0
Q
- (601) Which of the following results from the measures taken by commanders to protect their forces?
A
c. Security.
1
Q
- (601) Which principle of war is the most effective and decisive way to attain a clearly defined objective and is the means by which a military force seizes and holds the initiative while maintaining freedom of action and achieving decisive results?
A
b. Offensive.
2
Q
- (602) What is achieved by the balanced employment of firepower and patrolling?
A
d. Aggressive defense.
3
Q
- (602) A force can dominate an area, place direct or indirect fire on critical resources by capturing
A
a. key terrains.
4
Q
- (603) After the threat has been neutralized, which integrated defense effect is implemented to consolidate and reorganize friendly forces and restore operations?
A
c. Recovery.
5
Q
- (604) Which force is the Air Force enterprise leader for integrated defense operations?
A
b. Security forces.
6
Q
- (605) Which agency will the base defense operations center up-channel COVERED WAGON reportable incidents through?
A
d. Installation command post.
7
Q
- (605) The jettisoning of a nuclear weapon or nuclear component is an example of a nuclear weapons
A
a. accident.
8
Q
- (606) Personnel assigned to the Priority III routine category should be evacuated within how many hours?
A
d. 24.
9
Q
- (606) What may be the most dangerous type of improvised explosive device?
A
c. Vehicle-borne.
10
Q
- (607) Who directs US forces to respond rapidly to certain crises either unilaterally or as a part of an interagency and/or multinational effort?
A
c. President or Secretary of Defense.
11
Q
- (608) Which operation is principally conducted to evacuate US citizens?
A
d. Noncombatant evacuation.
12
Q
- (608) Which operation may be clandestine, covert, or overt depending on whether the operational environment is hostile, uncertain, or permissive?
A
d. Recovery.
13
Q
- (609) Which intelligence collection often may provide the most useful source of information?
A
c. HUMINT.
14
Q
- (609) Force protection measures will be planned according with
A
b. the risks to the force
15
Q
- (610) Which type of attack may involve an insider threat?
A
b. Penetration attack.
16
Q
- (611) Which agency is the lead for terrorist incidents that occur outside the US?
A
a. Department of State.
17
Q
- (611) The tactic terrorist groups use most commonly is
A
b. bombing.
18
Q
- (612) Active terrorist groups are organized into cells that can be as small as two people or as large as
A
c. 25–30.
19
Q
- (612) Which individuals/groups promote their cause by any means and are ideologically inspired?
A
d. Crusaders.
20
Q
- (613) What threat level assessment indicates anti-US terrorists are operationally active and use large casualty-producing attacks as their preferred method of operation?
A
c. High.
21
Q
- (614) The key distinction between an insurgency and other types of movements is the decision to use
A
a. violence to achieve political goals.
22
Q
- (614) COIN operations require leaders to exhibit
A
c. patience, persistence, and presence.
23
Q
- (614) To avoid detection by the government, how will insurgents operate?
A
c. In small bands.
24
25. (615) Which agency was created by a formal agreement between two or more governments?
d. Intergovernmental organization.
25
26. (615) Which agency is the most notable intergovernmental organization?
a. The United Nations.
26
27. (616) Aerial ports of debarkation, border crossings, and seaports of debarkation are all examples of key
c. sovereignty issues.
27
28. (617) Which base is austerely manned but is capable of expanding into a full-scale air base operation?
d. Forward operating base.
28
29. (617) What do peacetime or contingency operations require when planning how and where to use security forces unit UTC?
d. Flexibility.
29
30. (618) During base defense operations what does the DFC use staff control tools for?
d. Disseminate his or her orders and manage the base defense operations plan.
30
31. (618) An effective tool to control integrated defense operations is
a. charts and forms.
31
32. (618) What should a flight sector sketch show?
b. Flight and squadron identification.
32
33. (619) In what year did the Geneva Conventions become effective?
b. 1956.
33
34. (620) Why is speed essential when processing captives, detainees, and prisoners?
c. The intelligence a CDP brings in is time sensitive.
34
35. (621) The safe operating distance of radio frequency transmitters around refueling locations is
a. 20 meters.
35
36. (621) To avoid receiving an electrical shock when disconnecting the battery from the electronic security systems (ESS),
b. remove the positive lead first.
36
37. (622) Which function provides transmission of data between the TASS sensors and annunciators?
c. Communications.
37
38. (623) What security system consists of a variety of sensors, repeaters, and a hand-held display monitor?
b. TMS.
38
39. (624) A scanning method known as the self preservation method of search lasts approximately
d. 30 seconds.
39
40. (624) When marking targets, the more effective means of delivering accurate fire is
b. aiming point.
40
41. (624) What is the greatest limitation in using the 100 meter method of range determination?
d. Accuracy is directly related to amount of terrain visible to the observer.
41
42. (625) How does the observer use off center vision when viewing an object during limited visibility?
b. Look 10 degrees above, below, or to either side of it rather than directly at it.
42
42. (625) How does the observer use off center vision when viewing an object during limited visibility
b. Look 10 degrees above, below, or to either side of it rather than directly at it
43
43. (625) If you adapted to the dark before donning goggles, you will gain full dark adaptation within how many minutes after removing the goggles
d. 2
44
44. (626) When burying the TMS magnetic sensor, how deep perpendicular to the avenue of approach must you bury the magnetic sensor head
a. 2 to 4 inches
45
45. (626) The components that make up the tactical miniature sensor active infrared detection sensor are
a. an emitter head with battery case, sensor head, and transmitter
46
46. (627) The Eltec 864M1E long-range passive infrared sensors detection capability can be degraded in
b. dense fog
47
47. (628) What is the WSTI used for
c. To assess the alarms of a sensor activation
48
48. (628) How many people are required to set up the wide-area surveillance thermal imager tripod
b. Two
49
49. (628) From where are do all operational command and controls performed from
c. JCU
50
50. (628) The primary purpose of the LRTI-CCTV is to
d. assess alarms annunciating from the TASS system
51
51. (629) Which major component on the AN/PVS–4 is adjusted for variations in the user’s eyesight
b. Eyepiece assembly
52
52. (630) What are the components of the AN/PVS 7 night vision goggle
a. Facemask and goggle
53
53. (630) What part of the AN/PVS 7 night vision goggle does the sacrificial window protect
c. Glass lens
54
54. (631) The level of performance for the AN/PVS–14 depends upon the level of
c. light
55
55. (631) On the AN/PVS–14 night vision device what enables the operator to see azimuth readings in the monocular
a. Compass
56
56. (631) On the AN/PVS–14 night vision device what adjusts the distance between your eye and the monocular
a. Eye relief adjustment
57
57. (632) The head held thermal imager powers on in what mode
c. Auto
58
58. (633) During offensive and defensive operations, what determines when you should change your camouflage
c. The weather and the type of material used
59
59. (633) Where is the best position for a defensive fighting position to avoid enemy detection
b. The side of a hill
60
60. (633) What are the three ways of concealing yourself from enemy detection
b. Hiding, blending and deceiving
61
61. (634) When camouflaging your skin around the eyes, nose, and chin, use
a. light paint colors
62
62. (635) Why does camouflage discipline become more important at night
a. Noises seem amplified and revealing at night
63
63. (635) One of the simplest ways to distort the outline of a weapon is
d. wrap it with burlap garnishing or strips of dyed cloth
64
64. (636) What determines if you will build overhead cover up or down on a defensive firing position
d. The potential for enemy observation of position
65
65. (636) What is the proper method of firing from a window
b. Kneeling and far back from the window
66
66. (637) To ensure there is no binding between the trigger and trigger pivot when the trigger is cocked, place the trip wire at
c. right angles to the axis of the trigger
67
67. (637) When recovering the M49A1 trip flare, what is the first step using the pull pin method
a. Remove the pull pin and replace the safety clip
68
68. (638) What movement technique do you use when speed is required and you can’t use the rush technique
b. High crawl
69
69. (638) You use the rolling movement technique to
d. confuse your adversary
70
70. (638) The most common mistakes when moving past windows are exposing the head and
b. not being aware of basement windows
71
71. (638) Allowing your weapon to extend past the edge of a corner is called
c. flagging
72
72. (639) Selection of team movement techniques is based on
b. likelihood of enemy contact and need for speed
73
73. (640) Which movement technique do you use when speed is essential and enemy contact is not likely
a. Traveling
74
74. (640) In the traveling overwatch formation, the trailing fire team is located
c. 50 meters behind the lead fire team
75
75. (640) You use the bounding overwatch formation when
d. enemy contact is expected
76
76. (641) What are the two types of ambushes
d. Near and far
77
77. (642) The smallest unit to conduct an area ambush is
a. a squad
78
78. (643) When using the clock technique to defend against counterattacks, where does the squad leader position key weapons
b. Along likely avenues of approach
79
79. (644) What is an easily located and defendable location on a patrol’s route
d. Objective rally point
80
80. (644) Based on the terrain, vegetation and visibility, leaders establish en route rally points every 100 to
d. 400 meters
81
81. (645) What are the principles of NIDD
c. Notify, impede, disable, and destroy
82
82. (646) Where can you find the sheet name of a map
d. In the center of the top margin and on the lower left area margin
83
83. (647) What terrain feature is a stretched out groove in the land, usually formed by streams and rivers
c. Valley
84
84. (648) What do contour lines show you when you look at a map
a. Relief and elevation on a standard topographic map
85
85. (648) What are the three types of contour lines used on a topographic map
d. Index, intermediate, and supplementary
86
86. (648) What types of slope are evenly spaced, but close together
a. Steep
87
87. (649) When reading a topographical map to plot a grid coordinate, you read from
c. left to right; bottom to top
88
88. (650) What is the center of the protractor circle from which all directions are measured
d. Index mark
89
89. (651) The easiest method for measuring distance in a straight line is to use
a. a ruler
90
90. (652) To ensure proper functioning of a compass, the safe separation distance from telephone wire is
a. 10 meters
91
91. (652) Which method is used almost exclusively for sighting and is the best technique for this purpose
d. Compass to cheek
92
92. (652) If you use the watch method to find directions on daylight savings time, the north-south line is between the hour hand and
c. 1300 hours
93
93. (653) Which method lets you locate a position using two well-defined locations pinpointed on a map
a. Resection
94
94. (654) Which field expedient method is more forgiving of mistakes and less time consuming
d. Navigating by terrain association
95
95. (655) What does the term METT-TC mean
d. Mission, enemy, terrain and weather, troops, and time available
96
96. (656) Why is navigating by terrain association preferred over dead reckoning
c. Errors in navigation are easily correctable
97
97. (657) The DAGR provides to the user position
c. velocity, time reporting, and navigation capabilities
98
98. (657) Which DAGR mode uses the most power and tracks satellites to produce a continuous PVT solution
Continuous
99
99. (658) What consists of a collection of position and movement data for a geographic location
d. Navigation and route planning
100
100. (659) How many way points can be entered and stored in the AN/PSN–11
c. 999
Air Force CDCs
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Decks in class (4)
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