What is the formula for ROIC
(EBIT * (1-tax rate)) / avg operating capital
4 types of non-recurring items
3 types of investments
EXCEL: what is the line item order of reinvestments (PPE)
EXCEL: what is the line item order of reinvestments (tangibles)
What is the formula for Trade Receivable Days and Accounts Payable Days
TRD: trade and other receivables / operating capital * 365
APD: trade and other payables / revenue * 365
Give the EBIT > FCFF overview
EBIT
- Taxes
NOPAT
+ Depreciation
+ Amortisation
+ Proceeds assets held for sale (change in book value on BS)
+ Change in provisions
+ Change non-current operating liabilities
+ Change in DTL
FCFF
3 lifecycle stages of firms
Forecast period must be how long?
Long enough for the company to reach a steady state characterised by:
- constant reinvestment rate
- constant RONIC
Calculate stable growth rate in Excel; procedure
Principles needed to calculate RF
4 ways to estimate the cost of debt
3 Determinants of the cost of debt
4 types of multiples
2 Key principles with choosing multiples
Advantage and disadvantage of revenue multiples
Pro: cannot be zero and is less easy to manipulate
Con: high revenue doesn’t imply high profit. This is really firm dependent.
Name the strengths and weaknesses of the APV method
+ it’s able to adjust for capital structure
+ takes into account the cost of financial distress
+ valuation of private companies without measurable D/E ratio
– requires a lot of uncertain inputs that make practical implementation poor
> synthetic credit ratings
> expected cost of financial distress
> rate to discount tax shields
> other effects of leverage on value besides the tax shield
3 general assumptions for cost of equity for public companies
Explain the steps and inputs involved in calculating the IMPLIED ERP
The EPR is calculated by reverse-engineering the valuation of the index by using a DCF. That is, decide the forecast horizon, the expected CFs from the index (from for instance analyst reports) and the discount rate for each period. The current level of the index is the valuation of the index and you have information on cash flows as well as the risk-free part of the discount rate. If we assume that the CAPM is the appropriate discount model, the remaining unknown variable is the ERP. You can calculate this and get a forward looking measure of risk.
For this to work, we have to assume we’re using a similar model as the marginal market participant, that is, we have to assume that our choice of forces horizon is correct and that analyst estimates accurately proxy for the market’s growth expectations of CFs. We also have to assume the CAPM is the appropriate measure of risk.
Give the steps of bottom-up beta
You typically use the book value of debt to proxy for the market value of debt when calculating the D/E ratio. In what kind of firms does this approximation lead to large errors and what could be done to correct for them?
For distressed firms where the market value of debt is below the book value. Using book value to calculate D/E will lead to large errors.
In order to correct for these errors, some kind of discount must be applied to the book value of debt. Look for example at how the market value of similarly traded debt relative to its book value and apply a discount. Or, look at the YTM on similarly rated traded debt and calculate a market value of your firm’s debt using this.
A student is valuing a privately-held firm. He is using the CAPM to calculate the asset beta of the firm’s publicly-traded peers and their average D/E (debt-to-equity) ratio (in market value terms) to calculate its cost of levered cost of equity. Explain why this is inappropriate
The CAPM assumes that the marginal investor holds a diversified portfiolio and therefore expects compensation for only non-diversifiable risk, which is captured by the beta measure of publicly-traded firms. The marginal investor (the owner) in a private firm does not hold a diversified portfolio and (s)he therefore expects compensation for firm-specific as well as non-diversifiable risk. The beta estimated based on publicly-listed peers understates the risk and hence the cost of equity of the privately-held firm.
Explain the concepts of ‘discount for lack of diversification’, ‘illiquidity discount’, and ‘control premium’
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