VTNE Flashcards by Katelyn Kosti

The pressure in the systemic arteries during ventricular contraction is
A) diastolic blood pressure
B) osmotic pressure
C) systolic blood pressure
D) low pressure

C) systolic blood pressure

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In what order does the impulse for depolarization travel through the heart?
A) AV node, SA node, bundle of His, Purkinje fibres
B) SA node, AV node, bundle of His, purkinje fibres
C) SA node, AV node, purkinje fibres, bundle of His
D) AV node, SA node, purkinje fibres, bundle of His

B) SA node, AV node, bundle of His, purkinje fibres

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The muscle sphincter located between the stomach and the duodenum is the
A) pylorus
B) cardia
C) chyme
D) rugae

A) pylorus

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When a stimulation is strong enough to cause complete depolarization, it has reached
A) threshold
B) repolarization
C) refractory period
D) action potential

A) threshold

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Smooth muscles can be found in the
A) heart
B) stomach
C) pelvic limb
D) diaphragm

B) stomach

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On inspiration, the pressure in the thoracic cavity, as compared with ambient air pressure is
A) negative
B) positive
C) same as the ambient air pressure
D) fluctuating

A) negative

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The cranial nerves originate from the
A) cerebellum
B) spinal cord
C) brain stem
D) cerebrum

C) brain stem

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In dairy cattle, teats and udders are gently washed before milling to stimulate the release of one of the following, to stimulate milk letdown
A) adrenalin
B) norepinephrine
C) dopamine
D) oxytocin

D) oxytocin

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What percentage of an animals body weight consists of blood?
A) 0.1%
B) 1%
C) 8%
D) 30%

C) 8%

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What circulatory system is under the highest pressure?
A) pulmonary
B) coronary
C) systemic
D) capillaries

C) systemic

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In birds, the cloaca is
A) an appendage suspended from the head
B) a blind sac at the distal end of the jejunum
C) a cleft in the hard palate
D) a common passage for fecal, urinary, and reproductive systems

D) a common passage for fecal, urinary, and reproductive systems

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All of the following major vessels contribute to blood flowing into the cranial vena cava except for the
A) brachiocephalic vein
B) thoracic duct
C) azygos vein
D) femoral vein

D) femoral vein

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Which of these is not a division of the small intestine?
A) duodenum
B) ilium
C) ileum
D) jejunum

B) ilium

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Which of the following is a ductless system?
A) exocrine system
B) endocrine system
C) lymphatic system
D) all of the above

B) endocrine system

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The lymphatic structure found in the small intestines responsible for the transport of fats and fat soluble vitamins is
A) afferent lymphatic vessels
B) lacteals
C) trabeculae
D) spleen

B) lacteals

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The time period from the beginning of one heat cycle to the next is called
A) estrous
B) estrus
C) ovulation
D) mating cycle

A) estrous

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The anatomical term for synovial joints is
A) fibroarthroses
B) amphiathroses
C) synarthroses
D) diarthroses

D) diarthroses

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The name of the hole between the cardiac atria that closes at birth is
A) aortic hiatus
B) foramen
C) fossa
D) foramen ovale

D) foramen ovale

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The ear drum is also called
A) pinna
B) tympanic membrane
C) eustachian tubes
D) cochlea

B) tympanic membrane

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The function of the red blood cell is to
A) provide defense from foreign invaders
B) act as a phagocyte
C) carry oxygen to the tissues
D) respond to the need for clotting

C) carry oxygen to the tissues

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What artery carries deoxygenated blood?
A) aorta
B) pulmonary
C) coronary
D) carotid

B) pulmonary

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RBC production is stimulated by
A) hypoxia and erythropoietin
B) erythropoietin and thrombocytes
C) fibrinogen and acetylcholine
D) leukocytes

A) hypoxia and erythropoietin

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What structure is the pacemaker of the heart?
A) bundle of His
B) purkinje fibres
C) atrioventricular node
D) sinoatrial node

D) sinoatrial node

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In the normal heart ECG, the QRS complex corresponds to what portion of the cardiac cycle?
A) the QRS is the entire ECG cycle
B) atrial depolarization
C) ventricular depolarization
D) ventricular repolarization

C) ventricular depolarization

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The islets of langerhans are associated with which organ? A) pancreas B) liver C) kidneys D) adrenal glands

A) pancreas

Which is the following for the correct path for urine elimination? A) ureter, kidneys, urethra, bladder B) kidneys, urethra, bladder, ureter C) kidneys, ureters, bladder, urethra D) urethra, bladder, ureters, kidneys

C) kidneys, ureters, bladder, urethra

Which of the following hormones are responsible for urine volume regulation? A) ADH B) aldosterone C) glucagon D) both A and B

D) both A and B

Which of the following best defines the term for cryptorchidism? A) torsion of one of both testes B) one or both testes do not fully descend C) surgical removal of both testes D) inflammatory condition of the testis

B) one or both tested do not fully descend

Which of the following species is not considered to be multiparous? A) dogs B) sows C) cattle D) cats

C) cattle

When an animal is said to be in a period of temporary ovarian inactivity, this is known as A) anestrus B) diestrus C) pseudocyesis D) heat

A) anestrus

The kidneys perform the waste removal function by which of the following actions m? A) filtration B) reabsorption C) secretion D) all of the above

D) all of the above

The thorax is divided into right and left side by a connective tissue septum known as the A) mediastinum B) pericardium C) pulmonary pleura D) sternum

A) mediastinum

Which types of bones contain air filled spaces know as sinuses that reduce the weight of the bone? A) sesamoid bones B) pneumatic bones C) splanchnic bones D) irregular bones

B) pneumatic bones

Cells that are responsible for laying down new bones are known as A) osteoblasts B) osteoclasts C) ossification D) hemopoeisis

A) osteoblasts

Which species contains a bone within the penis what is known as the os penis A) dogs B) cats C) horses D) ruminants

A) dogs

The thoracic cavity is considered to be in what anatomical direction from the abdomen? A) caudal B) cranial C) dorsal D) ventral

B) cranial

The causal end of the sternum is referred to as the A) xiphoid process B) trochanter C) calcaneus D) cannon bone

A) xiphoid process

Which element of the periodic table is required for muscle contraction, nerve impulse, transmission, and blood clotting A) nitrogen B) oxygen C) phosphorus D) calcium

D) calcium

What are chemicals that dissolve or mix well in water called? A) hydrophilic B) hydrophobic C) solute D) solvent

A) hydrophilic

Which of the following levels is considered the most acidic of the pH scale? A) 2.5 B) 5 C) 7 D) 12

A) 2.5

Which of the following is an example of a carbohydrate? A) sugar B) starch C) cellulose D) all of the above

D) all of the above

Prostaglandins provide all of the following functions, except A) regulate hormone synthesis B) enhance immune system C) provide inflammatory response D) block the COX-2 pathway

D) block the COX-2 pathway

Which types of lipid take the form of four interlocking hydrocarbon rings A) steroids B) triglycerides C) prostaglandins D) phospholipids

A) steroids

Nucleic acids consist of which of the following classes A) RNA B) DNA C) ribose D) both A and B

D) both A and B

The molecular building blocks of nucleic acids are known as A) chromosomes B) nucleotides C) proteins D) carbohydrates

B) nucleotides

All of the following are nucleotides, except A) adenine B) guanine C) thiamine D) cytosine

C) thiamine

Which type of blood vessel carries blood away from the heart A) veins B) arteries C) capillaries D) Vena cava

B) arteries

Which structure is composed of several C-shaped incomplete rings of hyaline cartilage A) esophagus B) trachea C) larynx D) pharynx

B) trachea

Where does gas exchange occur in the lungs? A) bronchi B) alveolus C) alveolar duct D) larynx

B) alveolus

What makes up the bulk of the tooth? A) enamel B) crown C) dentin D) root

C) dentin

Which of the following are the most rostral teeth in the mouth of small animals? A) canines B) crown C) dentin D) incisors

D) incisors

What regulates the size of the opening of the esophagus into the stomach A) duodenum B) pyloric sphincter C) cardiac sphincter D) epiglottis

C) cardiac sphincter

Which vein carries nutrient-rich blood from the intestines to the liver? A) inferior vena cava B) portal vein C) hepatic vein D) splenic vein

B) portal vein

What is considered the most primitive part of the brain? A) cerebellum B) cerebrum C) brain stem D) gray matter

C) brainstem

Spinal nerves from the sacral region carry which type of nerve fiber A) sympathetic nerve fibres B) parasympathetic nerve fibres C) both D) neither

B) parasympathetic nerve fibres

How many types of cranial nerves exist? A) 5 B) 8 C) 10 D) 12

D) 12

Which cranial nerve is responsible for balance and hearing? A) trochlear B) vestibulocochlear C) accessory D) optic

B) vestibulocochlear

Which of the following cranial nerves is the longest cranial nerve that innervates many organs in the body A) trigeminal B) vestibulocochlear C) vagus D) hypoglossal

C) vagus

Visceral sensations include which of the following A) heat and cold B) hunger and thirst C) odours D) touch and pressure

B) hunger and thirst

Which of the following is a cartilaginous funnel that collects sound waves and directs the media into the external auditory canal A) pinna B) Eustachian tube C) cochlea D) tympanic membrane

A) pinna

Which of the following is part of the inner ear? A) cochlea B) malleus C) incus D) tympanic membrane

A) cochlea

The vestibular sense is responsible for A) taste B) balance and head position C) vision D) hearing

B) balance and head position

The clear window on the rostral portion of the eye is known as A) eyelids B) cornea C) iris D) sclera

B) cornea

What structure is located immediately caudal to the cornea? A) lens B) iris C) anterior chamber D) vitreous humor

C) anterior chamber

Where are visual images formed within the eye? A) lens B) cornea C) vitreous humor D) retina

D) retina

What happens to the iris of the eye in dim light? A) the muscles relax, allowing the pupil to dilate B) the muscle contract, allowing the pupil to constrict C) the muscle constrict D) nothing, the light does not affect the iris

A) the muscles relax, allowing the pupil to dilate

Which hormones are produced by the corpus luteum and are necessary to maintain pregnancy A) FSH B) LH C) progesterone B) estrogen

C) progesterone

Which of the following forms the tail of the horse A) the cervical vertebrae B) the sacrum C) the coccygeal vertebrae D) the lumbar vertebrae

C) the coccygeal vertebrae

Which of the following joint lies between the canon bone and the long pastern A) stifle B) fetlock C) pastern D) carpal

B) fetlock

The deltoid tuberosity is located on which of the following bones of the horse A) radius B) ulna C) humerus D) scapula

C) humerus

Approximately how much of the weight do the fore limbs of the horse carry? A) 20% B) 40% C) 60% D) 80%

C) 60%

All of the following muscle of the horse extended to the hock, except A) gastrocnemius B) semimembranosus C) semitendonosus D) bicep femoris

B) semimembranosus

Which of the following muscles of the horse is responsible for extending the elbow A) infraspinatus B) gastrocnemius C) pectoral D) triceps

D) triceps

What is the normal heart rate for a horse at rest? A) 25-42 B) 40-140 C) 48-84 D) 260-600

A) 24-42

Which sinus lies in the dorsal part of the skull medial to the orbit? A) frontal sinus B) two maxillary sinuses C) oropharynx D) nasopharynx

A) frontal sinus

Which animal has a cotylendonary placenta? A) cat B) dog C) horse D) sheep

D) sheep

Lymph nodes found in the caudal aspect of the leg at the level of the patella are the A) popliteal B) inguinal C) mandibular D) pre scapular

A) popliteal

What is the average length of the esophagus in the average size horse? A) 1.5 inches B) 1.5cm C) 1.5mm D) 1.5m

D) 1.5m

The sternum of birds is extended into a laterally flattened ? which provides a large surface area for the attachment of the major flight muscles A) coracoid B) keel C) beak D) quadrate

B) keel

What division are birds missing that normally seen between the thorax and abdomen of other animals A) lungs B) diaphragm C) liver D) keel

B) diaphragm

Secretions from which gland keeps feathers waterproof? A) alula B) preen C) gizzard D) coracoid

B) preen

How many chambers does the avian heart contain? A) 1 B) 2 C) 3 D) 4

D) 4

Which of the following systems attached to the cloaca in birds A) reproductive B) digestive C) urinary D) all of the above

D) all of the above

How many cervical vertebrae do rabbits have? A) 7 B) 8 C) 13 D) 15

A) 7

The incus, malleus, and stapes are all bones that create the ? in small animals? A) ear B) face C) foot D) cranium

A) ear

What is the fluid of a cell called? A) cytoplasm B) cytosol C) cytoskeleton D) tubulins

B) cytosol

Which canine muscle originates from the dorsal midline from C2 to C7 and inserts on the spine of the scapula A) pectoralis B) trapezius C) latissimus D) braciocephalicus

B) trapezius

Which of the following are present in all organ/tissues and are the sites of exchange between blood and tissue fluid? A) venules B) capillaries C) valves D) lymph

B) capillaries

What structure is not part of the upper respiratory tract? A) bronchiole B) larynx C) pharynx D) trachea

A) bronchiole

What type of tissue is muscle attached to bone A) ligaments B) fat C) cartilage D) tendons

D) tendons

Which of these species has a lobulated kidney? A) sheep B) horses C) cattle D) goats

C) cattle

What cell component is primarily responsible for energy supply for various cell processes? A) nucleolus B) mitochondria C) Golgi apparatus D) granular (rough) endoplasmic reticulum

B) mitochondria

Which reaction is the result of sympathetic nervous system stimulation? A) decreased HR B) dilated pupils C) increased GI activity D) increased salivation

B) dilated pupils

Apnea will cause A) metabolic acidosis B) metabolic alkalosis C) respiratory acidosis D) respiratory alkalosis

C) respiratory acidosis

Which of the following lowers blood glucose? A) glucagon B) epinephrine C) glucocorticoids D) insulin

D) insulin

Food is moved along the digestive track by the process known as A) mastication B) prehension C) peristalsis D) reticulation

C) peristalsis

Smallest ruminant forestomach and the one most commonly involved in hard disease is the A) abomasum B) omasum C) reticulum D) rumen

C) reticulum

The true stomach of the ruminant is the A) abomasum B) omasum C) reticulum D) rumen

A) abomasum

Credentialed veterinary technicians are allowed to perform certain duties under the direct supervision of who A) office manager B) lead vet tech C) vet D) practice owner

C) vet

When a mistake is written in the medical record, what is the proper method correct it A) erase the mistake B) use white out C) draw single line and initial D) scratch it out

C) draw single line and initial

Employee discount on services greater than what percent must be reported to the IRS as pay A) 10% B) 15% C) 20% D) 50%

C) 20%

What is the correct protocol for handling a pregnant vet tech employee? A) place on resignation status B) transfer to reception C) limit in safety issues D) address safety issues with the facility but allow the employee to decide

D) address safety issues with the facility but allow the employee to decide

What does a SWOT analysis evaluate within a marketing plan? A) weaknesses B) opportunities C) strengths D) all of the above

D) all of the above

The percentage of clients who accept a recommendation is defined as A) quantity B) turnover C) retention D) compliance

D) compliance

What does a SWOT analysis evaluate within a marketing plan? A) weaknesses B) opportunities C) strengths D) all of the above

D) all of the above

When a client is not present to sign a euthanasia form to verify the euthanasia, how many team members must talk to the owner? A) 1 B) 2 C) 3 D) 4

B) 2

Miss charges account for approximately how much of gross revenue? A) 5% B) 10% C) 25% D) 45%

B) 10%

Which of the following correctly defines the prefix poly A) joint B) many C) disease D) cartilage

B) many

The study of the cause disease correctly correspond with which term A) etiopathology B) neogenic C) pathology D) idiopathic

A) etiopathology

Atypical heart sound associated with functional or structural valve abnormality is known as A) arrhythmia B) fibrillation C) murmur D) infarct

C) murmur

The prefix myring refers to which of the following A) ear B) eardrum C) embryo D) empty

B) eardrum

A female calf born twin to a bull calf is called what A) freshening B) freemartin C) heifer D) cow

B) freemartin

The number of animals within a population that becomes sick can be defined as A) morbidity B) mortality C) chronic D) acute

A) morbidity

Becoming progressively worse, recurring, and/or leading to death refers to A) remission B) malignant C) exacerbation D) idiopathic

B) malignant

Neoplasm refers to which of the following A) the process of abnormal or difficult growth B) a malignant growth of tissue C) any new and abnormal growth D) death of tissue

C) any new and normal growth

An abnormal presence of tissue cells in the blood is known as A) histology B) histiocytosis C) karyogenic D) homeostasis

B) histiocytosis

The term myodysplasia refers to, which of the following A) specialized cell for the storage of fat B) an abnormal growth of tissue C) an abnormal development of muscles D) slower than normal heartbeat

C) an abnormal development of muscles

Blood leaking from a ruptured vessel into subcutaneous tissue is known as A) cicatrix B) ecchymosis C) eschar D) fissure

B) ecchymosis

A circumscribed crater like lesion of the skin or mucous membrane is known as A) wheal B) suppurate C) ulcer D) papule

C) ulcer

A bridge that forms as part of the healing process across the 2 halves of bone fracture is known as A) condyle B) callus C) crest D) cull

B) callus

Osteomalacia is known as the A) hardening of bones B) softening of bones C) collection of abnormal cells that accumulate within the bones D) thickened skin

B) softening of bones

Which term is defined as the incomplete development or under development of an organ or tissue? A) osteoporosis B) hypoplasia C) hyperplasia D) ankylosis

B) hypoplasia

What structure connected muscles to bones? A) ligaments B) tendons C) foramen D) process

B) tendons

The term ipsilateral refers to which of the following? A) opposite side affected B) located in or affecting the same side of the body C) near or connected to the maxilla or jawbone D) movement away from the point of origin

B) located on or affecting the same side of the body

Inflammation of all bones or inflammation of every part of one bone is known as A) panosteitis B) polypathia C) pandemic D) osteoporosis

A) panosteitis

The term amyoplasia refers to A) lack of muscle formation or development B) paralysis of muscles C) muscular weakness or partial paralysis, restricted to one side of the body D) any disease of a muscle

A) lack of muscle formation or development

The term aponeurosis refers to which of the following definitions A) in acute tendon injury in which the tendon is forcibly torn away from it attachment side on the bone B) temporary muscle stiffening that follows death C) rapid involuntary muscle contractions that release waste heat D) sheet like dense fibrous collagenous connective tissue that binds muscles together or connects muscle to bone

D) she like dense fibres collagenous connective tissue that binds muscle together or connects muscle bone

The word root brachii refers to which of the following A) shin bone B) thigh C) upper foreleg D) shoulder blade

C) upper foreleg

The term tetraparesis refers to the A) muscular weakness in all four limbs B) inflammation of nerves C) inflammation of many muscles D) a continuous spasm

A) muscular weakness in all four limbs

The prefix -ur refers to which of the following A) glucose B) gland C) good D) hair

C) good

The inside surface of the chamber of the heart is lined by a thin membrane known as the A) pericardium B) endocardium C) atrium D) epicardium

B) endocardium

The accumulation of fluid in the abdominal cavity is defined as A) auscultate B) infarct C) ascites D) edema

C) ascites

Pericardiocentesis refers to which of the following A) abnormal buildup of fluid within a space B) build up a fluid between the layer of the pericardial sac and the epicardium C) when the pericardial stack is full of fluid that the heart can no longer beat D) the removal of fluid via needle inserted into the pericardial sack

D) the removal of fluid via a needle inserted into the pericardial sack

What refers to redness of the skin A) erythrocyte B) erythrmatous C) leukocyte D) leukocytosis

B) erythematous

Inflammation of the lymph vessels is known as A) leukocytosis B) lymphangitis C) lymphoma D) immunocyte

B) lymphangitis

An abnormally low WBC count is referred to as A) normocytic B) leukocytosis C) leukopenia D) anemia

C) leukopenia

The term idiopathic refers to A) a general term for an abnormality B) a disease that has an unknown cause C) an uncoordinated and dehydrated patient D) a blood clot that forms and adheres to the wall of a blood vessel

B) a disease that has an unknown cause

Hematopoiesis is defined as A) the formation of blood cells in the body B) an abnormally low number of neutrophils in the blood C) a high number of WBC’s D) resembling a WBC

A) the formation of blood cells in the body

A generalized wasting of the body as a result of disease is known as A) eructation B) anemia C) necrosis D) cachexia

D) cachexia

Which of the following refers to an overdistension of the reticulorumen as a result of rumen gas being trapped in the rumen when the ruminant is unable to eructate A) ruminal tympany B) retch C) volvulus D) torsion

A) ruminal tympany

Total parenternal nutrition is correctly identified as which of the following A) no food or water given B) nutrition that must be administered by means other than the mouth C) specialized diet for a certain disease process D) giving as much food as you have to for the desired results

B) nutrition that must be administered by means other than the mouth

The destruction of skeletal muscle is referred to as which of the following A) papule B) osteochondritis C) rhabdomyolysis D) pneumothorax

C) rhabdomyolysis

A disease of the nerves is known as A) neuropathy B) enchondroma C) neuromyelitis D) poliomyelitis

A) neuopathy

A protein manufactured by the liver that maintains the osmotic fluid balance between capillaries and tissues is referred to as which of the following A) aldosterone B) albumin C) alkaline D) acetylcholine

B) albumin

Prolonged construction of the pupil of the eyes referred to as which of the following A) mydriasis B) irisocele C) miosis D) canthus

C) moisis

The term uremia is defined as A) painful urination B) surgical repair of the kidney pelvis C) urine constituents that are found in the blood D) blood found in the urine

C) urine constituents that are found in the blood

The act of urination is referred to as A) micturition B) concretion C) voiding D) both a and c

D) both a and c

The term azotemia refers to A) the presence of urinary calculi B) the lack of voluntary urination C) the increased production of urine D) the buildup of nitrogenous waste material in the blood

D) the buildup of nitrogenous waste material in the blood

? Is defined as the release of an egg from the ovary A) ovum B) ovulation C) oocyte D) paraphimosis

B) ovulation

A false pregnancy is known as A) primigravida B) pseudocyesis C) pseudoaneurysm D) uniparous

B) pseudocyesis

The term avascular refers to which of the following A) blood clot B) increased amount of blood supply C) decreased amount of blood supply D) without a blood supply

D) without a blood supply

The dorsal shell of a turtles is called A) canthus B) capsular space C) carapace D) cisterna

C) carapace

The process by which WBC’s leave the blood vessel and enter tissue by squeezing through the tiny spaces between the cells lining is defined as A) leukopenia B) diapedesis C) leukocytosis D) chemotaxis

B) diapedesis

Which of the following may help decrease dental abrasions in the pet ferret A) housing the ferret in a wire cage B) offering a raw diet, consisting of bones, chicken and green vegetable vegetables C) offering a natural parade, diet or moistening dry kibble D) annual periodontal treatments

C) offering a natural prey, diet or moistening dry kibble

In the rabbit, pregnancy toxemia is most likely to occur during which week of gestation A) during the first two weeks B) during the last week C) during the sixth week D) during the fifth week

B) during the last week

Which of the following bacteria are most often associated with antibiotic associated enterotoxemia in the guinea pig? A) escherichia coli B) pesudomonas aeruginosa C) clostridium difficile D) salmonella typhimurium

C) clostridium difficile

Poor husbandry conditions, along with humid environment, predisposed guinea pigs to which of the following conditions A) demodex failure B) trixacarus caviae C) gyropus ovalis D) bordetella bronchiseptica

D) bordetella bronchiseptica

An intact male African hedgehog of unknown age presents to the clinic with a three day history of lethargy, inappetance, icterus, and diarrhea. Which of the following disease is most likely to cause these symptoms? A) acute renal failure B) hepatic lipidosis C) bacterial pneumonia D) glomerulosclerosis

B) hepatic lipidosis

Which of the following vessels is primarily used for blood collection in hedgehogs? A) lateral saphenous B) cephalic C) femoral D) jugular

D) jugular

Which of the following values is used to evaluate renal function in the avian patient? A) uric acid B) BUN C) creatinine D) BUN, creatinine and uric acid

A) uric acid

Natural predatory response of a lizard dropping their tail is referred to as A) autolysis B) autotomy C) amputation D) dysecdysis

B) autotomy

Total blood volume in the reptile patient is approximately what percentage of body weight? A) 5-8% B) 4-6% C) 8-10% D) 10-12%

A) 5-8%

Total blood volume of the patient is approximately what percentage of body weight? A) 5% B) 7% C) 10% D) 12%

C) 10%

Which of the following species does not have a diaphragm? A) african hedgehog B) sugar glider C) box turtle D) golden hamster

C) box turtle

Which of the following is a condition in which uric acid is deposited into the joints and visceral organs and is caused by dehydration, kidney disease, and a high protein diet? A) hypovitaminosis A B) metabolic bone disease C) gout D) hypocalcemia

C) gout

Healthy bird can only lose <10% of its blood volume safely. You have been asked to drop a blood sample from a 1 kg macaw. What is the amount of blood that can be taken from the patient? A) 1ml B) 10ml C) 15ml D) 5ml

B) 10ml (wt x % blood volume x 100)

In the avian patient, into which of the following muscles are intramuscular injections generally administered? A) pectoral B) epaxial C) biceps D) quadriceps

A) pectoral

Which species should atropine not be used in? A) birds B) snakes C) rabbits D) lizards

C) rabbits

Moldy peanuts are a common cause of which of the following the avian patient? A) mycotoxicity B) salmonella C) escherichia coli D) clostridium difficile

A) mycotoxicity

Which lab animal species is most likely to experience the dystocia? A) rat B) gerbil C) hamster D) guinea pig

D) Guinea pig

Which species cannot synthesize their own vitamin C? A) Guinea pigs and nonhuman primates B) hamsters and rabbits C) rabbits and guinea pigs D) nonhuman primates and gerbils

A) guinea pigs and nonhuman primates

Estrogen toxicity that results from prolonged estrus is a common clinical problem in which of the following species? A) ferret B) rabbit C) hamster D) guinea pig

A) ferret

The gland of mice and rats that secrete porphyrin in the tears is A) hibernating gland B) harderian gland C) thymus gland D) lacrimal gland

B) harderian gland

Which teeth on each side of the dog’s mouth have three roots? A) maxillary: third and fourth premolars and first molar B) maxillary: fourth premolars and first and second molars C) mandibular: fourth premolars and first and second molars D) mandibular and maxillary: fourth premolars and first and second molars

B) maxillary: fourth premolars and first and second molars

Using the triadan system, the proper way to describe a dogs first mandibular right molar is A) 407 B) 409 C) 109 D) 909

B) 409

Which of the following statements regarding enamel is true A) contains living tissue B) covers the tooth crown and root C) continues production by the ameloblasts after eruption D) is relatively nonporous and impervious

D) is relatively nonporous and impervious

Dentin is covered by what A) enamel and bone B) bone and pulp C) cementum and enamel D) pulp and cementum

C) cementum and enamel

The periodontium includes the periodontal ligament and all of the following except A) gingiva B) cementum C) alveolar bone D) enamel

D) enamel

The term that describes a dog with a short mandible is A) prognathism B) brachygnathism C) mesaticephalic D) dolicocephalic

B) brachygnathism

A malocclusion where in which the upper fourth premolar lies palatal to the first molars is known as A) posterior crossbite B) base narrow mandibular canines C) wry mouth D) rostral crossbite

A) posterior crossbite

What is stomatitis? A) bad breath that is evident when dental work must be completed B) inflammation of the mouths soft tissue C) resorption of her dental tissues by odontoclasts D) inflammation and infection of some or all of the tooth supportive tissues

B) inflammation of the mouths soft tissue

The bisecting angle principle states that the plane of an x-ray beam should be 90° to the A) long axis of the tooth B) plane of the film C) imaginary line that bisect the angle formed by the tooths long axis and the film plane D) imaginary line that bisects the angle formed by the animals head and the film plane

C) imaginary line that bisects the angle formed by the tooth long axis in the film plane

What mineralized tissue cover covers the root of the tooth? A) calculus B) enamel C) cementum D) dentin

C) cementum

Which of the following is true about ultrasonic scaling? A) ultrasonic scale is the only method to clean a tooth surface fully B) ultrasonic scale causes thermal damage to the tooth if the tip is kept on a tooth for < 5 seconds C) the ultrasonic scaler works by spraying the tooth with water to wash the tooth clean D) the purpose of the water spray on an ultrasonic scaler is to cool the tip of the instrument and cool the tooth to prevent pulp damage

D) the purpose of the water spray on an ultrasonic scaler is to cool the tip of the instrument and cool the tooth to prevent pulp damage

What is prognathism? A) mandible longer than maxilla B) maxilla longer than mandible C) one side of head longer than the other D) overly long soft palate

A) mandible longer than maxilla

A biopsy report confirms that an oral mass is an acanthomatous ameloblastoma od an acanthomatous epulis. Which of the following statements is true regarding the growth? A) it is a nonmalignant tumor B) it is a malignant tumor C) very likely to metastasize D) related to the presence of a malocclusion

A) it is a nonmalignant tumor

A curette is used to A) check the tooth surface for any irregularities B) measure the depth of gingival recession C) scale large amounts of calculus from the tooth surface D) scale calculus from the tooth surface located in the gingival sulcus

D) scale calculus from the tooth surface located in the gingival sulcus

A dog exposed to distemper as a puppy may develop which of the following oral conditions A) Adontia B) polydontia C) enamel hypoplasia D) enamel staining

C) enamel hypoplasia

The upper fourth pre-molar communicates with which sinus? A) mandibular B) occipital C) maxillary D) orbital

C) maxillary

What term identifies the wearing away of enamel by tooth against tooth contact during mastication? A) plaque B) attrition C) calculus D) abrasion

B) attrition

The thin film covering a tooth that is composed of bacteria, saliva and food particles is A) plaque B) attrition C) calculus D) abrasion

A) plaque

What happens to crystals within the ultrasound transducer when strong short electrical pulses strike them? A) they harden B) they melt C) they vibrate D) they break apart

D) they vibrate

Approximately how many shades of gray are incorporated into the display of an image obtained through ultrasound? A) 50 shades B) 100 shades C) 226 shades D) 256 shades

D) 256 shades

What does the gain control knob adjust on the ultrasound machine? A) the power output B) the brightness of the image C) the PFR scale used in PW Doppler D) the depth of the image

B) the brightness of the image

What does the TGC or time gain compension allow on the ultrasound machine? A) it allows the amount of time it takes sound to travel through a medium to be changed B) it provides a faster time for clearer images with motion C) it allows adjustment of the gain at various depths D) none of the above

C) it allows adjustment of the gain at various depths

Which of the following ultrasound artefacts will likely be produced when the sound wave strikes a metal object or a pocket of air? A) edge shadowing B) comet tail C) mirror image D) acoustic enhancement

B) comet tail

Which of the following is the correct definition for the ultrasound term hypoechoic A) bright grey B) dark gray C) white D) black

B) dark gray

When using a dental x-ray unit at the end of the cone should be positioned at ? inches from the patient’s anatomy A) 2 B) 4 C) 6 D) 10

B) 4

Which of the following image receptors is used in dental imaging? A) film B) phosphor plates C) neither D) both

D) both

Which of the following can occur jf DNA is affected by radiation? A) cell death B) cell damage may be obvious with portions of the DNA compromised C) cell may display no immediate effects, but damage may have occurred internally that will affect the individual later when mitosis occurs D) all of the above

D) all of the above

How often should x-ray equipment be tested? A) every 6 months B) every year C) every 2 years D) only once when the equipment

C) every 2 years

Which imaging modality is superior for demonstrating the brain and spinal cord? A) ultrasound B) MRI C) x-ray D) fluoroscopy

B) MRI

What is a major safety concern with MRI machines? A) the amount of radiation B) the intensity of the magnet on the patient C) the potential effect with metallic objects within the vicinity of the machine D) MRI machines are extremely safe and contain no safety concerns

C) the potential effect with metallic objects within the vicinity of the machine

The median plane divides the body into which of the following? A) left/right portions B) anterior/posterior portions C) cranial/caudal portions D) none of the above

A) left/right portions

Which of the following are ways to determine if the animal is properly positioned in the lateral view? A) coxofemoral joints are superimposed B) intervertebral foramina are different sizes C) rib heads are perpendicular D) transverse processes are perpendicular at the origin from the vertebral bodies

A) coxofemoral joints are superimposed

What is the max permissible dose of radiation a person can receive in a year? A) 1000 millirems B) 2000 millirems C) 2500 millirems D) 5000 millirems

C) 2500 millirems

When obtaining a caudocranial view of the humerus of a small animal, in which position should the animal be? A) ventral recumbency B) left lateral recumbency C) dorsal recumbency D) right lateral recumbency

A) ventral recumbency

What does the kVp setting control? A) quantity of the x ray beams B) quality of the x ray beams C) speed of electrons emitted D) wavelength of the beam

B) quality of the x rays beams

When looking at an x ray, which organ lies in the cranial abdomen between the diaphragm and the stomach in small animals? A) adrenal glands B) pancreas C) liver D) spleen

C) liver

What does mAS (milliampere-seconds) control on x ray machines? A) quality of the x rays beams B) quantity of the x ray beams C) speed of electrons emitted D) wavelength of the beam

B) quantity of x rays beams

To produce x rays, energy in the x ray tube is converted into heat. The reaction heat generated to x ray production is considered to be A) 1%:99% B) 99%:1% C) 50%:50% D) 75%:25%

99%:1%

What is the main purpose of the x-ray developer? A) swell and soften the emulsion B) reduce the unexposed silver halide crystals into black metallic silver C) convert the exposed silver halied crystals into black metallic silver D) clear away the unexposed, underdeveloped silver halide crystals

C) convert the exposed silver halide crystals into black metallic silver

What is the mane purpose of the x ray fixer? A) swell and soften the emulsion B) reduce the unexposed silver halide crystals into black metallic silver C) convert the exposed silver halied crystals into black metallic silver D) clear away the unexposed, underdeveloped silver halide crystals

D) clear away the unexposed, underdeveloped silver halide crystals

For proper radiographic exposure, an x ray should be taken during maximum A) expiration for the abdomen and inspiration for the thorax B) expiration for the thorax and inspiration for the abdomen C) expiration for the thorax and abdomen D) inspiration for the thorax and abdomen

A) expiration for the abdomen and inspiration for the thorax

A cat on IV fluids must get 30ml/hr, drip set of 60 drops/ml, what should the drip rate be? A) 1 drop/2 sec B) 1 drop/6 sec C) 3 drops/ sec D) 16 drops/ sec

A) 1 drop/2 sec (30ml/hr x 60 drip = 1800 / 60 = 30 / 60 = 0.5 drip/ second = 1 drop/2 sec)

The concentration of furosemide is 5%, how many mg are in 0.5mL? A) 150mg B) 2.5mg C) 25mg D) 50mg

C) 25mg ( % -> mg/ml = x 100) (0.5mL x 100 = 50mg/ml)

3ml of lactose is given orally twice daily, how many ounces will be needed to last 30 days? A) 3oz B) 6oz C) 90oz D) 180oz

B) 6oz (3ml x 2 daily x 30 days = 180ml) (180ml / 30ml/oz = 6 oz)

How many ml of 50% dextrose are needed to make 1000ml of a 5% dextrose solution? A) 1ml B) 10ml C) 50ml D) 100ml

D) 100ml (c1 v1 = c2 v2) (c1 = 50% v1 =? c2 = 5% v2 = 1000ml) 5 x 1000ml / 50 =100 mL

1 gram of powdered drug diluted with how many ml of sterile water will make a concentration of 20mg/ml? A) 0.05ml B) 0.2ml C) 100ml D) 50ml

D) 50ml (1g=1000mg) 1000mg/20mg/ml = 50ml)

If a dog receives fluids at 120ml/hr with a reduction of 20%, what is the new ml/hr rate? A) 1.6ml/hr B) 0.4mL/hr C) 24ml/hr D) 96ml/hr

D) 96ml/hr (120ml x 0.20 = 24ml/hr) 120ml - 24ml/hr = 96ml/hr

You give 5mg of a drug to a 10kg animals. What is the dose of the drug in mg/kg? A) 2mg/kg B) 10mg/kg C) 0.5mg/kg D) 50mg/kg

C) 0.5mg/kg (5mg / 10kg = 0.5)

A cat with a gastronomy tube must receive 300kcal/day. A 15 oz can of the prescribed diet has 1500 kcal. The prescribed diet must be diluted 50:50 with water to flow through the tube, and a max amount of 45ml can be given at one feeding. Approximately how many feedings does this cat need daily? A) 10 B) 8 C) 4 D) 2

C) 4 (1500kcal/15oz = 100kcal/oz) (300kcal/day / 100kcal/oz = 3oz/day of food) (3oz food + 3oz water = 6oz) (6oz x 30ml (1oz = 30ml) = 180ml daily) (180ml daily / 45ml/ feeding = 4 feedings/day)

A diagnostic lab requires 1ml of serum to run a chemistry panel. A bird with a PCV of 50% would need how many full HCT tubes collected to have enough serum for the panel? (each HCT tube hold 0.1 mill of whole blood) A) 100 B) 20 C) 10 D) 5

B) 20 (0.1ml x 50% (0.5) = 0.05ml) (1ml / 0.05ml = 20 tubes)

You need to deworm 100 head of cattle with a pour on product that is applied at a rate of 1ml/100lbs and is sold in 250ml bottles. The cattle weigh 825 to 1050 lbs each. approximately how many bottles should you purchase? A) 4 B) 8 C) 10 D) 16

A) 4 (1050lbs / 100lbs = 10.5mL/cow) (10.5ml x 100 cattle = 1050ml) (1050 ml / 250ml bottles = 4.2 bottles)

Decreased function of what organ would have the greatest effect on biotransformation of most drugs? A) kidney B) liver C) pancreas D) spleen

B) liver

Cephalosporins are closely related to what other drug class? A) tetracyclines B) sulfas C) penicillins D) fluoroquinolones

C) penicillins

Which antibiotic should be avoided in all food producing animals? A) lincosamines B) cephalexin C) enrofloxacin D) chloramphenicol

D) chloramfenichol

Butorphanol is an example of a drug that functions on more than one body system, it is an analgesic and ? A) antitussive B) expectorant C) tranquilizer D) emetic

A) antitussive

Aminoglycosides, if given at high doses or by IV, cause damage to what A) lungs and liver B) liver and inner ear C) kidney and liver D) inner ear and kidney

Inner ear and kidney

A 16oz bottle is how many ml? A) 480ml B) 240ml C) 40ml D) 1.6ml

A) 480ml

Which is a concentration of a drug? A) 15mg/kg B) 1000U/ml C) 20gr/ml D) 250g/lb

B) 1000U/ml

10 ml of a 2.5% solution contains how many mg? A) 2.5mg B) 25mg C) 250mg D) 2500mg

C) 250mg (2.5%=25mg/ml x 10ml =250mg

Because of the manner in which they are excreted, sulfonamides are often affected against infections if the A) nervous tissue B) urinary tract C) skin D) joint capsules

B) urinary tract

Which of the following is not a side effect of sulfonamides? A) crystalluria B) keratoconjunctivitis sicca C) seizures D) thrombocytopenia

C) seizures

Thiobarbiturates should be administered with great care, or not at all to A) collies B) greyhounds C) rottweilers D) spaniels

C) rottweilers

A chronotropic agent affects the A) force of concentration B) rate of contraction C) rhythm of contraction D) rate of relaxation

B) rate of contraction

Which of these drugs is not an antifungal drug? A) fluconazole B) clotrimazole C) ketoconazole D) sulfadimethoxine

D) sulfadimethoxine

The anticoagulant diluted in saline or sterile water for injection to form a flush solution for prevention blood clots in IV catheters is A) heparin B) EDTA C) coumarin D) acid citrate dextrose

A) heparin

Which of the following glucocorticoid has the shortest duration of activity? A) hydrocortisone B) prednisone C) dexamethasone D) triamcinolone

A) hydrocortisone

Which of the following statements about glucocorticoids is true A) if adverse effects are seen after long-term administration, treatment should be discontinued immediately B) they are generally considered safer to use than NSAIDs C) they are a type of NSAID D) they may cause immune system system suppression

D) they may cause immune system suppression

Heartworm preventative that is also approved for the treatment of ear mites and sarcoptic mange is A) diethylcarbamazine B) milbemycin C) ivermectin D) selamectin

D) selamectin

Psyllium and Metamucil are examples of A) saline cathartics B) bulk laxatives C) lubricants D) irritant cathartics

B) bulk laxatives

The emetic choice in cats is A) xylazine B) syrup of ipecac C) apomorphine D) hydrogen peroxide

A) xylazine

ACE inhibitors have which of the following effects on the body? A) increases preload and afterload on the heart B) decreases preload and afterload on the heart C) enhances fluid retention in the body D) enhances the production of angiotensin II

B) decreases the preload and after load on the heart

Lidocaine is primarily used to control which of the following abnormalities A) supraventricular bradycardia B) ventricular tachycardia C) hypertension D) supraventricular tachycardia

B) ventricular tachycardia

In dogs that have been receiving long-term glucocorticoid therapy, a sudden discontinuation of the drug may result in which of the following medical problems? A) immunosuppression B) iatrogenic addisonian crisis C) polyuria and polydipsia D) iatrogenic thyroid disease

B) iatrogenic addisonian crisis

Which of the following drugs is classified as an osmotic diuretic and is often used to reduce intracranial pressure or treat oliguric renal failure A) furosemide B) propanolol C) mannitol D) bethanechol

C) mannitol

Which of the following antibiotics should not be given to an animal that has an allergic response to penicillin A) clindamycin B) cephalosporins C) sulphonamides D) fluoroquinolones

B) cephalosporins

Which of the following clinical signs may indicate that an animal is experiencing lidocaine toxicity A) CNS signs : drowsiness, ataxia muscle tremors B) renal signs : oliguria C) hepatic signs : jaundice and clotting problems D) respiratory signs : labored respirations and broncoconstriction

A) CNS signs : drowsiness, ataxia muscle tremors

An asthmatic cat may receive which of the following drugs for its broncodilatory effect? A) histamine B) digoxin C) prednisone D) theophylline

D) theophylline

What effect do beta-receptor antagonists have on the respiratory tree? A) increase the volume of watery secretions B) increase the volume of sticky mucoid secretions C) cause bronchoconstriction D) cause bronchodilation

D) cause bronchodilation

Most drugs that control arrhythmias of the heart are set to be negative inotropes. What does this mean? A) they increase the heart rate B) they decrease the heart rate C) they increase the force of contractions D) they decrease the force of contractions

D) they decrease the force of contractions

Captopril is an example of A) positive inotrope B) antiarrhythmic C) bronchodilator D) vasodilator

D) vasodilator

Nitroglycerine is sometimes used as a paste applied to the panel or to the abdominal skin in dogs with cardiovascular disease. Nitroglycerine has what the therapeutic effect A) increases the strength of heart contractions B) causes vasodilation C) causes bronchoconstriction D) decreases the heart rate

B) causes vasodilation

Chronic administration of high doses of glucocorticoids can cause iatrogenic: A) renal failure B) Addison’s disease C) Cushing’s disease D) Johnes disease

C) cushings disease

NSAIDs are most likely to cause side effects in what two organ systems? A) renal and pulmonary B) renal and gastrointestinal C) pulmonary and cardiac D) cardiac and hepatic

B) renal and gastrointestinal

How many cubic centimetres are in a tablespoon A) 5 B) 15 C) 25 D) 30

B) 15

What class of drugs generally poses the greatest potential health threat to those handling the medication A) antibiotic B) antineoplastic C) antinematodal D) antiprotozoal

B) antineoplastic

The mode of action in which enrofloxacin works by is A) inhibiting cell wall synthesis B) inhibiting DNA C) inhibiting protein synthesis D) inhibiting the metabolic pathway

B) inhibiting DNA

Which of the following is a benzodiazepine tranquilizer? A) fentanyl B) ketamine C) medetomidine D) midazolam

D) midazolam

Which of the following anti-seizure medication should be avoided in all patients with existing liver disease A) levetiracetam B) phenobarbital C) potassium bromide D) gabapentin

B) phenobarbital

Anticholinergic drugs are used for A) tachycardia B) tachypnea C) bradycardia D) bradypnea

C) bradycardia

Which of the following is a true effect of pain A) it prevents further patient harmed by prevent preventing movement B) it places the animal in an anabolic state, leading to weight gain C) it’s suppresses the immunity system leading to an increased chance of infection D) it promotes inflammation and increases the heart rate

C) it suppresses the immune system leading to an increased chance of infection

Both eyes A) AU B) OS C) OS D) OU

D) OU

Which of the following endocrine disease diseases result in weight loss and ravenous appetite in cats A) hyperadrenocorticism B) hypoadrenocorticism C) hyperthyroidism D) hypothyroidism

C) hyperthyroidism

Which of the following endocrine diseases results in weight gain, bradycardia, exercise intolerance, and lethargy in a dog A) hyperadrenocorticism B) hypoadrenocorticsm C) hyperthyroidism D) hypothyroidism

D) hypothyroidism

A patient with an increased PA cell volume and an elevated total solids is likely suffering from A) protein loss B) dehydration C) anemia D) poor perfusion

D) dehydration

Which of the following is a nursing intervention to allow a neurologic patient to void urine A) anatonic bladder B) bladder expression C) bladder palpation D) distension urination

B) bladder expression

Colloid solutions are used for expansion of the patient’s plasma volume. Which of these fluid types is a colloid? A) dextrose 5% in water B) hetastarch C) LRS D) normosol R

B) hetastarch

Which of the following is an alkalizing agent that may be added to IV fluids to correct metabolic acidosis A) calcium chloride B) calcium gluconate C) potassium chloride D) sodium bicarbonate

D) sodium bicarbonate

Consumption of colostrum after being born is important to a neonate health because A) the neonate immediately requires calories to start growing B) colostrum strengthens the bond between mother and neonate C) passive requirement of immunoglobulins strengthens the immune system D) colostrum has a palatable taste that encourages neonates to continue suckling

Passive requirement of immunoglobulins strengthens the immune system

Which of the following is least useful when resuscitating a dog in shock A) D5W (dextrose 5% in water) B) hetastarch C) hypertonic saline D) plasmalight 48

A) D5W

The mucous membranes of a dog in septic shock are A) cyanotic B) hyperemic C) icteric D) pale

B) hyperemic

The underlying disease for most cases of feline aortic thrombose embolism is ? is origin A) cardiac B) hepatic C) renal D) respiratory

A) cardiac

To reduce intracranial pressure that results from trauma, ? may be administered every 4 to 8 hours A) atropine B) dexamethasone C) diazepam D) mannitol

D) mannitol

Four patients present at the same time with emergency conditions. In which order should they be triaged? A) dyspnea, dystocia, proptosis, laceration B) proptosis, dyspnea, dystocia, laceration C) laceration, dystocia, dyspnea, proptosis D) dystocia, proptosis, laceration, dyspnea

A) dyspnea, dystocia, proptosis, laceration

Which of the following is a zoonotic disease that is spread by fleas A) borrelia burgdorferi B) rickettsia rickettsia C) ehrlichia D) yersinia pestis

D) yersinia pestis

A proposed globe A) can be caused by overzealous restraint of the animal B) is not considered an emergency C) can most easily occur in dolichocephalic breeds, such as collies D) is commonly a consequence of conjunctivitis

A) can be caused by overzealous restraint of the animal

A chest tube is placed when an animal has A) subcutaneous emphysema B) pulmonary edema C) ascites D) pneumothorax

D) pneumothorax

What part of the eye can be used to indicate fluid overload? A) conjunctiva B) lens C) pupil D) nictitating membrane

C) pupil

Rapid fluid replacement with crystalloids is contraindicated in conditions of A) severe dehydration B) shock C) cerebral edema D) renal failure

C) cerebral edema

Fluid therapy solutions administered subcutaneously are A) colloids B) hypertonic C) hypotonic D) isotonic

D) isotonic

According to the principles of triage which patient should be seen first A) a cat with a closed fracture B) dog in respiratory distress C) dog with otitis externa D) cat with a small laceration on a paw pad

B) dog in respiratory distress

Crackles on thoracic auscultation indicate A) asthma B) plural effusion C) pneumothorax D) pulmonary edema

D) pulmonary edema

When performing a TPR on a patient, you should A) always auscult the heart while palpating the pulse B) palpate the patient’s pulse while taking its temperature C) always auscult the heart because the pulse rate may be lower than the heart rate D) auscult the heart if the patient does not like you to touch its legs

A) always auscult the heart while palpating the pulse

Weak, moderate, strong, bounding, or tall are terms often used to describe the patients A) attitude B) respiration quality C) pulse quality D) blood pressure

C) pulse quality

Hypoexmia is defined as A) a decreased circulating blood volume B) low blood oxygen levels C) low tissue oxygen levels D) an increase in circulating fluid in the body

C) low blood oxygen levels

An intravenously delivered solution that distributes evenly throughout the interstitial and intervascular space is considered A) isotonic B) hypotonic C) hypertonic D) 0.45% sodium chloride

A) isotonic

Which of the following is the correct progression of wound healing? A) inflammatory phase, proliferative phase, maturation phase B) inflammatory phase, proliferative phase, granulation phase, maturation phase C) proliferative phase, inflammatory phase, maturation phase D) proliferative phase, granulation phase, inflammatory phase, maturation phase

A) inflammatory phase, proliferative phase, maturation phase

Which of the following is a type of pain that can be beneficial in that it can allow the animal to avoid damaging stimuli A) neuropathic pain B) physiologic pain C) somatic pain D) visceral pain

B) physiologic pain

The term that best describes a dog with an abnormally short mandible is A) prognathism B) brachygnathism C) mesaticephalic D) dolichocephalic

B) brachygnathism

A common clinical sign of saddle thrombus in the cat is A) acute onset of front leg pain and paresis B) acute onset of rear leg pain and paresis C) bright red foot pads D) bounding pulses in the rear limbs

B) acute onset of rear leg pain and paresis

Serum centrifuged in a hematocrit tube characterized as turbid and white in colour is called A) hemolysis B) hyperproteinemia C) icterus D) lipemia

D) lipemia

In a patient, what does an elevated total protein measurement accompanied by elevated packed cell volume likely indicate? A) anemia B) dehydration C) hemorrhage D) RBC transfusion

B) dehydration

Normal CVP range is A) 0-5 mm H20 B) 5-10 mm H20 C) 10-15 mm H20 D) 15-20 mm H20

A) 0-5 mm H20

Most vitamins cannot be synthesized by the body and must be supplied in food. While balanced pet foods are formulated to provide a necessary supplementation. What is the one vitamin that can be synthesized from glucose by dogs and cats? A) vitamin A B) vitamin B6 C) vitamin C D) vitamin K

C) vitamin C

When palpating pulses, what do bounding pulses indicate? A) adequate cardiovascular function B) elevated diastolic blood pressure C) elevated pulse pressure D) elevated mean arterial pressure

B) elevated diastolic blood pressure

With significant dehydration in an otherwise healthy patient, which of the following would likely be seen on a urinalysis and CBC? A) increased urine SG and increased PCV B) increased urine SG and decreased PCV C) decreased urine SG and decreased PCV D) decreased urine and increased PCV

A) increased urine SG and increased PCV

The presence of protein in the urine may indicate A) acid base imbalance B) hemolytic anemia C) kidney disease D) diabetes mellitus

C) kidney disease

Coagulation tests are useful for a diagnosing A) rodenticide poisoning B) thyroid function C) adrenal function D) ethylene glycol poisoning

A) rodenticide poisoning

What is the underlying cause of icterus A) anemia B) hyperbilirubinemia C) ketonuria D) hyperhemoglobinemia

B) hyperbilirubinemia

What type of anemia is associated with icterus A) responsive B) non responsive C) hemolytic D) megaloblastic

C) hemolytic

Goals for the management of chronic kidney disease include all of the following except A) slowing progression of the disease B) treating concurrent disease C) correcting electrolyte imbalance D) restoring loss of kidney function

D) restoring loss of kidney function

Signs of immune mediated thrombocytopenia include all of the following conditions except A) petechiae B) eccymoses C) thrombocytosis D) anemia

C) thrombocytosis

Which of the following types of fluids is used most commonly to replace intervascular volume A) hypertonic crystalloid B) isotonic crystalloid C) synthetic colloid D) whole blood

B) isotonic crystalloid

Hemolytic anemia characterized by the destruction of A) erythrocytes B) leukocytes C) lymphocytes D) monocytes

A) erythrocytes

Visceral pain is common among companion animals, which of the following is not an example of visceral pain? A) pancreatitis B) gastroenteritis C) bowel ischemia D) osteosarcoma

D) osteosarcoma

A vascular abnormality in which the hepatic portal vein empties directly into the caudal vena cava is A) hepatic lipidosis B) portosystemic shunt C) cardiomyopathy D) aortic stenosis

B) portosystemic shunt

Hardware disease and ruminants is also known as A) grain overload B) rumen tympany C) traumatic reticuloperiotnitis D) polioencephalomalacia

C) traumatic reticuloperitonitis

Chronic renal disease is one of the diseases seen most common commonly in geriatric patients, especially in cats. In addition to causing an increase polyuria and polydipsia, renal disease may also cause A) anemia B) anorexia C) gastric upset D) all of the above

D) all of the above

The typical gestation period for dogs is A) 42 days B) 63 days C) 114 days D) 147 days

B) 63 days

A vile of penicillin contains 2,000,000 units of the dry drug. To make the penicillin into a solution that contains 400,000 units per ml, how much diluent is needed? A) 2ml B) 4mL C) 5mL D) 10ml

C) 5ml (2,000,000 / 400,000 = 5ml)

It is necessary to immunize ferrets against A) feline panleukopenia B) feline rhinotracheitis C) canine hepatitis D) canine distemper

D) canine distemper

Endotracheal intubation of the horse is usually performed A) blindly B) with the aid of a laryngoscope C) by palpation of the larynx D) with direct visualization of the larynx

A) blindly

In an anesthetized patient, hypocarbia (hypocapnia) could be attributed to A) exhausted soda lime B) low respiratory rate C) excess artificial ventilation D) kinked endotracheal tube

C) excess artificial ventilation

Which solution is contraindicated as a surgical prep if electrocautery is being used during the procedure A) povidine iodine B) hexachlorophene C) isopropyl alcohol D) chlorhexidine

C) isopropyl alcohol

Ivermectin is classed as which type of agent A) fungicide B) anthelmintic C) antibiotic D) disinfectant

B) anthelmintic

Acepromazine is classified as A) neuroleptanalgesic B) anticholinergic C) dissociative D) tranquilizer

D) tranquilizer

If anaphylaxis occur occurs after the administration of any vaccine or drug, which drug will best reverse the effect of shock A) antihistamines B) epinephrine C) doxapram D) dexamethasone

B) epinephrine

In treating hypovolemic shock in the canine the most important form of therapy is to A) administer IV fluid B) inject corticosteroids C) keep the patient warm D) give analgesics

A) administer IV fluids

For a 20 kg dog that is 5% dehydrated how much fluid replacement is required? A) 250ml B) 500ml C) 1000ml D) 2000ml

C) 1000ml (20kg x 0.05 = 1L)

A vile containing 1 g of medication has to be reconstituted to a 2.5% solution (w/v). What volume of diluent is needed, and what concentration will result? A) 25ml, resulting in a concentration of 4mg/l B) 40ml, resulting in a concentration of 2.5mg/l C) 40ml, resulting in a concentration of 4mg/ml D) 40ml, resulting in a concentration of 25mg/ml

D) 40ml, resulting in a concentration of 25mg/ml Volume (concentration = mass of solute / total volume ml x 100) (2.5% = 1g / volume x 100) (volume = 100 / 2.5 x 100 = 40ml) Concentration (mass in mg = 1g x 1000 = 1000mg) (concentration = 1000mg / 40ml =25 mg/mL)

In the anesthetized healthy patient, which of the following abnormalities is most commonly encountered A) respiratory alkalosis B) metabolic acidosis C) metabolic alkalosis D) respiratory acidosis

D) respiratory acidosis

A standard culture medium used for bacterial sensitivity testing is A) macconkey B) hekteon enteric C) sabouraud dextrose D) mueller-hinton

D) mueller-hinton

For horses under anesthesia in lateral recumbency, padding and positioning of the front legs and head is important to prevent A) decubital sores B) granuloma C) laminitis D) neuromuscular damage

D) neuromuscular damage

Adequate tissue perfusion is presumed when an animal exhibits normal A) heart rate B) body temperature C) capillary refill D) pupillary size

C) capillary refill

Which hormone is responsible for the rupture of an ovarian follicle in the release of a mature egg from an ovary A) luteinizing hormone B) estrogen C) follicle stimulating hormone D) progesterone

A) luteinizing hormone

How long is the gestation period in the mare? A) 112–115 days B) 148–156 days C) 280–290 days D) 326–354 days

D) 326–354 days

Inanimate objects contaminated with pathogens are referred to as A) carriers B) hosts C) fomites D) vectors

C) fomites

Which of the following parasites requires an intermediate host in order to complete the lifecycle A) ascarid B) hookworm C) coccidia D) heartworm

D) heartworm

Basophilic stippling of RBCs is a characteristic finding in A) lead poisoning in dogs B) anemia and horses C) acetaminophen toxicity in cats D) healthy avian blood

A) lead poisoning in dogs

If a horse is given 825ml of a 10% solution of guaifenesin, the amount in grams of guaifenesin given is A) 0.825 g B) 8.25 g C) 82.5 g D) 825 g

C) 82.5 g (mass = volume x concentration) (mass = 825 ml x 10g / 100ml) (mass = 825ml x 0.1 = 82.5 g)

Which of the following does not increase radiographic density? A) increased kVp B) increased distance from target C) increase developing time D) increase developing temperature

B) increased distance from target

Anemia due to the lack of iron and chronic blood loss are classified as A) microcytic, hypochromic B) macrocytic, polychromatic C) macrocytic, hypochromatic D) microcytic, polychromatic

A) microcytic, hypochromic

A palpebral is checked at the A) pupil B) foot C) eyelid D) throat

C) eyelid

Which of the following is the most likely complication of endotracheal tube cuff over inflation during lengthy anesthesia? A) air leakage from the cuff B) cuff rotation within the trachea C) tissue necrosis D) cuff wear and tear

C) tissue necrosis

In cattle, an increase in fibrinogen relative to the other plasma proteins is most likely due to A) estrus B) inflammation C) ketosis D) pregnancy

B) inflammation

When skeletal muscle muscles are not being used or when they use their nerve supply, they tend to A) hypertrophy B) atrophy C) necrose D) dystrophy

B) atrophy

In radiographic terminology, which of the following does the term density refer A) the difference in anatomical detail observable between two areas on the radiograph B) the concentration of x-rays produced C) the thickness of the radiograph D) the degree of blackness of the radiograph

D) the degree of blackness of the radiograph

Butorphanol has been prescribed for a dog with a collapsed trachea. The client should be cautioned that a common side effect of this drug is. A) hyperventilation B) tachycardia C) polydipsia D) sedation

D) sedation

The primary function of the segmented neutrophil is A) to remove histamine from the tissue B) the phagocytosis of small particles C) the antigen/anti antibody response D) to transport oxygen to the tissues

B) the phagocytosis of small particles

Cells that line the thoracic, pericardial, and abdominal cavities are known as A) mast cells B) macrophages C) Schwann cells D) mesothelial cells

D) mesothelial cells

CRI of an analgesic A) rarely requires a loading dose B) is administered in large amounts over a short period of time C) avoids peaks and valleys normally seen with a bolus injection D) provide provides excellent analgesia in dogs, but not cats

C) avoid peaks and valleys normally seen with a bolus injection

A correct statement about vaccines is that they contain A) antibodies B) T – lymphocytes C) B – lymphocytes D) antigens

D) antigens

Which of the following is the common name of the first upper premolar in a horse? A) incisor B) canine C) wolf D) carnassial

C) wolf

A rising antibody titre in paired serum samples taken two weeks apart indicates a A) latent infection B) lack of infection C) past infection D) recent infection

D) recent infection

Which surface of the tooth meets the opposite tooth during mastication? A) lingual B) buccal C) occlusal D) labial

C) occlusal

How many grams of sodium chloride should be dissolved in 1.5L of water to make a 12% solution? A) 1.8 g B) 18 g C) 180 g D) 1800 g

C) 180g

Which of the following forces do surgeons most often use to aid in suturing? A) kelly B) adson C) halstead D) babcock

B) adson

A decrease in RBC size observed during a CBC should be noted as A) hypochromasia B) macrocytosis C) normocytosis D) microcytosis

D) microcytosis

Hypocalcemia is commonly seen in A) lactating animals B) the second trimester of pregnancy C) unweaned animals D) animals exhibiting lactose intolerance

A) lactating animals

All of the following drug groups produce analgesia, except A) barbiturates B) alpha-2 agonists C) phenothiazines D) opioids

C) phenothiazine

When the vet orders radiographs to investigate a suspected fracture of the left olecranon, the technician should radiograph the left A) carpus B) elbow C) stifle D) tarsus

B) elbow

After partition, a cow may become partially or totally paralyzed with which of the following types of paralysis A) perineal B) obturator C) median D) femoral

B) obturator

The primary reason that vasoconstrictors are added to local anesthetic is to A) increase the duration of action B) increase the area affected by the anesthetic C) minimize toxicity D) decrease the duration of action

A) increase the duration of action

Which type of immunoassay typically results in the visible clumping of particles? A) fluorescent antibody testing B) enzyme – linked immuno absorbent assay (ELISA) C) agglutination test D) polymerase chain reaction (PCR)

C) agglutination test

Pale-grey mucous membranes in anesthetized animals are indicative of A) hypercapnia B) hyperventilation C) poor tissue perfusion D) arrhythmia

C) poor tissue perfusion

A radiograph that has been overexposed is A) very detailed B) too dark C) not developable D) too light

B) too dark

The neutrophilic segmented cell belongs to the A) plasmacytic series B) monocytic series C) granulocytic series D) erythrocytic series

C) granulocytic series

Which of the following diseases is caused by protozoa? A) pasteurellosis B) trichomoniasis C) salmonellosis D) leptospirosis

B) trichomoniasis

Metaclopamide belongs to which class of drugs A) antiemetic B) anti-infective agent C) nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory agent D) muscle relaxant

A) antiemetic

Which of the following is a common side effect of glucocorticoid usage? A) polyuria B) inappetence C) vomiting D) pruritis

A) polyuria

Given the following four patients in an emergency clinic staffed by one veterinarian and one vet tech, in what order should they be seen? A) a dog bleeding profusely from a paw laceration B) a cat that has been in appetent for 3 days C) a rabbit with dyspnea D) a dog with a suspected hawk dislocation A) C, A, D, B B) C, D, A, B C) A, D, B, C D) A, C, B, D

A) C, A, D, B

In the suspected presence of viral enteritis, which of the following would be the agent of choice to disinfect the area A) benzalkonium chloride B) sodium hypochlorite C) alcohol D) ammonia

B) sodium hypochlorite

The osmotic pressure of body fluids is primarily maintained by which of the following ions A) magnesium B) potassium C) chloride D) sodium

D) sodium

Dystocia caused by uterine inertia is commonly treated with A) estrogen B) oxytocin C) progesterone D) prostaglandins

B) oxytocin

One characteristic of dissociative anesthesia is A) decreased muscle tone B) poor somatic analgesia C) poor visceral analgesia D) decreased salvation

C) poor visceral analgesia

Which of the following conversions is most accurate? A) 1 fl oz = 30ml B) 1 inch = 5 cm C) 60 lb = 100 kg D) 1 tbsp = 4ml

A) 1 fl oz = 30ml

The part of the mature tooth that is continuously deposited throughout life by odontoblasts is the A) dentin B) enamel C) cementum D) pulp

A) dentin

Anesthetized patients should be periodically ventilated to control the development of A) hypoxia and hyperemia B) hypoglycemia and hypoplasia C) hypocapnia and dyspnea D) hypercapnia and atelectasis

D) hypercapnia and atelectasis

Which of the following will absorb the fewest x-rays? A) bone B) air C) water D) muscle

B) air

Pulse oximetry is a non-invasive method of measuring A) venous CO2 saturation B) arterial oxygen saturation C) arterial CO2 saturation D) venous oxygen saturation

B) arterial oxygen saturation

The appropriate surgical instrument for harvesting an autogenous bone graft is A) bone cutter B) bone curette C) tru cut biopsy needle D) osteotome

B) bone curette

If a thoracic radiograph is taken using 80 kVp and 10 mAs is excessively dark which of the following setting should be used for a retake? A) 60 kVp and 20 mAs B) 70 kVp and 10 mAs C) 80 kVp and 20 mAs D) 85 kVp and 10 mAs

B) 70 kVp and 10 mAs

Which of the four compartments of the ruminant stomach is called the true stomach A) omasum B) rumen C) abomasum D) reticulum

C) abomasum

NSAID administration is appropriate for which of the following patients? A) labrador retriever with hepatitis B) Scottish terrier in renal failure C) Doberman with von Willebrand disease D) corgi with hip dysplasia

D) corgi with hip dysplasia

Which area must be prepped for a horse requiring a caslicks operation A) carpal B) cervical C) flank D) perineum

D) perineum

Babesia canis is found in A) extracellular fluid B) cerebrospinal fluid C) WBCs D) RBCs

D) RBCs

Increase duration or intensity of intraoperative pain is often evidenced by A) increased respiratory rate B) increased temperature C) decreased blood pressure D) decreased heart rate

A) increased respiratory rate

Which of the following best characterizes the physical condition of a patient who is classified as ASA Class III A) life-threatening, systemic disease or disturbance B) moderate systemic disease or disturbance C) slight to mild systemic disease or disturbance D) pre-existing systemic disease or disturbance of a severe nature

B) moderate systemic, disease or disturbance

Which of the following is a gram-positive spore forming rod? A) clostridium perfringens B) corynebacterium bovis C) proteus vulgaris D) salmonella enteritidis

A) clostridium perfringens

An IV bolus of 2% lidocaine is used as an emergency drug for A) xylazine overdose B) paralytic ileus C) ventricular arrhythmia D) hypotension

C) ventricular arrhythmia

In case of respiratory rest during inhalation anesthesia, what is the first thing to do? A) turn off the vaporizer B) bag the animal C) administer doxapram D) turn up the oxygen flowmeter

A) turn off the vaporizer

The advantage of intraoral radiography over extraoral radiography is that it A) reduces focal distance B) minimize the super imposing of tooth images C) allows the use of various film sizes D) reduces film processing time

B) minimize is the super imposing of tooth images

Which part of the gas anesthetic machine allows room air into the system in the event of a pressure change A) pressure manometer B) negative pressure relief valve C) pop off valve D) oxygen flow meter

B) negative pressure relief valve

The correct term for the fibres cord of connective tissue that attaches muscle to bone is A) fascia B) bursa C) tendon D) ligament

C) tendon

An eosin-nigrosin stain mixture is used in semen analysis to evaluate the A) sperm concentration B) sperm motility C) volume of ejaculate D) live:dead sperm ratio

D) live:dead sperm ratio

Which of the following nerve blocks is acceptable for providing analgesia during dehorning of a cow? A) cornual B) pudendal C) peterson D) paravertebral

A) cornual

The term stomatitis refers to inflammation of the A) mouth B) tongue C) esophagus D) stomach

A) mouth

Culture plates are streaked in order to A) obtain isolated colonies B) prevent contamination C) ensure a smooth even growth D) concentrate organisms

A) obtain isolated colonies

Specimens used for antimicrobial sensitivity testing should be cultured on A) macconkeys agar B) blood culture medium C) mannitol salt agar D) mueller-hinton agar

D) mueller-hinton agar

Hydatid cyst disease is a zoonotic condition associated with which of the following tapeworm species A) spirometra mansonoides B) dipylidium caninum C) taenia taeniaeformis D) echinococcus multilocularis

D) echinococcus multilocularis

With regard to analgesic properties, which of the following is most similar to morphine A) phenylbutazone B) butorphanol C) flunixin D) xylazine

B) butorphanol

In a direct saline fecal, smear observation of a motile, flagellate, and binucleate trophozoite is indicative of A) ancylostoma B) giardia C) isospora D) cryptosporidium

B) giardia

Splinting is a clinical sign of A) abdominal pain B) respiratory distress C) extremity pain D) neurological disease

A) abdominal pain

Correct statement regarding the use of a high-speed screen is that it A) eliminates the need for collimation B) increases exposure time C) neither increases nor decreases exposure time D) decreases exposure time

D) decreases exposure time

The California mastitis test is a test for A) environmental debris B) WBCs and epithelial cells C) RBCs and yeast D) bacterial cells

B) WBCs and epithelial cells

Centrifuge blood with an anticoagulant will separate the cells or formed elements from the A) serum B) packed cells C) plasma D) cell suspension

C) plasma

Which of the following endocrine glands exert a master control over the secretions of the other endocrine glands A) pituitary B) adrenal C) thyroid D) pancreas

A) pituitary

Primary reason for administering 1-2 positive pressure ventilations periodically during anesthesia is to A) reinflate collapsed alveoli in the lungs B) facilitate past oxygen perfusion of the lungs C) empty the reservoir bag of concentrated anesthetic d) remove excess pressure from the reservoir bag

A) reinflate collapsed alveoli in the lungs

The drug melarsomine (immiticide) is used to kill A) adult heartworms B) heartworm microfilariae C) adult heartworms and heartworm microfilariae D) intestinal worms

A) adult heartworms

The canine cervix is located between the A) ovaries and the horn of the uterus B) vagina and vulva C) vagina and the body of the uterus D) ovaries and the uterine tubes (oviducts)

C) vagina and the body of the uterus

Arterial blood gas may provide erroneous results if it is A) allowed to clot B) ran immediately C) stored on ice for one hour D) void of room air

A) allowed to clot

The type of fracture that commonly affects young growing animals and can result in limb deformities is called A) communited B) transverse C) salter-harris d) t-fracture

C) salter-harris

Mandibular molars are commonly radiographed using which technique A) lateral cranial B) bisecting angle C) caudorostral oblique D) parallel

D) parallel

Which active ingredient controls flea population by breaking the life cycle at the egg stage A) selamectin B) fipronil C) imidacloprid D) lufenuron

D) lufenuron

The benefit of selective COX-2 inhibitors in the treatment of inflammation is they A) have anti-inflammatory properties, but do not alter the gastric protection provided by COX-1 B) are anti-emetic and anti-diarrheal C) cause platelet aggregation D) do not cross the placenta

A) have anti-inflammatory properties, but do not alter the gastric protection provide provided by COX-1

Which of the following drugs could add to the adverse effects of chocolate toxicity A) acepromazine B) theophylline C) propanolol D) apomorphine

B) theophylline

A rodenticide that can depress clotting factors for 3 to 4 weeks is A) brodifacoum B) warfarin C) bromethalin D) colicalciferol

A) brodifacoum

During a manufacturing shortage of dichlorvos, which of the following drugs, could a veterinarian prescribe as a substitute in the same drug class A) milbemycin oxime B) levamisole C) trichlorfon D) pryantel pamoate

C) trichlorfon

Which of the following is known as the wolf tooth in equine A) canine B) first premolar C) corner incisor D) first molar

B) first premolar

Which of the best options for long-term pain management dysplasia in an 8yr old golden retriever with Cushings disease A) NSAIDs B) opioids C) alpha 2 agonists D) corticosteroids

A) NSAIDs

The proper needle placement for a lumbar myelogram is between the A) 1st and 2nd lumbar vertebrae B) 2nd and 3rd lumbar vertebrae C) 3rd and 4th lumbar vertebrae D) 4th and 5th lumbar vertebrae

D) 4th and 5th lumbar vertebrae

VTNE Flashcards

(415 cards)