A MULTILOCULAR RADIOLUCENCY IN THE REGION OF

THE ANGLE OF THE MANDIBLE.WHAT IS THE MOST LIKELY?

AMELOBLASTOMA

603) BEST PULP PROTECTOR? Dentin

604) WHICH TYPE OF HEPATITIS COMES THROUG THE ORAL FAECAL

ROUTE? HEP A

605) WHICH HEPATITIS IS THE MOST IMPORTANT IN DENTISTRY? HEP B

606) COMMON TUMOUR IN HIV? KAPOSIS SARCOMA

607) IDEAL TIME FOR HAND SCRUBBING? 2 MINUTES

608) MICRO ORGANISM ASSOCIATED WITH HAIRY LEUKOPLAKIA? EBV

609) Best radiograph to diagnose approximal and occlusal caries? BITEWING

610) What’s the BMI (body mass index) for obesity? 30 or greater

611) Immunoglobulin which crosses placenta? IgG

612) Crown fracture with pulp exposure. Patient comes 5 days later. What’s the

treatment? RCT

613) Which salivary gland gives the major contribution at rest? Submandibular

614) And when stimulated (more than 2/3 contribution)? Parotid

615) Down Syndrome – trissomy of which chromosome? 21

616) Down Syndrome – intraoral characteristic? Macroglossia

617) Emphysema: destruction of alveoli

618) Tumour in salivary gland which spreads along nerve sheaths? adenoid

cystic carcinoma

619) Which cell release histamine? Mast cells

620) Which immunoglobulin is present in hypersensitivity type I? IgE

621) Ehlers-Danlos Syndrome: Pulp stones

622) What can you reach during ID block? Parotid

623) Burkitt’s lymphoma: EBV

624) Where a salivary gland tumour has more chance to be malignant?

SUBLINGUAL

625) Most frequent site of Kaposi’s sarcoma? palate

626) Aspirin function? anti-platelet

627) Neutrphils family? granulocytes

628) Emergency box colour? white cross on a green background

629) Best interdental cleaning for perio patients? DENTAL FLOSS

630) SPECIAL SYRINGE FOR SOFT TISSUE ANAESTHESIA?

INTRALIGAMENTARY

631) YOU ADVISED A PT NOT TO EAT FOR ONE HOUR AFTER AN INFERIOR ID

BLOCK.WHAT LIKELY TO HAPPEN IF HE DOESN’T FOLLOW THE INSTRUCTION?

LIP AND CHEECK TRAUMA

632) WHAT IS THE REASON FOR LABIAL AND PALATAL INFILTRATION

ANAESTHESIA ON LATERAL INCISOR NOT TO ACT? LOCAL INFECTION

633) WHAT IS THE CRITICAL PERIOD AFTER AN ATTACK OF MYOCARDIAL

INFRACTION THAT NO PROCEDURE CAN BE CARRIED OUT? 6 MONTHS

634) IN WHICH CONDITION DO YOU FIND MULTILOCULAR RADIOLUCENCY

AT THE ANGLE OF MANDIBLE? AMELOBLASTOMA

635) PAIN AS ELECTRIC SHOCK LIKE.HE CAN NOT SHAVE AS IT TRIGGERS

THE PAIN AND REMAINS FOR FEW MINUTES? TRIGEMINAL NEURALGIA

636) A MAN HAS AN ULCER ON HIS TONGUE

WHICH HAS ROLLED OUT

BORDERS AND IS INDURATED? SQUAMOUS CELL CARCINOMA

637) WHAT IS THE % OF 25 YEAR OLDS WITH PERIODONTITIS IN THE UK?

0.64

638) Question on hand scrubbing? Hand washing before seeing a patient and

after seeing

639) Best solution used for hand scrubbing? Chlorhexidine gluconate

640) Radiograph taken for zygoma fracture? OM View.

641) A patient with gingivitis

how is it treated? chlorhexidine gluconate.

642) What is required to increase the efficiency and decrease the fatigue of

Universal curette? sharp

parallel to long axis of tooth surface

should be parallel to tooth surface

light weight

modified pen grasp (not sure)

643) non cavitated distal caries with intact marginal ridge of 2

nd premolar and

asked to choose the access to caries? occlusal access without involving the

marginal ridge.

644) Picture of cavitated mesial caries with marginal ridge involvement of 1st molar and asked to choose the access to caries?

occlusal access involving marginal ridge

646) midline diastema –to identify the reason-thick frenum

647) Material used for root caries of xerostomic patient-

Conventional GIC (not sure)

648) Ni-Ti instruments-quality that makes it better than stainless steel?

superelasticity

649) what can we check before trial on the patient? Anatomic tooth position.

651) Flouride content in toothpaste for a child of 4 yrs.(Ans: 500 ppm)

652) Flouride content in toothpaste for a child of 10 yrs.(Ans: 1400 ppm)

653) Flouride content in toothpaste for parents.(Ans: 1400 ppm)

654) Ideal method of providing fluoridation to society.(Ans: Water

fluoridation)

655) Ideal ppm in water fluoridation .(Ans:1ppm)

656) Medicine causing constipation? Dihydrocodiene.

657) Analgesic for pain after 2 days of extraction? Ibuprofen.

658) A patient underwent radiotherapy 10 yrs back.5 subquestions were asked. a. if this patient undergoes a third molar extraction he is likely to have –__ b. if he is on warfarin he is likely to have __ c. if his third molar lies close to ID nerve __ d. if he gets infection of molar __ if he takes steroid and azathioprine __

a. dry docket b. prolonged bleeding c. paraesthesia d. osteomyelitis e. steroids - osteoporosis therefore fracture; azathioprine - macrocytic anaemia

659) Age for giving consent? 16

660) WHICH VIRUS IS LEAST STABLE OUTSIDE THE BODY? HIV

662) WHAT CELLS SEEN IN CHRONIC INFLAMATION? PLASMA CELLS

663) ID BLOCK WHICH MUSCLE IS PIERCED? buccinator

664) WHICH MUSCLE IS RESPONSIBLE FOR MOVING FOOD FROM BUCCAL SULCUS B/W TEETH DURING MASTICATION?

BUCCINATOR

665) ANGIONEUROTIC OEDEMA IS CHARACTERISED BY WHICH ESTERASE INHIBITOR?

666) WHERE SHOULD TEETH BE PLACED IN UPPER JAW REGARDING INCISAL FORAMEN?

8-10MM

667) RADIOGRAPHS FOR IMPACTED CANINES? PARALLAX

668) MAN WITH CANDIDIASIS

GENERAL LYMPHADENOPATHY? HIV

669) MACHINE USED TO MEASURE LUNG FANCTION? SPIROMETER

670) WHAT PART OF PITUITARY PARTIALLY CONTROLS THE ADRENAL?

671) WHICH TYPE HYPERSENSITIVITY INVOLVED IN BLOOD TRANSFUSION?

TYPE 2

672) WHICH TYPE OF HYPERSENSITIVITY IS SEEN TO LATEX AND KIWI?

TYPE1

673) IN WHICH CONDITION WILL DIRECT IMMUNOFLOURESCENCE REVEAL BINDING OF AUTOANTIBODIES TO THE INTERCELLULAR SUBSTANCE OF EPITHELIAL CELLS?

PEMPHIGUS VULGARIS

674) WHAT TERM DO YOU GIVE FOR EXCESSIVE WBCs? LEUKOCYTOSIS

675) CAUSE OF COMMON COLD? rhinovirus and CORONAVIRUS

676) INFECTION WITH MUMPS VIRUS PRVENTABALE BY WHAT? MMR

677) THE MOST SENSITIVE TEST FOR THE DIAGNOSIS OF HERPES SIMPLEX?

HSV POLYMERASE CHAIN REACTION

678) WHAT IS THE MATERIAL ADDED TO INCREASE AMALGAM STRENGTH?

COPPER

679) ANTICALCULUS IN TOOTHPASTE? SODIUM PYROPHOSPHATE

680) GTN ROOT OF ADMINISTARTION? SUBLINGUAL

681) SALBUTAMOL ADMINISTRATION? INHALATION

682) GLUCAGON ADMINISTRATION? -IM

683) ASPIRIN- ADMINISTRATION? ORALLY

684) DIAZEPAM ADMINISTRATION? IM.

685) Heart burn is it worse lying down or Standing? Lying down

686) Rate of respiration per minute for adults? 12/min

687) Rate of respiration per minute for children? 25/min

688) Ig responsible for the 2ry response? IgG

689) Spina bifida is due to which genetic anomaly? incomplete closing of the

embryonic neural tube (vertebral arches)

690) What is scavenger in amalgam alloy? Zn

691) Which root filling technique use a handpiece? Thermomechanical

THERMOMECHANICAL COMPACTION

692) Patient with general fatigue and pain in temple region? Temporal arteritis

693) What is the maximum INR acceptable for extraction? 4

694) Angiography or arteriography? is a medical imaging technique used to

VISUALIZE LUMEN

695) What is the arterial pressure for 02and C02? Arterial PO2=100 PCO2=40

696) nitrous oxide is it soluble or insoluble in blood? Insoluble

697) which valve is more prone to damage in rheumatic fever? Mitral

698) Name of ZOE root canal sealer in two paste? Tubliseal

699) how far should you fill a canal in relation to the apex? 0.5 – 1 mm short

700) Goldish crust ulceration at the corner of the mouth in a complete denture

REDUCED VERTICAL DEMINSION

701) patient had a complete denture inserted a week ago

has ulceration in

buccal sulcus? Over extended flanges

702) question on what name you give to the approach of first enlarging the

coronal aspect during endo? Crown down

703) Current recommendation of use of endo files? Single use

704) Number of people in England with oral malignancy per year? 2000-3000

705) Management of trauma

pulp exposure in a 7 yr old

incisor

over 72 hours? Root canal treatment

706) Someone on 3 weeks treatment for abdominal infection complains of

disorders taste which drug caused this? metronidazole

707) best way to assess caries activity on a root? Visual examination under

good light source

708) Structures passing through parotid gland? Facial nerve

external carotid

artery and retromandibular vein.

709) Nerve supplying skin over forehead? Facial nerve

710) “All-or-nothing” phenomenon? Action potential either occur maximally or

doesn’t occur at all

711) Substance controlling Ca2+ metabolism? Parathyroid hormone

712) Radiographic relevance of swiss cheese pattern? Adenoid cystic

ADENOID CYSTIC CARCINOMA

713) Radiographic relevance of ground glass appearance? fibrous dysplasia.

714) patient with deviation of the corner of his mouth when he smiles but wrinkling of his forehead is normal?

UMN lesion

715) patient with bell’s palsy? lower motor neuron lesion

LMN lesion

716) patient with deviation of the corner of his mouth when he smiles and cannot wrinkle his forehead?

LMN lesion

717) damage to the facial nerve following superficial parotidectomy? Lower

718) Which muscle is responsible for moving food from the buccal sulcus in between teeth during mastication? buccinator

719) Parasympathetic nerve supply to the salivary glands is by? facial and

facial and glossopharyngeal

720) Development of the parotid gland begins in utero at what month? Second

second month 6th and 7th weeks

721) Bud stage of teeth development in utero begins at? 8

8th week

722) Cap stage of teeth development in utero begins at? 11th week

723) Early bell stage of teeth development in utero begins at? 14th week

724) Late bell stage of teeth development in utero begins at? 18th week

725) Which of the following salivary gland tumours is most likely to occur bilaterally?

warthin's tumour

726) Which of the following associated with skin pigmentation? Addisons

disease

727) scaling & polishing

which type of prevention? Primary

728) oral health education

which type of prevention? Primary

729) early detection of caries and treatment

which type of prevention? secondary

730) replacement of missing teeth with dentures

which type of prevention? tertiary

731) A radioluscency in the angle of the mandible located beneath the inferior dental canal is most likely?

stafne's idiopathic bone cavity Lesions located below the IDC (near the inferior border of the mandible) are generally non-odontogenic, arising from bone marrow, nerves, vascular structures, or developmental defects. Static Bone Cavity (Stafne Cyst/Defect): A very common, typically asymptomatic, well-defined oval lucency, usually at the angle of the mandible below the canal. It is caused by lingual depression of the mandible containing salivary gland tissue. Simple Bone Cyst (Traumatic/Idiopathic Bone Cavity): A pseudocyst, often found in younger patients in the posterior mandible, presenting as a lucency that may "scallop" between tooth roots. Vascular/Neural Anomalies: Intraosseous venous malformations ("hemangioma") may appear as multilocular lucencies with irregular, "sunburst" or "soap bubble" appearances. Bone Tumors/Neoplasms: Primary bone tumors or metastatic disease

732) Which drug should be avoided in pt. On warfarin? fluconazole

733) In which year is GDC going to conduct revalidation? 2011

734) eosionophils increased in which hypersensitivity? Type 1

735) which disease is most infectious? Hepatitis c

736) How many CPD hours for radiation protection? 5 hours / 5 years cycle

mainly zinc oxide737) What is the main constituent of Gutta percha points? Zinc oxide fillers

738) The enamel is derived from which germ layer? Ectoderm

739) The rest of dental tissues derived from which germ layer?

Ectomesenchymal neural cells

740) Prions affect which tissues in the body? Lymphoid and neural tissues

741) How many people in the uk suffering from cjd? 4000

742) Which pharyngeal arch the tongue derived from? 1

1st and 3rd

743) What is the incidence of cleft lip in the uk? 1:800

744) What is the cause of cleft lip? Failure of fusion of medial nasal process and maxillary process

745) What is the cause of cleft palate? Failure of closure of the palatal shelves

746) What is the name of cells that get trapped between palatal shelves?

epstein pearls

747) Which part of the mandible doesn’t move when the mandible open or close?

the lingula

748) What is the point of insertion of the needle in ID block? Medial to

pterygomandibular raphe

749) What are the remenants of meckles cartilage?

malleus and sphenomandibular ligament serving as a critical scaffold for mandibular (lower jaw) development. It guides intramembranous ossification of the jaw, with parts disappearing, becoming the sphenomandibular ligament, or forming ear ossicles (malleus/incus)

750) What type of cartilage on the condyle? Fibrocartilage

751) By what age the maxillary sinus get fully grown? 12 – 13 years

752) At what stage does the differentiation of tooth bud take place?

bell stage (odontogenesis) occurs in four main, overlapping stages starting around 6 weeks of gestation: Bud, Cap, Bell, and Apposition/Maturation. These stages involve the initiation, growth, and specialization of cells into enamel, dentin, and pulp, followed by tooth eruption into the mouth. Bud Stage (approx. 8th week of gestation): The dental lamina (epithelium) grows into the underlying mesenchyme, forming small, localized growths called buds. Cap Stage (approx. 9th-10th week of gestation): The tooth bud grows and changes shape, forming a "cap" shape that covers the dental papilla, which will eventually form the dentin and pulp. Bell Stage (approx. 11th-12th week of gestation): The tooth germ takes on a bell shape, and cells differentiate (ameloblasts for enamel, odontoblasts for dentin) that will produce the hard tissues of the tooth. Apposition and Maturation Stage: The hard tissues, enamel and dentin, are laid down and mineralized, followed by root formation and the eventual eruption of the tooth into the mouth.

753) First structure that form in the tooth?

Dentin is the first mineralized tissue laid down during tooth development. It is formed by cells called odontoblasts during the bell stage of tooth development. What Comes Next: After the first layer of dentin (mantle dentin) is deposited, it acts as a signal for the ameloblasts (enamel-forming cells) to begin secreting the organic matrix that becomes enamel. Key Details in the Sequence: Predentin First: Odontoblasts first lay down an organic matrix called predentin (unmineralized). Mineralization: This predentin then mineralizes to become dentin, starting from the outside (near the future enamel) and moving inward toward the pulp. Enamel Follows: Enamel formation begins immediately after the first layer of dentin is laid down. Root Formation: After the crown is formed, root dentin forms, followed by the development of cementum. Essentially, dentinogenesis (dentin formation) must occur before amelogenesis (enamel formation) can start.

754) Most common muscle associated with TMJ dysfunction syndrome? Lateral

pterygoid

755) Most common muscle that cause jaw spasm and trismus? Masseter

756) Where does the infection of temporal muscle spread to? Temporal space

757) What is the nerve supply to TMJ? Massetric and auriculotemporal nerves

758) What is the critical PH of saliva that below it demineralization starts? 5.5

759) Which salivary gland more affected with stones? Submandibular

760) When a patient with bells palsy smile where does his mouth deviate to?

Unaffected side

761) What are the layers of skin from the superficial to the deepest?

Epidermis

dermis

762) External jagular vein formed by the union of what two veins? Posterior

auricular and retromandibular veins

763) What kind of cysts is the ranula? Mucous retention cyst

764) What kind of cysts is the mucocele? Extravasation cyst

765) Which salivary gland does ranula affect? sublingual

766) What is the percentage of salivary gland tumours in relation to all head

and neck tumours? 1%

767) What is the most common site for adenoid cystic carcinoma?

Submandibular glands

768) Which papillae don’t have taste buds? Filliform

769) Antrum of highmore refer to which sinus? The maxillary sinus

770) What is the name of the membrane lining the maxillary sinus?

Schnedarian membrane

771) What is the blow out fracture? Fracture of the roof of maxillary antrum

772) What is the first sign of cavernous sinus thrombosis? Ptosis

773) What is the effect of sympathetic action on saliva? Reduce secretion

774) Which nerve is affected if the patient unable to look upward?

Occulomotor

775) Which nerve is affected if the patient cannot look laterally? Abducens

776) What is the largest cranial nerve? Trigeminal

777) Which antifungal to give to lessen warfarin potentiation effect? Nystatin

778) What is first line of management for patient with Ludwig angina? Wake

incubation

779) What is the compressive strength for enamel

amalgam and composite?

250

300 and 350 respectively

780) What is the tensile strength of enamel amalgam and composite? 35

and poor.

781) What is the minimum percentage of copper in modern amalgam? 12%

782) Which element in amalgam causes black tattoo? silver

783) What is life span for resin bonded bridges? 85% more than 5 years

784) What is the advantage of resin cements? Can bond to metal and tooth

structure

785) how to disinfect impressions before sending then to lab? They should be

cleaned under running water until visibly clean or if grossly contaminated then

clean them in ultrasonic disinfector then they should be disinfected according to

manufacturer recommendation sither by immersion (Immerse them in 1000 ppt

sodium hypochlorite solution for 10 minutes) or dipping.

786) What is the most used impression material for crown and bridge work?

Additional silicone

787) Which impression material has the most accurate details reproduction?

addition silicone

788) Which impression material should be poured at least one hour after

taking? Addition silicone

789) What is the normal resting flow of saliva? 0.32

790) How would you consider true xerostomia? When the salivary flow is less

than 0.2

791) Which enzyme in saliva has antifungal properties? Histatin

792) Which test do you do for patient with sjogren syndrome to check

xerophthalmia? Schirmer test

793) Which immunoglobulin found in acute inflammation? Igg

794) Which immunoglobulin found in chronic inflammation? Igm

795) Where is dentin and pulp derived from? Dental papilla

796) Where is enamel derived from? Dental organ or internal enamel

epithelium

797) Where is PDL

cementum and alveolar bone derived from? Dental follicle

798) What is the percentage of population have type 1 hypersensitivity? 10%

799) What is the minimum number of leukocytes required for extractions?

2x10

800) You are going to do a biopsy in HIV-positive patient. Which of the

following exams would be of better use? White cells count

801) When neutrophils are present the most? Bacterial

802) What’s the most frequent site of endocarditis? Mitral valve

803) Which root filling material comes in 2 pastes? Tubli Seal

804) Most common bleeding disorder? Von willebrand disease

805) Enamel organ: everything! (identify in the figure) Where does the cells for

enamel and dentine come from? Cells from neural crest

806) Salbutamol: β2-adrenergic agonist

807) Function of intermediate zone of adrenal? Produce cortisol

808) ID block is given for a restoration on 6 then what would u ask the pt not to

do? Not to eat

809) Jugular venous pressure indicates what pressure? Right atrium

810) Principle substance controlling Ca metabolism? PTH

811) Bacterial infection early stage-Ig? igm

812) Anaesthetic that produces toxicity

longest acting and which to be given to

heart patients?

813) Antagonist of heparin? Protamin sulfate

814) Toxic root canal sealants? AH26

815) Soft tissue anaesthesis in intraligamental anaesthesis? limited

816) Special syringe for soft tissue anaesthesia? Intraligamintary

817) What is Multiple sclerosis most common age? 15 - 35

818) What is the cell of acute inflammation? Neutrophils

819) What is the cells of chronic inflammation? Macrophages

820) Where do vasopressin travel to? Distal convoluted tubule

821) What is normal electric pulp tester reading? Molar=20-25

premolar=10-

anterior 5-10.

822) How will be the response of hypermic pulp to electric pulp tester?

Lowered

823) What is the percentage of teeth undergoing traumatic pulpitis after crown

preparation? 20%

824) What is the best treatment option for 8 years old who missed upper

central incisor? Resin bonded bridge

825) What is the best restorative material for class 4 in central incisor? Hybrid

composite

826) What is the solution used for acid etching? Phosphoric acid

827) What is the concentration of the acid? 37%

828) Why primer is applied before adding composite? To remove the smear

layer

829) What is the percentage of composite polymerization shrinkage? 30%

830) What is the percentage of tooth wear in adults? 98%

831) What is the most common cause of erosion? Fruity juice

832) What is the material of choice for a patient with erosion? GIC

833) What is the material of choice for abfraction? GIC

834) What is the diagnostic method to distinguish between abrasion and

abfraction? Phremitus test

835) Which impression material used for custom made posts? Addition silicone

836) What is the ideal length of a post? Should have 3 mm of well condensed

gutta percha apically

837) What is the ideal thickness of a post? Should have 0.5mm sound dentin all

around

838) Commonest cause of post failure? Inadequate length

839) What is the first line of treatment for patient with bulimia or anorexia

nervosa? psychiatric

840) Which cement used for posts? Resin cement

841) Which restoration to use in badly broken tooth? Inlay or onlay

842) What is the use of gates glidden bur? To prepare the coronal third in the

canal

843) What is the minimum size of the master file? 25

844) Which crown to use after nayyar core? Full metal crown

845) How do you diagnose cracked tooth syndrome? Biting on cotton wool

(tooth slooth)

846) At what degree the gutta percha melt? 100

847) At what degree the gutta percha soften? 65

848) Where do you find pulp stones the most? Pulp chamber

849) Where is the most area in the uk receiving fluoridated water?

Westmidland

850) What is the minimum age for using fluoridated mouth wash? 8 years

851) Most common teeth traumatized in children? Maxillary incisors

852) How do you know if there is a child abuse? Fraenal tear

853) What is the percentage of adults having crowding? 60%

854) What is the percentage of adults having class 2 div 1? 15-2

855) What is the percentage of adults having class 2 div 2? 10

856) What is the percentage of adults having class 3? 3%

857) What is the minimum age for orthognathic surgery? 18

858) Which teeth to be extracted in class 1 malocclusion? Upper and lower 4s

859) Which teeth to be extracted in class 2 malocclusion? Upper 4s and lower

upper 4s and lower 5s

860) Which teeth to be extracted in class 3 malocclusion? Upper 5s and lower

861) What is the best age for orthodontic treatment? 11-13 years

862) What is the percentage of population have candida as normal habitant?

0.3

863) What is the colour of warning card for patient on warfarin? Yellow

864) What is the colour of warning card for patient on steroids? Blue

865) What do allergic patients wear? Bracelet

866) How much does a dentist get paid for treating UDA band 1? 18.80

867) How much does a dentist get paid for treating UDA band2? 51.30

868) How much does a dentist get paid for treating UDA band 3? 222.50

869) What part of the nervous system is responsible for fight or flight?

sympathetic

870) What part of the nervous system causes increased salivary secretion?

parasympathetic

871) Patient has scanty hair(hypotrichosis)

& missing teeth. Ectodermal

dysplasia

872) Hand sign in mitral valve problems or bacterial endocaditis. Splinter

haemorrhages

873) Hand sign in rheumatoid arthritis. Ulnar deviation

874) Hand sign in inflammation of hand joints in osteoarthritis? Heberden’s

nodes(deposited by osteopytes)

875) Hand sign of lung cancer? Finger clubbing

876) Most difficulty in brushing teeth (decreased manual dextresity)? In

rheumatoid arthritis

877) Antibiotic prophylaxis required in mitral valve defect? No prophylaxis

required

878) Patient has bilateral involvement of joints and pain in the morning &

weight-bearing joints are involved? Rheumatoid arthritis

879) Patient has pain in few weight bearing joints which get worse at night and

improved by resting? Osteoarthritis

880) Patient with splenomegaly & intra-oral lesions? Infectious mononucleosis

881) 65-year old lady with forgetfulness & difficulty in doing daily tasks?

Alzheimer’s Disease

882) developmental anomaly which appears as bilateral irregular thick white

patches? White sponge nevus

883) Which test will you perform in an Afro-Caribbean if the test for ferretin

level is normal but has severe microcytic anemia? Haemoglobin electrophoresis

884) In which condition is intra-articular bleeding minimal? Von Williebrand

disease (in vit k defiency or DIC there is no bleeding at all)

885) Anemia in rheumatoid arthritis? Anemia of chronic disease

886) Which enzyme acts on fats? Lipase

887) Which enzyme acts on proteins? Peptin

888) Mantoux Test for? TB diagnosis

889) Toxoid vaccine for? Tetanus diphtheria and botulism

890) Dimeric Ig? IGA

891) Which disease is more likely to acquire with a needlestick injury? Hep B

892) palatal papillary hyperplasia image

893) bilateral hilar lymphadenopathy

skin nodules

uveoparotitis bony swelling and arthritis

ESR and ca are elevated? Sarcoidosis

894) In allergic rhinitis what would be elevated? –eosinophils

895) Which has softer walls? Softer is capillaries then venules then veins

896) First thing to do when a patient comes back two hours after extraction

with bleeding? Apply pressure to socket and try to stop bleeding

897) % of deoxygenated blood coming of lungs? 75%

898) Dental nurse that had needle stick injury

can she go back to work? yes

899) Microcytic anaemia

ferritin levels normal what exam to check probable

cause? Haemoglobin electrophoresis

900) Cancer

referral in how many days should be seen in secondary care? 2

weeks

901) Exocrine gland characteristics? ducts

multicluular

902) Picture with ulcers in ventral part of the tongue

herpetiform? coeliac

disease

903) Clinical features of tuberculosis? night fever night sweating weight loss

bloody cough.

904) Pulmonary embolism? Chest pain

shortness of breath and

hyperventilation

905) C/c Bronchitis? Shortness of breath

productive cough .

906) Emphysema? Shortness of breath hyperinflation

907) Lady with Hb-9

MCV -70

908) Plummer Wilson syndrome or Peterson Kelly syndrome? Fe deficiency

anemia

gastritis

909) Endocarditis-Splinter Hemorrhage.

910) Oslers nodes seen in? Endocarditis and sle

911) Scleroderma? Sclerodactyly.

912) Organism causing Urinary tract infection? E.coli

913) Food poisoning causing organism? Salmonella enteritidis

staphylococcus

or compylobacter

914) Ig M –ve

Ig G +ve so what does it show? Carrier

915) black skin spots due to inability to repair ultraviolet caused damage

sunlight should be avoided

high malignant transformation rate? Xeroderma

pigmentosum

916) Vagus is sympathetic or para for Heart? parasympathetic

917) What forms when Hb combines with Oxygen? Oxyhaemoglobin

918) What forms when Hb bind to carbon monoxide? Carboxyhemoglobin

919) Which communicable disease should be informed to the consultant?

Notifiable diseases

920) Which drug causes bronchospasm in asthmatic? Nsaids and beta blockers

921) Swelling of inter-phalengeal joints? Ra ( if bony swelling so consider

osteoarthritis)

922) At what age is the MMR vaccine given? – 12 months

923) What is the percentage of patients who get nosocomial infections? 10%

924) In a patient with colonic polyps diagnosed by colonoscopy

which other

feature is present? Osteomas (this patient has gardner syndrome)

925) Ulcers are not common in which type of viral infection? Coxsackie virus

Epstein-barr virus

rubella virus

926) A man has diet-controlled type 2 diabetes. He consumes 30 glasses of

alcohol and smokes 40 cigarettes per day. He is otherwise healthy. What may be

the reason of dry mouth in this person? Sjogren’s sydrome

candidosis

dehydration

drug-induced

927) A woman has one-sided pain on her face. She feels nauseated and the pain

reduces on remaining in a dark room? Migraine

928) A man has brown pigments around his mouth. He has hypotension . What

is the reason for the pigmentation? Addison’s disease

929) A woman complains of dry eyes and mouth. Antinuclear antibodies were

found positive? Secondary Sjogren’s syndrome

930) A woman has hyperplastic gingiva

red to purple in colour. On biopsy

giant cells were found and she has a raised ANCA? Wegner’s granulomatosis

931) Which antibiotic causes diarrhoea and abdominal cramps at a high dose?

Clindamycin or amoxicillin also

932) What is the hand sign of liver disease? palmar erythema

933) What is the hand sign of psoriasis or lichen planus? Pitted nails

934) What is the hand sign of iron defiency anemia? Koilonychias

935) What is the hand sign of lung cancer? Finger clubbing

936) What is the hand sign of jaundice and gall stones? Nail scratches

937) What is the hand sign of diabetes mellitus? Paronychia

938) What is the hand sign of hapocalcaemia? Beau’s lines

939) What is the hand sign of nephritic syndrome? Leukonychia

940) What is the hand signs of endocarditis and sle? Splinter haemorrhage and

oslers nodes

941) What is the hand sign of osteoarthritis? Heberdens nodes

942) What is the hand signs of rheumatoid arthritis? Ulnar deviation

z thumb

boutonniere deformity

swan neck deformity

943) Person with Hep B highly contagious? HBeAg

944) Mucocele? Transilumination

945) Cells in granulomatosis inflammation? Macrophage

946) Rheumatic fever distinguished by? polyarthritis

947) Medicaments for tension headache? Paracetamol

948) Medicaments for migrane? ergotamine

949) Lung disease of unknown etiology? Sarcoidosis

950) Deep vein thrombosis who is in more risk in gral anaesthesia? hip

replacement

951) Picture of herpetiform lesions on ventral aspect of tongue and asked

which GIT condition cause it? Coeliac disease.

952) Urgent referrals should be seen with what time? 2 weeks

953) What is the diagnostic test for Syphilis? VDRL

954) what is the most potent vasoconstrictor? Noradrenaline

955) ACE-inhibitors oral manifestations? captopril(lichenoid reaction

dry

cough and angioedema)

956) Multiple Lumps on the neck not sensitive - Lipoma

957) Multiple Lumps on the neck sensitive and skin pigmentation –

neurofibroma

958) Picture of a ulcer on mucosa at 1

st/2nd lower molar

medical history

(aspirin

b-blockers after MI recently) – cause? chemical burning

959) Dry socket treatment? irrigation with antiseptic solution and alveogyl

960) Questions were there regarding tetanus? Muscle spasm fatal disease

961) What type of hypersensitivity in Rhematoid arthritis? Type 3

962) Investigations for Coeliac disease

Chrons

biopsy or barium enema

963) which immunoglobin is Dimeric? Iga

964) which immunoglobin is pentameric? igm

965) which immunoglobin is monomeric? Igg

igd and ige

966) What would u give in Hyperglycemic collapse/dizziness situation? Fluid +

i.v. insulin

967) Which esterase inhibitor in angioedema? C1

968) What blood vessels have the most amount of smooth muscles? arteries

969) What part of the nervous system increases heart rate? sympathetic

970) What hormone increases blood glucose and potassium? cortisol

971) What is used for the management of type 1 diabetes? Insulin

972) Side effects of dapsone? haemolytic anemia and reticulocytosis

973) Side effects of Azathioprine? hepatotoxicity and marrow toxicity

974) What substances are increased in a diabetic coma? Ketones and glucose

975) Tumour in the upper lobe of the lungs? sarcoidosis

976) What is the adverse effect of pethedine (opiod)? Constipation

977) What is the commonest malignancy seen in sjogren syndrome? Malt

lymphoma

978) Pain worsened by bending forward? increased intracranial tension

979) what increases pulse rate during exs? adrenaline

980) which vessels Play a role in thermoregulation? Capillaries

981) Which vessels Carry filtered fluid? Arteries

982) Woman with hiatus hernia with tooth sirface loss Best treatment Option?

Dietary advice

983) Percentage of blood that can be lost without causing hypovulemia? 20%

984) Questions on TB and the side effects the drugs used to treat it cause?

hepatotoxicity

985) Fibrous Dysplasia X-ray features? Ground glass appearance

986) Dry socket questions? management irrigation and alveogyl

987) Treatment of Rheumatic fever?

penicillin aspirin may be steroids also

988) someone who drink 14 units in a week and smokes 30 cigarettes a day

has diagnosis of a precancerous lesion after biopsy on the palate. What is the best

action to reduce chances of a malignancy- option-excise the lesion

evaporate it

by laser

advice to stop smoking

989) Number of people in England with oral malignancy per year? 2000 - 3000

990) Treatment for Basilar Artery Aneurism?

interventional radiology (clipping or coil)

991) Treatment to pemphigoid when no response to corticosteroid?

azathioprine

992) Which type of hypersensitivity is seen in tuberculosis?

type 4

993) Which clotting factors are deficient in Diseminated intravascular coagulopathy?

platelets and all factors

994) Which clotting factors are deficient in vit k deficiency?

995) Which area in the U.K. has got the best oral condition? south

996) at what temperature Gutta pecha softens? 65

997) at what temperature Gutta pecha melt? 100

998) Which type of consent is not present? Delegated

1000) Is there an age limit for confidentiality of information? No age limit

1001) To whom is the dentist obliged to give a patient’s confidential information?

court of law

1002) According to Data Protection Act

the patient has access to all his records

1003) It is illegal for dental technician to take impression? They can take

they can take imps for study models on a written prescription but only on dentist premises

1004) What is the rules of clinical dental technician? Their duties are limited to

insertion of complete dentures and if they have appropriate training, can provide partial dentures as well

1007) What is clinical audit? It is the process of reviewing the delivery of

healthcare to identify deficiencis so they may be remedied

1008) What is student t-test? A t-test is any statistical hypothesis test in which

the test statistic follows a student's t distribution

1009) Different drinks –beers wine- and identify which one had 1 unit of alcohol? one unit of alcohol is 10ml by volume of:

small pub measure (25ml) of spirits (40% alc by vol) or standard pub measure (50ml) of fortified wine like sherry or port (20% alc by vol)

1010) Tray paper lining goes to which bag? Clinical waste (orange)

1011) Duties of dental therapist? extract primary teeth

simple filling, polish, infiltration la

1012) Duties of dental hygienist? Scale

clean and polish and OHI, nerve blocks and infiltrations, if wanting therapist jobsthey need diploma of dental therapy

1014) What happens if the dentist does not pay his annual retention fees on time

removed from register and not able to work in the uk

1015) From which month & year did CPD come into force? CPD was made

compulsory in jan 2002 for dentists aug 2008 for dental care professionals

1016) How long can the GDC suspend someone for not being fit to practice? Up

to 12 months

1017) Why do we use rubber dam? Airway protection

1018) Which is the best way to give dental health education? One to one in the

clinical environment most successful approach done by someone who the patient trusts e.g nurse

1019) What is in audit cycle? The following components form the cycle:

select topic  agree criteria and standards  set data collection rules  collect data  analyse and reflect on results  agree and implement change  monitor progress by repeating cycle

1020) What are the pillars of Clinical governance Foundation? They are:

education and training risk management clinical effectiveness and clinical audit

1021) A patient wants their records for some insurance stuff- which act do you match it with?

freedom of information act

1022) A 62 yr old is denied a job because of his age -which act do you match it

equality act 2010

1023) A new dental nurse wants to do radiograph-which act do you match it

radiation protection act?

1024) A female nurse is denied leave -which act do you match it with?

employment rights?

1025) A 15 year old girl in boarding school comes to your surgery for an extraction, which cannot give consent on her behalf? a. grandfather with legal guardianship b. biological father separated from mother c. girl herself d. older sister

older sister father has PRR after may 4 2006 in scotland

1026) Consent is needed from a patient to share information, which of the following needs explicit consent? a. to share information with an insurance company b. with other doctors in the practice c. with therapist treating the patient d. with patient's gmp

1027) What is the Core subject for CPD? medical emergiency

radiation, medical emergencty, infection control

1029) Where do dispose wooden wedges and suction tips? sharps

1030) GDC main function? protect the patient

1031) GDC registration not needed by 31st July? Dental Practice Manager

1032) About GDC who is responsible when the dentist is sanctioned?

professional conduct committee

1033) GDC revalidation year? 2015

1034) What are the committee of gdc and their duties?

professional conduct committee (pcc) charged with determining professionals fitness to practice - they check facts - if impaired whether to impose sanction

The Professional Performance Committee (PPC) deals with cases where it

appears that a professional's performance is falling below an acceptable standard

The Health Committee (HC) deals with cases where the dental professional's

fitness to practice is impaired by ill health

The Interim Orders Committee (IOC) can

as an interim measure, place conditions upon a dental professional beforfe a full inquiry by PCC. the suspension may be renewed or revoked later. at this stage it is important to note the allegations have not been tested or proven (that is handled by PCC)

1035) What is FORENSIC DENTISTRY? Forensic dentistry or forensic odontology

examination and evaluation of dental evidence presented in interest of justice. evidence may be derived from teeth/age and identification via records including raidographs pre and post death and dna

1036) What is Evidence-based dentistry (EBD)? is an approach to oral health care

requiring judicious intergration of clincially relevant evidence relatin to oral and medical condition with clinical skills vs pt needs

1037) What kind of organism cause measles? RNA virus called rubeola

1038) What kind of organism cause mumps? RNA virus called paramyxovirus

1039) What kind of virus is hep B? DNA

1040) What kind of viruses cause hep A

1041) What kind of virus is HIV? RNA

1042) What kind of viruses are all herpes family? DNA

1043) Parasympathic – Sympathic for heart? Vagus and paravertebral ganglia.

1044) What is the time of surgical repaire for cleft lip and palate? 15 – 18 months

1045) What is the effect of early surgical repair of cleft palate? Prevention of

maxillary growth and collapse

1046) X-ray in which 2 cm radioluscency around the apex of a upper incisor?

upper standard occlusal view

1047) X-ray in a child to see the presence of tooth-buds? Panaromic radiograph

1048) Radiograph taken for unerupted canines?-Parallax

1049) Radiograph taken for orthodontic treatment planning-Cephalometric

1050) Radiograph used to see apical lesion of 1cm of upper lateral incisor? –

true occlusal

1051) Radiograph taken to identify the position of apex of molar to ID NERVE?

OPT

1053) Diagnostic measure taken for disc derangement? MRI

1054) Diagnostic measure taken for salivary gland tumour? MRI

1055) showing successor teeth in a young child? OPT

1056) Caries in a 3 year old? bimolar

1057) Bilateral fracture of the condyles? oPT

1058) Proximal caries in dentine? Horizontal bitewing

1059) Dentine caries in anterior tooth? Horizontal bitewing

1060) Impacted canine not palpable palatally? parallex

1061) 16 yr old for orthodontics-class2 div 1? cephalometric

1062) Showing amount of bone on a molar? periapical

1063) salivary calculi in submandibular duct? Lower true occlusal

1064) equivalent dose of 2 bitewings?

F speed film = 0.0016 msv = 6.4 hours background radiation

E speed film = 0.002 msv = 8 hours background radiation

D speed film = 0.008 msv = 32 hours background radiation

1065) What can be adjusted on a cast before the patient comes? Anatomical

tooth position

1066) Most retentive cement? Resin cement

1067) Lesion on the palate in a pipe or cigar smoker? Stomatitis nicotina

1068) What is Atypical or psychogenic Facial Pain? A common site for the pain is

maxillary region / upper teeth localisation diffuse continuous, unbearable, prolonged severe pain

1069) % of 5 year survival rate of a patient with T2 stage oral Cancer? 45%

1070) What is Apocrine sweat gland? are human sweat glands

The ducts of apocrine glands open into canals of hair follicles stimulus for sweat is adrenaline

1071) What is the kind of epithelium lining exocrine ducts? Simple cuboidal or

simple columnar

1072) What is chronotropic effect? Chronotropic drugs may change the heart

rate by affecting nerves or changing rhythm by sinoatrial node postiive chronotropes increase HR, negative decrease.

Positive chronotropic are

adrenaline, atropine, dopamine while blockers or negative chronotropes are digoxin and acetylcholine

1073) What is inotropic effect? is an agent that alters the force or energy of

muscular contractions negtaive inotropic agents weaken muscular force (beta blocker, ca channel blocker) postive increase strength of muscular contraction (adrenaline)

1074) Which cation more intracellularly? K (potassium)

1075) Which cation more extracellulaly? Na (sodium)

1076) Picture of a lesion near the eye of a man? Dermoid cyst

1077) Which voltage gated channel initiates action potential? Sodium channels

1078) Which among the following is always true about pyogenic granuloma?

classically contains giant cells

1079) A question on TMJDS that what will you exclude before diagnosing the condition?

referred pain from teeth should be carefully excluded

1080) Which antibiotic is prescribed for gram positive streptococcal infection?

penicillin

1081) What is the work of NICE? Providing national guidance on promoting

good health and preventing and treatin gill health

1082) Diagnostic aids for salivary gland diseases? CT

MRI

855) What is the percentage of adults having class 2 div 2? 10

856) What is the percentage of adults having class 3? 3%

857) What is the minimum age for orthognathic surgery? 18

858) Which teeth to be extracted in class 1 malocclusion? Upper and lower 4s

859) Which teeth to be extracted in class 2 malocclusion? Upper 4s and lower 5's

860) Which teeth to be extracted in class 3 malocclusion? Upper 5s and lower 4's

861) What is the best age for orthodontic treatment? 11-13 years

862) What is the percentage of population have candida as normal habitant?

0.3

863) What is the colour of warning card for patient on warfarin? Yellow

864) What is the colour of warning card for patient on steroids? Blue

865) What do allergic patients wear? Bracelet

866) How much does a dentist get paid for treating UDA band 1? 18.80

867) How much does a dentist get paid for treating UDA band2? 51.30

868) How much does a dentist get paid for treating UDA band 3? 222.50

869) What part of the nervous system is responsible for fight or flight?

sympathetic

870) What part of the nervous system causes increased salivary secretion?

paraympathetic

871) Patient has scanty hair(hypotrichosis)

& missing teeth. Ectodermal dysplasia

875) Hand sign of lung cancer? Finger clubbing

877) Antibiotic prophylaxis required in mitral valve defect? No prophylaxis

880) Patient with splenomegaly & intra-oral lesions? Infectious mononucleosis

881) 65-year old lady with forgetfulness & difficulty in doing daily tasks?

alzheimer's

882) developmental anomaly which appears as bilateral irregular thick white

patches? White sponge nevus

883) Which test will you perform in an Afro-Caribbean if the test for ferretin

level is normal but has severe microcytic anemia? Haemoglobin electrophoresis

884) In which condition is intra-articular bleeding minimal? Von Williebrand

disease (in vit k defiency or DIC there is no bleeding at all)

885) Anemia in rheumatoid arthritis? Anemia of chronic disease

886) Which enzyme acts on fats? Lipase

887) Which enzyme acts on proteins? Peptin

888) Mantoux Test for? TB diagnosis

889) Toxoid vaccine for? Tetanus diphtheria and botulism

890) Dimeric Ig? IGA

891) Which disease is more likely to acquire with a needlestick injury? Hep B

892) palatal papillary hyperplasia image

893) bilateral hilar lymphadenopathy

skin nodules

uveoparotitis bony swelling and arthritis

ESR and ca are elevated? Sarcoidosis

894) In allergic rhinitis what would be elevated? –eosinophils

895) Which has softer walls? Softer is capillaries then venules then veins

896) First thing to do when a patient comes back two hours after extraction

with bleeding? Apply pressure to socket and try to stop bleeding

897) % of deoxygenated blood coming of lungs? 75%

898) Dental nurse that had needle stick injury

can she go back to work? yes

899) Microcytic anaemia

ferritin levels normal what exam to check probable

cause? Haemoglobin electrophoresis

900) Cancer

referral in how many days should be seen in secondary care? 2

weeks

901) Exocrine gland characteristics? ducts

multicluular

902) Picture with ulcers in ventral part of the tongue

herpetiform? coeliac

disease

903) Clinical features of tuberculosis? night fever night sweating weight loss

bloody cough.

904) Pulmonary embolism? Chest pain

shortness of breath and

hyperventilation

905) C/c Bronchitis? Shortness of breath

productive cough .

906) Emphysema? Shortness of breath hyperinflation

907) Lady with Hb-9

MCV -70

908) Plummer Wilson syndrome or Peterson Kelly syndrome? Fe deficiency

anemia

gastritis

909) Endocarditis-Splinter Hemorrhage.

910) Oslers nodes seen in? Endocarditis and sle

911) Scleroderma? Sclerodactyly.

912) Organism causing Urinary tract infection? E.coli

914) Ig M –ve

Ig G +ve so what does it show? Carrier

915) black skin spots due to inability to repair ultraviolet caused damage

sunlight should be avoided

high malignant transformation rate? Xeroderma pigmentosum

916) Vagus is sympathetic or para for Heart? parasympathetic

917) What forms when Hb combines with Oxygen? Oxyhaemoglobin

918) What forms when Hb bind to carbon monoxide? Carboxyhemoglobin

919) Which communicable disease should be informed to the consultant?

Notifiable diseases

920) Which drug causes bronchospasm in asthmatic? Nsaids and beta blockers

921) Swelling of inter-phalengeal joints? Ra ( if bony swelling so consider

osteoarthritis)

922) At what age is the MMR vaccine given? – 12 months

923) What is the percentage of patients who get nosocomial infections? 10%

924) In a patient with colonic polyps diagnosed by colonoscopy

which other

feature is present? Osteomas (this patient has gardner syndrome)

925) Ulcers are not common in which type of viral infection? Coxsackie virus

Epstein-barr virus

rubella virus

926) A man has diet-controlled type 2 diabetes. He consumes 30 glasses of

alcohol and smokes 40 cigarettes per day. He is otherwise healthy. What may be

the reason of dry mouth in this person? Sjogren’s sydrome

candidosis

dehydration

drug-induced

927) A woman has one-sided pain on her face. She feels nauseated and the pain

reduces on remaining in a dark room? Migraine

928) A man has brown pigments around his mouth. He has hypotension . What

is the reason for the pigmentation? Addison’s disease

929) A woman complains of dry eyes and mouth. Antinuclear antibodies were

found positive? Secondary Sjogren’s syndrome

930) A woman has hyperplastic gingiva

red to purple in colour. On biopsy

giant cells were found and she has a raised ANCA? Wegner’s granulomatosis

931) Which antibiotic causes diarrhoea and abdominal cramps at a high dose?

Clindamycin or amoxicillin also

932) What is the hand sign of liver disease? palmar erythema

933) What is the hand sign of psoriasis or lichen planus? Pitted nails

934) What is the hand sign of iron defiency anemia? Koilonychias

935) What is the hand sign of lung cancer? Finger clubbing

936) What is the hand sign of jaundice and gall stones? Nail scratches

937) What is the hand sign of diabetes mellitus? Paronychia

938) What is the hand sign of hapocalcaemia? Beau’s lines

939) What is the hand sign of nephritic syndrome? Leukonychia

940) What is the hand signs of endocarditis and sle? Splinter haemorrhage and

oslers nodes

941) What is the hand sign of osteoarthritis? Heberdens nodes

942) What is the hand signs of rheumatoid arthritis? Ulnar deviation

z thumb

boutonniere deformity

swan neck deformity

943) Person with Hep B highly contagious? HBeAg

944) Mucocele? Transilumination

945) Cells in granulomatosis inflammation? Macrophage

946) Rheumatic fever distinguished by? polyarthritis

947) Medicaments for tension headache? Paracetamol

948) Medicaments for migrane? ergotamine

949) Lung disease of unknown etiology? Sarcoidosis

950) Deep vein thrombosis who is in more risk in gral anaesthesia? hip

replacement

951) Picture of herpetiform lesions on ventral aspect of tongue and asked

which GIT condition cause it? Coeliac disease.

952) Urgent referrals should be seen with what time? 2 weeks

953) What is the diagnostic test for Syphilis? VDRL

954) what is the most potent vasoconstrictor? Noradrenaline

955) ACE-inhibitors oral manifestations? captopril(lichenoid reaction

dry

cough and angioedema)

956) Multiple Lumps on the neck not sensitive - Lipoma

957) Multiple Lumps on the neck sensitive and skin pigmentation –

neurofibroma

958) Picture of a ulcer on mucosa at 1

st/2nd lower molar

medical history

(aspirin

b-blockers after MI recently) – cause? chemical burning

959) Dry socket treatment? irrigation with antiseptic solution and alveogyl

960) Questions were there regarding tetanus? Muscle spasm fatal disease

961) What type of hypersensitivity in Rhematoid arthritis? Type 3

962) Investigations for Coeliac disease

Chrons

biopsy or barium enema

963) which immunoglobin is Dimeric? Iga

964) which immunoglobin is pentameric? igm

965) which immunoglobin is monomeric? Igg

igd and ige

966) What would u give in Hyperglycemic collapse/dizziness situation? Fluid +

i.v. insulin

967) Which esterase inhibitor in angioedema? C1

968) What blood vessels have the most amount of smooth muscles? arteries

969) What part of the nervous system increases heart rate? sympathetic

970) What hormone increases blood glucose and potassium? cortisol

971) What is used for the management of type 1 diabetes? Insulin

972) Side effects of dapsone? haemolytic anemia and reticulocytosis

973) Side effects of Azathioprine? hepatotoxicity and marrow toxicity

974) What substances are increased in a diabetic coma? Ketones and glucose

975) Tumour in the upper lobe of the lungs? sarcoidosis

976) What is the adverse effect of pethedine (opiod)? Constipation

977) What is the commonest malignancy seen in sjogren syndrome? Malt lymphoma

978) Pain worsened by bending forward? increased intracranial tension

979) what increases pulse rate during exs? adrenaline

980) which vessels Play a role in thermoregulation? Capillaries

981) Which vessels Carry filtered fluid? Arteries

982) Woman with hiatus hernia with tooth sirface loss Best treatment Option?

Dietary advice

983) Percentage of blood that can be lost without causing hypovulemia? 20%

984) Questions on TB and the side effects the drugs used to treat it cause?

hepatotoxicity

985) Fibrous Dysplasia X-ray features? Ground glass appearance

986) Dry socket questions? management irrigation and alveogyl

987) Treatment of Rheumatic fever?

penicillin aspirin may be steroids also

988) someone who drink 14 units in a week and smokes 30 cigarettes a day

has diagnosis of a precancerous lesion after biopsy on the palate. What is the best

action to reduce chances of a malignancy- option-excise the lesion

evaporate it

by laser

advice to stop smoking

989) Number of people in England with oral malignancy per year? 2000 - 3000

990) Treatment for Basilar Artery Aneurism? Interventional radiology(

clipping or coil)

991) Treatment to pemphigoid when no response to corticosteroid?

azathioprine

992) Which type of hypersensitivity is seen in tuberculosis? Type 4

993) Which clotting factors are deficient in Diseminated intravascular

coagulopathy? platelets and all factors

994) Which clotting factors are deficient in vit k deficiency? 2

995) Which area in the U.K. has got the best oral condition? south

996) at what temperature Gutta pecha softens? 65

997) at what temperature Gutta pecha melt? 100

998) Which type of consent is not present? Delegated

999) What are the main types of consent? Implied

verbal

express

informed and restricted.

1000) Is there an age limit for confidentiality of information? No age limit

1001) To whom is the dentist obliged to give a patient’s confidential

information? Court of law

1002) According to Data Protection Act

the patient has access to all his records

1003) It is illegal for dental technician to take impression? They can take

impression for study models on a written prescription but only on the dentist

premises.

1004) What is the rules of clinical dental technician? Their duties are limited to

insertion of complete dentures and if they have appropriate training can provide

partial dentures as well.

1005) The first thing to do after taking an alginate impression? Clean under

running water until visibly clean

1006) How to clean a prosthodontic bridge after trying it before to send it to the

lab? Same procedure as for impressions

1007) What is clinical audit? It is the process of reviewing the delivery of

healthcare to identify deficiencies so that they may be remedied.

1008) What is student t-test? A t-test is any statistical hypothesis test in which

the test statistic follows a Student's t distribution

1009) Different drinks –beers wine- and identify which one had 1 unit of

alcohol? One unit of alcohol is 10 ml by volume

eg: a small pub measure (25 ml)

of spirits (40% alcohol by volume) or standard pub measure (50 ml) of fortified

wine such as sherry or port (20% alcohol by volume).

1010) Tray paper lining goes to which bag? Clinical waste (orange)

1011) Duties of dental therapist? extract primary teeth

simple filling

polish

and administer infiltration LA.

1012) Duties of dental hygienist? Scale

clean and polish

materials to teeth surfaces and give OHI. If he want to do the therapist jobs or

give infiltration so he need to hold the diploma of dental therapy.

1013) most fashionable now cross infection device? WASHING DISINFECTOR

1014) What happens if the dentist does not pay his annual retention fees on

time? will be removed from the register and you will not be able to practice in

the UK

1015) From which month & year did CPD come into force? CPD was made

compulsory for dentists in January 2002

and in August 2008 for dental care

professionals.

1016) How long can the GDC suspend someone for not being fit to practice? Up

to 12 months

1017) Why do we use rubber dam? Airway protection

1018) Which is the best way to give dental health education? One to one in the

clinical environment is the most successful approach

this should be done by

someone who the patient trust this is not always the dentist ( eg: nurse )

1019) What is in audit cycle? The following components form the cycle: select

topic  agree criteria and standards  set data collection rules  collect data 

analyse and reflect on results  agree and implement change  monitor

progress by repeating cycle

1020) What are the pillars of Clinical governance Foundation? They are:

Education and Training

Risk Management

Clinical Effectiveness and Clinical Audit.

1021) A patient wants their records for some insurance stuff- which act do you

match it with? Freedom of information act

1022) A 62 yr old is denied a job because of his age -which act do you match it

with? Equality and diversity

1023) A new dental nurse wants to do radiograph-which act do you match it

with? Radiation protection

1024) A female nurse is denied leave -which act do you match it with?

Employment rights

1025) A 15 year old girl in boarding school comes to your surgery for an

extraction which of the following cannot give consent on her behalf?

a. Her grandfather with legal guardianship

b. Her biological father who has separated from her mother

c. The girl herself

d. Her older sister

1026) Consent is needed from a patient to share information

which of the

following needs explicit consent?

a. To share information with an insurance company

b. To share information with other doctors in the practice

c. To share information with the therapist treating the patient

d. To share information with the patients GMP

1027) What is the Core subject for CPD? medical emergiency

radiation

pretection and infection control

1028) Where do you dispose teeth with amalgam filling? Amalgam container

(white container)

1029) Where do dispose wooden wedges and suction tips? sharps

1030) GDC main function? protect the patient

1031) GDC registration not needed by 31st July? Dental Practice Manager

1032) About GDC who is responsible when the dentist is sanctioned?

Professional Conduct Committee

1033) GDC revalidation year? 2015

1034) What are the committee of gdc and their duties?

The Professional Conduct Committee (PCC) is charged with determining whether

or not a dental professional's fitness to practise is impaired on the basis of the

facts found proved. Where a registrant's fitness to practise is found to be

impaired the PCC decides whether to impose a sanction.

The Professional Performance Committee (PPC) deals with cases where it

appears that a dental professional's performance is consistently falling below an

acceptable standard.

The Health Committee (HC) deals with cases where the dental professional's

fitness to practise is impaired by reason of ill health.

The Interim Orders Committee (IOC) can

as an interim measure

place conditions upon a dental professional before a full inquiry by the PCC. The

suspension may be renewed or revoked later. At this stage it is important to note

that the allegations have not been tested or proved - this is the work of the PCC.

1035) What is FORENSIC DENTISTRY? Forensic dentistry or forensic odontology

is the proper handling

examination and evaluation of dental evidence

be then presented in the interest of justice. The evidence that may be derived

from teeth

is the age (in children) and identification of the person to whom the

teeth belong. This is done using dental records including radiographs

antemortem (prior to death) and post-mortem photographs and DNA

1036) What is Evidence-based dentistry (EBD)? is an approach to oral health care

that requires the judicious integration of systematic assessments of clinically

relevant scientific evidence

relating to the patient's oral and medical condition and

history

with the dentist's clinical expertise and the patient's treatment needs and

preferences

What are the duties of fitness to practise? There may be doubts about a dental

professionals' fitness to practise due to Criminal offence

Professional conduct

Health or Performance. So

they look carefully at every case. In some cases we

may simply offer advice rather than removing or restricting a dental

professional's registration.

1037) What kind of organism cause measles? RNA virus called rubeola

1038) What kind of organism cause mumps? RNA virus called paramyxovirus

1039) What kind of virus is hep B? DNA

1040) What kind of viruses cause hep A

1041) What kind of virus is HIV? RNA

1042) What kind of viruses are all herpes family? DNA

1043) Parasympathic – Sympathic for heart? Vagus and paravertebral ganglia.

1044) What is the time of surgical repaire for cleft lip and palate? 15 – 18

months

1045) What is the effect of early surgical repair of cleft palate? Prevention of

maxillary growth and collapse

1046) X-ray in which 2 cm radioluscency around the apex of a upper incisor?

Upper standard Occlusal view

1047) X-ray in a child to see the presence of tooth-buds? Panaromic radiograph

1048) Radiograph taken for unerupted canines?-Parallax

1049) Radiograph taken for orthodontic treatment planning-Cephalometric

1050) Radiograph used to see apical lesion of 1cm of upper lateral incisor? –

True occlusal

1051) Radiograph taken to identify the position of apex of molar to ID NERVE?

DPT

1052) Radiograph taken for a lesion apical to 1

st molar tooth?- periapical

1053) Diagnostic measure taken for disc derangement? MRI

1054) Diagnostic measure taken for salivary gland tumour? MRI

1055) showing successor teeth in a young child? DPT

1056) Caries in a 3 year old? bimolar

1057) Bilateral fracture of the condyles? DPT

1058) Proximal caries in dentine? Horizontal bitewing

1059) Dentine caries in anterior tooth? Horizontal bitewing

1060) Impacted canine not palpable palatally? parallex

1061) 16 yr old for orthodontics-class2 div 1? cephalometric

1062) Showing amount of bone on a molar? periapical

1063) salivary calculi in submandibular duct? Lower true occlusal

1064) equivalent dose of 2 bitewings?

F speed film = 0.0016 msv = 6.4 hours background radiation

E speed film = 0.002 msv = 8 hours background radiation

D speed film = 0.008 msv = 32 hours background radiation

1065) What can be adjusted on a cast before the patient comes? Anatomical

tooth position

1066) Most retentive cement? Resin cement

1067) Lesion on the palate in a pipe or cigar smoker? Stomatitis nicotina

1068) What is Atypical or psychogenic Facial Pain? A common site for the pain is

the maxillary region or in relation to the upper teeth

but localisation may not be

precise

said to be continuous and unbearable

disturbance

and prolonged severe pain

depression. It must be emphasised that the diagnosis of psychogenic facial pain is

a diagnosis by exclusion.

1069) % of 5 year survival rate of a patient with T2 stage oral Cancer? 45%

1070) What is Apocrine sweat gland? are human sweat glands

The ducts of

apocrine glands open into the canals of hair follicles. The stimulus for the

secretion of apocrine sweat glands is adrenaline

1071) What is the kind of epithelium lining exocrine ducts? Simple cuboidal or

simple columnar

1072) What is chronotropic effect? Chronotropic drugs may change the heart

rate by affecting the nerves controlling the heart

or by changing the rhythm

produced by the sinoatrial node. Positive chronotropes increase heart rate;

negative chronotropes decrease heart rate. Positive chronotropic are adrenaline

atropine

dopamine

blocker

digoxin and acetylcholine.

1073) What is inotropic effect? is an agent that alters the force or energy of

muscular contractions. Negatively inotropic agents weaken the force of muscular

contractions. Positively inotropic agents increase the strength of muscular

contraction. Positive inotropic are adrenaline

noradrenaline

dopamin. Negative inotropic are beta blocker and calcium channel blocker.

1074) Which cation more intracellularly? K (potassium)

1075) Which cation more extracellulaly? Na (sodium)

1076) Picture of a lesion near the eye of a man? Dermoid cyst

1077) Which voltage gated channel initiates action potential? Sodium channels

1078) Which among the following is always true about pyogenic granuloma?

Classically contains giant cells

1079) A question on TMJDS that what will you exclude before diagnosing the

condition? referred pain from the teeth should be carefully excluded.

1080) Which antibiotic is prescribed for gram positive streptococcal infection?

penecillin

1081) What is the work of NICE? Providing national guidance on promoting

good health and preventing and treating ill health

1082) Diagnostic aids for salivary gland diseases? CT

MRI

asked.

1083) A patient underwent radiotherapy 10 yrs back.5 subquestions were asked. a. if this patient undergoes a third molar extraction he is likely to have

dry socket

1083) A patient underwent radiotherapy 10 yrs back.5 subquestions were asked. b. if he is on warfarin he is likely to have

bleeding after extraction

1084) Drug used for lichen planus?

topical steroids and azathioprine

1085) What are other names of benign migratory glossitis?

georgraphic tongue or erythema migrans

1086) For how many days are minor aphthe present in mouth? Heals within 2

heals within 2 weeks (7-10days)

1087) For how many days are major aphthe present in mouth? Heals within

heals within several months

several months

1088) For how many days are herpetiform aphthe present in mouth? Heals

healths within 4 weeks

within 4 weeks

1089) Frequent site of minor aphthae? Non-keratinized mucosa especially

non-keratinized mucosa especially buccal and labial mucosa

1090) Frequent site of major aphthae? Most common in soft palate and fauces

most common in soft palate and fauces area

1091) Frequent site of herpetiform aphthae? Affect any where in the nonkeratinized mucosa

Ventral tongue is a favored site.

1092) slow-growing, asymptomatic epitehlium and connective tissue neoplasm in the angle of the mandible?

ameloblastic fibroma

1093) cyst of the jaws that seen in 2 forms parakeratinized and orthokeratinized and characterized by presence of keratin layer?

odontogenic keratocyst

1094) What are mesio-dens?

they are Supernumerary teeth. Conical or more seriously malformed additional teeth most frequently form in the incisor or molar region and very occasionally in the midline (mesiodens).

1095) What are the inactivated virus vaccines? Influenza and polio (salk

influenza and polio (salk vaccine)

1096) What are the inactivated bacterial vaccines? Typhoid vaccines

cholera and plague

1097) What are the live attenuated vaccines? BCG

polio (sabin vaccine) and MMR

1098) What is the toxoid vaccine? DTP

1099) What kind is hep B vaccine? Recombinant viral protein

1100) What are monosaccharides? Glucose

fructose

xylulose.

1101) What are oligosaccharides? They are classified into di

tri ....and so on. The

best example for disaccharide is sucrose

lactose and maltose.

1102) What are polysaccharides? Glycogen

cellulose and starch.

1103) hyperthyroidism which type of hypersensitivity? Type 5

1104) patient with thirst, polyurea with excretion of large amounts of diluted urine and normal blood glucose levels?

diabetes insipidus

1105) What neurotransmitter is responsible for closing precapillary sphincters?

acetylcholine

What antibiotic is used to manage a super infected herpetic lip lesion?

flucloxacillin

1107) Features of epithelial dysplasia? Basal cell hyperplasia

hyperchromatism

increased nuclear-cytoplasmic ratio

loss of polarity and normal and abnormal mitosis

1108) Picture of the tongue with an ulcer on the lateral border- what drug

ACE Inhibitor phenytoin

1109) A 60 year old man on anti-hypertensive has gingival enlargement what

amlodipine (ca channel blocker)

1110) What is the recommended daily sugar intake? 60 g per day for adults and

60g per day for adults and 33g for children

1111) Structure of Immunoglobulins (Ig) - J-chain is seen in which Ig? Igm and

IgM and IgA

1112) What kind of bacteria is streptococcus? They are gram positive facultative

gram positive facultative anaerobes

1113) most commonly inherited bleeding disorder? vonwillibrands

1114) Pt with herpetic lesion on the lips what is present histologicaly?

Acantholysis and loss of intercellular connections such as desmosomes.

1115) Which antibodies seen in acute infection of infectious mononucleosis?

heterophile antibody and positive iGm

1116) Question on which ion is released when there is a low gastric ph?

bicarbonate

1117) graft surgery for cleft palate at what time? 8-10 years old

1118) Patient with rheumatoid arthritis and biliary cirrhosis has? secondary

sjogren syndrome

1119) Medication for c/c sinusitis? Doxycyclin or amoxillin

1120) Most abundant immunoglobulin in saliva during infections? Igg

1121) Which blood vessel is more elastic? artery

1122) Which blood vessel has stronger walls? arteries

1123) Which blood vessel hold most of the blood volume? veins

1124) Which blood vessel carries the least amount of blood? Capillaries

1125) Which blood vessel has the most stretchable walls? Arteriols

1126) Which blood vessel control body temperature? Capillaries

1127) Which blood vessel dilate during vasodilatation? Arteriols

1128) Which blood vessels Carry filtered fluid? Veins from kidneys to heart.

1129) What vessels are the capacitance vessels and hold most of the blood

volume? veins

1130)

1131) which immunoglobin will increase in gingival inflammation? igg

1132) how do exocrine glands secrete their hormones?

Exocrine glands are named apocrine gland

holocrine gland

on how their product is secreted.

 Apocrine glands - a portion of the plasma membrane buds off the cell

containing

the secretion

an example is fat droplet secretion by mammary gland.

 Holocrine glands - the entire cell disintegrates to secrete its substance

example is sebaceous glands for skin and nose.

 Merocrine glands - cells secrete their substances by exocytosis an example is

pancreatic acinar cells.

1133) Treatment of tension headache? NSAIDS

1134) Treatment of migrane? Ergotamine

1135) Treatment of dysguesia? Saliva substitute and pilocarpine

1136) Cells found in herpetic stomatitis

lichen planus? Lymphocytes

1137) Child with dry mouth? Type 1 diabetes

1138) Pt with acute fatigue

night sweats

leukemia

1139) What the higher and lower figure represents in a sphygmomanometer?

Systole and diastole respectively.

1140) What is the commonest type of Leukaemia in adults? Acute myeloblastic

leukemia

1141) What is the most common childhooh leukemia? Acute lymphoblastic

leukemia

1142) What kind of Ag should detected to check if the infected dentist with

hepatitis B can still work? HBsab

1143) What is the percentage of squamous cell carcinoma among all oral

cancers? 90%

1144) What is the type of pain in sinusitis? There will be nasal discharge

tenderness over the cheek

pain resemble toothache

posterior teeth.

1145) what ions are responsible for action potential? na

1146) what channels does lignociane block? Displace ca ions and block sodium

channels.

1147) Bilateral parotid tumour? Warthin’s tumour.

1148) What are desmosomes? Desmosomes consists of a region between two

adjacent cells where the apposed plasma membranes are separated by about 20

nm and have a dense accumulation of protein at the cytoplasmic surface of each

membrane and in the space between the two membranes. Protein fibers extend

from the cytoplasmic surface of desmosomes into the cell and are linked to other

desmosomes on the opposite side of the cell. Desmosomes hold adjacent cells

firmly together in areas that are subject to considerable stretching

such as in the

skin. The specialized area of the membrane in the region of a desmosome is

usually disk-shaped.

1149) What are hemidesmosomes? They are similar in form to desmosomes

when visualized by electron microscopy. While desmosomes link two cells

together

hemidesmosomes attach one cell to the extracellular matrix. Rather

than using cadherins

hemidesmosomes use integrin cell adhesion proteins

1150) What is tight junction? formed when the extracellular surfaces of two

adjacent plasma membranes are joined together so that there is no extracellular

space between them. Unlike the desmosome

which is limited to a diskshaped

area of the membrane

the tight junction occurs in a band around the entire

circumference of the cell. Most epithelial cells are joined by tight junctions.

1151) What is gap junction? of protein channels linking the cytosols of adjacent

cells In the region of the gap junction

the two opposing plasma membranes come

within 2 to 4 nm of each other

which allows specific proteins from the two

membranes to join

forming small

The small diameter of these channels limits what can pass between the cytosols

of the connected cells to small molecules and ions

such as sodium and

potassium

and excludes the exchange of large proteins. Avariety of cell types

possess gap junctions

including the muscle cells of the heart

very important role in the transmission of electrical activity between the cells.

1152) What type of cell junctions are seen in oral mucosa? Tight junction

1153) Which LA is neurotoxic? articaine

1154) Which LA do you give a patient with cardiac arrythmias? lignocaine

1155) Pregnant sedation? Sedation either IV or inhalation are contraindicated in

pregnancy.

1156) Severely disabled patient sedation? no

1157) Epileptic patient under control came from work

sedation? yes

1158) Golden time for avulsed tooth? 30 min

1159) Which suture material is used for taking biopsy? 3/0 black silk

1160) Which suture material is used to carry out intra oral work? 3/0 vicryl

1161) Which suture material is used for skin or lip trauma? 4/0 or 6/0 prolene

1162) What is gingivectomy and why it is done? is a periodontal surgical

procedure which includes the removal of gingival tissue in order to achieve a

more aesthetic appearance and/or functional contour. Gingivectomies are

frequently performed using electrosurgery to cauterize away the undesired gum

tissue.

1163) Treatment for pt with gingival hyperplasia due to epilepsy medication?

gingivectomy

1164) Which LA becomes neurotoxic at 4%? lignocaine

1165) What is the advantage of nitrous oxide and oxygen? Rapid effect (5

minutes)

1166) Which is most commonly used drug for intravenous anaesthesia in a

dental practice? midazolam

1167) What is the advantage of oral sedation over others? Short half life so can

be given prior to the appointment to reduce anxiety.

1168) How many milligrams of 3% lidocaine in 2.2ml cartridge? 66 mg

1169) How many milligrams of 2% lidocaine in 3 cartridges of 2.2ml? 132 mg

1170) How do you mange a child woth several cavities? Nitrous oxide

1171) How do you mange unaccompanied man for extraction? Local anaesthesia

1172) How do you mange man with gag reflex? Distraction

1173) How do you mange normal pt for simple restorative procedure? LA

1174) How do you manage nervous patient for extraction? Sedation

1175) How do you manage anxious pregnant woman? LA

1176) Anaesthetic for patient with congenital heart disease in an emergency

appointment? lignocaine

1177) which nerves will be anaesthetised for raising flaps in upper anterior

teeth? Anterior superior alveolar nerve

1178) maximum dose of lidocaine for child 5 years with 20 kg? 2 cartridges

1179) maximum dose for adult 125 kg? 10 cartridges

1180) Anaesthesia indicated for epileptic patient? bupivacaine

1181) how many mg of lignocaine 2% 1/80000 can be injected to a 20

kilogram person? 88 mg

1182) how many mg of lignocaine 2% 1/80000 can be injected to a 125

kilogram person? maximum 500 mg

1183) While doing a third molar surgery the lingual nerve was damaged

what

will this cause

a. The taste sensation to the tip of the tongue will be affected

b. The taste sensation to the tip of the tongue will be spared because it is

supplied by the glosspharyngeal nerve.

c. The general sensation on the same side of the tongue will be lost

1184) Which suture material do you use to repair oro-antral fistula? 3/0 vicryl

1185) Who all in a dental surgery should be able to deal with emergency? All

1186) child of 4 yrs needs multiple extraction and child is uncooperative? GA

1187) child of 6 yrs needs occlusal filling and child uncooperative? Nitrous oxide

1188) Restoration of the cervical area of a high caries incidence patient? GIC

1189) What is the most retentive type of pins? Self-tapping threaded pin

1190) What is the most retentive type of posts? Parallel threaded posts

1191) 70 year old with extensive root carries: best treatment? GIC

1192) When making Dentures

what you cannot change? condylar horizontal

plane (intercondylar axis)

1193) Second impression for resorbed ridge in denture

which is the best

material to use? ZOE

1194) Better restoration material for class V in Sjogren syndrome? GIC

1195) Lingual cavity in posterior teeth in Parkinson patient

which material is

better to use? amalgam

1196) Inicial caries lesion surface characteristic? Porosity

roughness

demineralization

white spot and may become discoloured

1197) what you can check outside patients mouth on articulator? Trial dentures

1198) Which is more likely to happen to an interproximal composite filling

rather than an amalgam filling? leakage or fracture

1199) How is stepwise excavation done? At the first visit

the peripheral carious

lesions were completely removed using rotating instruments

the outermost part

of the central dentine was gently removed with a sharp excavator. A calcium

hydroxide-containing base material must be applied

and a temporary filling put

in place after removing the cariogentic tissue. At the second visit

soft dentine in

the central parts of cavity should be completely removed during the final

excavation after 6 months

1200) Which measurement is taken with a single record block in the mouth?

RVD

1201) What would be the choice of restoration for a root filled canine? fibre

reinforced post and composite core (lowest stress on the root)

1202) RCT was carried out in a molar which had a MOD amalgam restoration.

What would be your choice of restoration? Gold inlay (maximum support and

longest life)

1203) Cement used for cantilever with little preparation? Resin cement

1204) Butt joint definition

purpose? Is a 90 degree cavosurface angled soulder

finishing line

1205) Picture of central incisor with 2 red posts to identify what sort of post

they were? Impression posts

1206) Crown given for a post retained tooth? Metal ceramic

1207) Patient with resorbed lower ridge requires impression. Material used to

do it? ZnOE with spaced tray.

1208) what can we check before trial on the patient? Anatomic tooth position.

1209) Picture of patient with a crown on Central incisor shown and Reason for

gingival inflammation asked? subgingival margin.

1210) Best method to diagnose the below asked situations.

a. Caries half way through enamel on proximal surface? Briault probe

b. Caries half way through enamel on occlusal surface. Direct vision

c. Caries half way through dentine on occlusal surface. bitewing

d. Stained fissure. Dry surface and vision

e. Hidden/occult caries . transillumination

1211) Which kind of wires is used by the orthodontic technician to make

appliance? stainless steel

1212) What is more important in a successful post? length

1213) chrome cobalt and gold

Which one has more and which has less modulus

of elasticity? Chrome cobalt has least modulus of elasticity followed by stainless

steel then gold.

1214) Wedge not placed what happens? overhang

1215) Picture - Patient complains about her lower canines (last teeth)

she has a

nice partial denture

canines pocketing less then 2mm and 50% bone support

what treatment is the best? RCT if Canines treatable and overdenture

1216) what is most useful for a molar filling in a woman? Composite resin

1217) what is the choice of crown for a tooth with MOD amalgam filling and

fractured palatal cusp? ¾ gold crown

1218) A dentist is carrying out electrosurgery on a patient and the patient

sneezes with his head moving forward

which is most likely to occur? Mucosal

burn

1219) A dentist is using a soflex disc on an upper molar & lacks finger support.

What is most likely to occur? Gingival laceration

1220) What would you do when a patient comes with an asymptomatic root

canal treated tooth with periapical radioluscency treated by some other dentist?

monitor

1221) Die fail to fit to preparation and cast? die damage + distorted

1222) Inlay fail to fit to preparation? undercuts

1223) how far should you fill a canal in relation to the apex? 0.5mm short

1224) Safest material for vital pulpotomy? ferrous sulphate

1225) Commonest cause of enamel staining? fluorosis

1226) how would you assess tooth wear? study casts

1227) the most likely food to cause erosin? Fruit juices

1228) best way to arrest erosive food cause? diet diary

1229) in which injury is the pulp likely to remain vital? concussion

1230) best way for upper denture retention? Peripheral seal

1231) urinary trac infxn? E.coli

1232) infection in digestive system in uk ? helicobacter pylori

1233) food poisoning and diarrhea ? staphylococcal enterotoxin

1234) travelling? E.coli

1235) new employee with low antibodies to Hepatitis B? Health and saftey

1236) method of sterilization for shade guides? wipping

1237) What should not be kept in the infected area? computer

1238) Metallic sound? intrusion

1239) 'cracked cup' sound? lefort 1

1240) Which fracture may cause csf leak? Cribriform plate of ethmoids

1241) Which fracture cause epistaxis? Zygoma

1242) What is sclerotic dentine? Secondary Dentine prone to mineralization in

reaction to caries

1243) Which drug cause tinnitus in overdose? Aspirin

1244) Which element cause Amalgam corrosion? Gamma 2 (mercury and tin)

1245) Effects of thumb sucking in a child? Anterior open bite and sometimes

posterior cross bite

1246) Splint time for avulsion? 7 days

1247) Golden time for a tooth to be out of the socket? 30 min

1248) Which drug cause diarrhoea? clindamycin

1249) Headgear indications? The most common treatment headgear used for is

correcting anteroposterior discrepancies

1250) tramline appearance? The normal radiographic appearance of the ID

canal (two thin

parallel radiopaque lines — the so-called tramlines)

1251) what makes radiographic image too light? Underexposure

reversed

positioning of the film

dilute or expired solution or underprocessing.

1252) What makes radiographic image too dark? Overexposure

hot chemicals

or exposure to light

1253) What makes radiographic image blank? Unexposed or fixed first film.

1254) What makes radiographic image appear with white line across? Bent film

1255) What makes radiographic image appear with dark dots? Developer or

water splash

1256) What makes radiographic image appear with white dots? Fixer splash

1257) What makes radiographic image appear green or grey? Unprocessed films

1258) How much radiation reduced by using rectangular collimation? 40%

1259) How much radiation reduced by using f speed film instead d speed film?

Radiation reduced from 0.008 for two bitewings to 0.0016 (about 70%).

1260) What is the best x-ray to show TMJ capsule and soft tissue? MRI

1261) What is the best x-ray for maxillary sinus and zygoma? OM (CT in case of

sinus pathology)

1262) How often you take radiograph after doing RCT or crown? After 1 and 4

years if tooth asymptomatic

1263) How often you take radiograph in vital pulp procedure? At 6 monthly

intervals until root formation complete.

1264) What is the best x-ray to assess bone quality prior to implant? Periapical

1265) What is the best x-ray to assess bone height prior to implant? DPT

1266) What is the city to be fluoridated in 2011? Southampton

1267) Patient with dry mouth will benefit the most from? Fluoride mouth rinses

1268) What is the concentration of fluoride in mouth rinse? 0.05%

1269) For how long you should acid etch enamel? 15-20 seconds

1270) For how long you should acid etch dentine? 10-15 seconds

1271) What is the mode of action of penicillin? Bactericidal

act by interfering

with bacterial cell wall synthesis

1272) What is the mode of action of metronidazole? The metronidazole

metabolites are taken up into bacterial DNA

and form unstable molecules

1273) What is the mode of action of tetracycline? They bind to microbial

ribosomes and inhibit protein synthesis.

1274) What is the mode of action of erythromycin? It belongs to macrolids

family

It is bactericidal

synthesis

1275) What is the mode of action of clindamycin? It belongs to lincosamids

family

it is bacteriostatic

synthesis.

1276) What is the mode of action of gentamycin? It belongs to aminoglycosides

family and it act by interfering with protein synthesis

1277) What is the mode of action of vancomycin? it belongs to glycopeptides

antibiotics. It inhibit cell wall synthesis by inhibiting peptidoglycan synthesis.

1278) What is the mode of action of fluconazole? It inhibit fungal cytochrome

enzyme to produce essential component for fungal cytoplasmic membrane

1279) What is the mode of action of carbamazepine? It stabilizes voltage gated

sodium channels

1280) What is the mode of action of benzodiazepine? Benzodiazepines work by

increasing the efficiency of a natural brain chemical

GABA

neurons

1281) What is the mode of action of acyclovir? is a very potent inhibitor of viral DNA

polymerase

1282) What is the mode of action of rifampicin? Rifampicin inhibits DNA-dependent

RNA polymerase in bacterial cells

1283) What is the mode of action of polymixin? polymyxins disrupt both the outer

and inner membranes of Gram-negative bacteria

1284) What is the mode of action of cephalosporin? It interferes with cell wall synthesis

1285) What is the composition of enamel?

96% mineralized (calcium phosphate) and 4% water and organic matrix.

1286) What is the composition of dentine?

70% minerals 20% organic (type 1 collagen and 10% water)

1287) Which type of collagen found in dentinal tubules? Type 5

1288) What is the difference between primary and tertiary dentine?

Tertiary: type I and III Primary: only type I

1289) What is mantle?

It is the outermost layer of primary dentine and the first formed and less mineralised

1290) What is primary dentine?

Is forms most of the tooth and contains mantle and circumpulpal dentine

1291) What is secondary dentine? It is formed after root completion throughout life and lead to pulps recession

1292) What is sclerotic dentine?

It is mineralized dentinal tubules of secondary dentine

1293) What is predentine?

It is the innermost layer of dentine covering the pulp

1294) What is tertiary or reparative dentine?

It is dentine produced in response to caries

1295) What is osteodentine?

It is rapidly produced tertiary dentine that contains very few tubules

1296) What is intratubular dentine?

Hypermineralized dentine formed inside tubules

1297) what is intertubular dentine?

Dentine formed between tubules

1298) what is interglobular dentine?

Poorly mineralised dentine

1299) what is the most abundant cell in the pulp?

Fibroblasts

1300) what is the cell that is not present in healthy uninflammed pulp?

B Lymphocyte

1301) what is the composition of cementum?

50% mineralized and 50% organic

1302) what are sharpey fibres?

They are the embedded ends of collagen fibres of the PDL

1303) what are the predominant type of cells in PDL?

Fibroblasts

1304) what are the cells that found in the PDL under pathologic conditions only?

Cementoclasts

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